Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Pharmacology Mock Exam 3

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best explains why local anesthetics are less effective in inflamed dental tissue?

a)

The tissue has increased blood flow that washes the anesthetic away.

b)

The acidic environment decreases the non-ionized (base) form needed to penetrate nerves.

c)

The anesthetic becomes more lipid soluble in low pH conditions.

d)

Voltage-gated potassium channels become resistant to blockade.

2.

A patient receives lidocaine with epinephrine. What is the primary purpose of adding epinephrine?

a)

Increase systemic absorption

b)

Decrease potency

c)

Prolong duration and reduce bleeding

d)

Prevent allergic reactions

3.

Which local anesthetic is most associated with methemoglobinemia?

a)

Lidocaine

b)

Prilocaine

c)

Articaine

d)

Benzocaine

4.

A dental patient becomes pale, sweaty, and faints during an injection. What is the most likely cause?

a)

Local anesthetic toxicity

b)

Psychogenic vasovagal syncope

c)

Allergic reaction

d)

Epinephrine overdose

5.

Which local anesthetic has the longest duration of action?

a)

Lidocaine

b)

Bupivacaine

c)

Articaine

d)

Mepivacaine

6.

Which anesthetic agent is most appropriate for rapid induction and rapid recovery in a pediatric patient?

a)

Nitrous oxide

b)

Isoflurane

c)

Sevoflurane

d)

Desflurane

7.

Which intravenous anesthetic provides dissociative anesthesia and increases BP and HR?

a)

Propofol

b)

Ketamine

c)

Etomidate

d)

Thiopental

8.

Which general anesthetic stage is characterized by irregular respirations and involuntary movements?

a)

Stage I

b)

Stage II

c)

Stage III

d)

Stage IV

9.

Which inhalation agent has the fastest onset due to the lowest blood/gas partition coefficient?

a)

Isoflurane

b)

Nitrous oxide

c)

Desflurane

d)

Sevoflurane

10.

A patient receiving general anesthesia with sevoflurane suddenly develops muscle rigidity, tachycardia, and hyperthermia. What is the immediate intervention?

a)

Stop anesthesia and give naloxone

b)

Administer dantrolene

c)

Administer flumazenil

d)

Give 100% N2O

11.

A 37-year-old patient with uncontrolled hyperthyroidism presents for extraction. You plan to give lidocaine 2% with 1:100,000 epinephrine. What should you do?

a)

Proceed as normal

b)

Increase epinephrine concentration for hemostasis

c)

Avoid epinephrine and use mepivacaine plain

d)

Switch to articaine with 1:200,000 epinephrine

12.

A child receives codeine after dental surgery and experiences severe respiratory depression. What explains this?

a)

Allergy to codeine

b)

Poor metabolizer phenotype

c)

Ultra-rapid CYP2D6 metabolism

d)

Liver toxicity

13.

Which opioid is considered the gold standard for severe pain but is rarely used in dentistry due to low oral bioavailability?

a)

Morphine

b)

Hydrocodone

c)

Oxycodone

d)

Codeine

14.

Which opioid combination requires caution due to hepatotoxicity risk?

a)

Oxycodone + acetaminophen

b)

Oxycodone alone

c)

Tramadol alone

d)

Hydrocodone alone

15.

Why should codeine be avoided in children?

a)

Risk of allergic reactions

b)

Incomplete absorption

c)

CYP2D6 ultra-rapid metabolism leading to morphine toxicity

d)

Poor analgesic efficacy

16.

What is the maximum recommended duration for opioid treatment after a dental extraction?

a)

7–10 days

b)

5–7 days

c)

2–3 days

d)

10–14 days

17.

Which drug is the first-line treatment for opioid overdose?

a)

Methadone

b)

Naloxone

c)

Buprenorphine

d)

Naltrexone

18.

A patient taking SSRIs develops tremors, sweating, and agitation after receiving tramadol. What is the likely diagnosis?

a)

Opioid withdrawal

b)

Serotonin syndrome

c)

Malignant hyperthermia

d)

Tramadol allergy

19.

A dental patient on benzodiazepines should NOT receive which medication due to the risk of fatal respiratory depression?

a)

Ketamine

b)

Hydrocodone

c)

Tramadol

d)

Naloxone

20.

Which opioid drug is a partial μ-agonist with a ceiling effect on respiratory depression?

a)

Methadone

b)

Buprenorphine

c)

Tramadol

d)

Naloxone

21.

A 28-year-old recovering opioid addict needs third-molar surgery. He refuses opioids. What is the best postoperative regimen?

a)

Oxycodone + ibuprofen

b)

NSAID + acetaminophen combination therapy

c)

Codeine + acetaminophen

d)

Tramadol

22.

A patient undergoing moderate IV sedation receives fentanyl and midazolam. Ten minutes later, his SpO2 drops to 86% and his respirations to 6/min. What is the priority action?

a)

Give flumazenil

b)

Give naloxone

c)

Open airway + 100% oxygen, then determine if reversal is needed

d)

Administer epinephrine

23.

Which mediator is identified as the key driver of inflammation and the primary target of NSAIDs?

a)

Histamine

b)

Prostaglandins

c)

Nitric oxide

d)

Kinins

24.

Why were selective COX-2 inhibitors originally developed?

a)

To reduce renal toxicity

b)

To prevent cardiovascular events

c)

To avoid GI distress and ulcers

d)

To improve platelet inhibition

25.

Why should aspirin be avoided in children with viral infections?

a)

Risk of nephrotoxicity

b)

Increased bleeding time

c)

Risk of Reye’s syndrome

d)

Risk of bronchoconstriction

26.

Which adverse effect of aspirin is linked to its COX-1 inhibition in the stomach?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Visual disturbances

c)

Gastric ulcers and bleeding

d)

Reduced fever response

27.

Which NSAID is noted for a very long half-life (50–60 hours)?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Oxaprozin

c)

Sulindac

d)

Indomethacin

28.

Which adverse effect is associated with acetaminophen overdose?

a)

GI erosion

b)

Respiratory depression

c)

Hepatic necrosis

d)

Increased bleeding time

29.

Which drug is the frontline therapy for closing a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) in premature infants?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Indomethacin

c)

Naproxen

d)

Diclofenac

30.

Why is acetaminophen considered safer than NSAIDs for patients with GI disease?

a)

It is a strong COX-1 inhibitor

b)

It does not cause GI erosion or hyperacidity

c)

It increases prostacyclin

d)

It enhances platelet aggregation

31.

A 52-year-old patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with severe dental pain following extraction. His medical history includes peptic ulcer disease and a previous upper GI bleed. Which is the safest analgesic option for him?

a)

Ibuprofen 800 mg every 6 hours

b)

Ketorolac IM

c)

Acetaminophen 650 mg every 6 hours

d)

Naproxen twice daily

32.

A 30-year-old patient with a history of uncontrolled asthma reports severe facial pain from an abscess. He states aspirin causes difficulty breathing. Which drug should be avoided?

a)

Naproxen

b)

Acetaminophen

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Celecoxib

33.

A patient complains of ringing in the ears, nausea, sweating, and hyperventilation after taking large doses of aspirin for dental pain. What is the likely diagnosis?

a)

Acute opioid toxicity

b)

Salicylism

c)

Reye’s syndrome

d)

Anaphylaxis

34.

A 58-year-old patient with hypertension and a prior myocardial infarction needs pain control after periodontal surgery. Which NSAID should be avoided due to increased cardiovascular risk?

a)

Celecoxib

b)

Naproxen

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Diclofenac

35.

Which scale is commonly used to assess dental anxiety in patients?

a)

Hamilton Anxiety Scale

b)

Modified Dental Anxiety Scale (MDAS)

c)

Zung Anxiety Inventory

d)

Beck Anxiety Inventory

36.

Which benzodiazepine is preferred for fast-onset oral sedation in adults?

a)

Diazepam

b)

Lorazepam

c)

Midazolam

d)

Triazolam

37.

Which drug reverses a benzodiazepine overdose?

a)

Naloxone

b)

Flumazenil

c)

Atropine

d)

Epinephrine

38.

Which drug class is MOST associated with xerostomia and high caries risk?

a)

Cocaine

b)

Opioids

c)

Hallucinogens

d)

Inhalants

39.

Nitrous oxide sedation should be avoided in patients with which condition?

a)

Diabetes

b)

COPD

c)

Hypertension

d)

Hypothyroidism

40.

What is the triad of opioid overdose?

a)

Coma, seizures, mydriasis

b)

Tachycardia, sweating, fever

c)

Coma, miosis, respiratory depression

d)

Hallucinations, hypertension, agitation

41.

A 26-year-old patient arrives extremely anxious for a root canal. You plan nitrous oxide sedation, but her medical history reveals COPD. What is the best option?

a)

Proceed normally; nitrous is safe

b)

Use 100% N2O instead of mixed gases

c)

Avoid N2O and consider oral benzodiazepine

d)

Add epinephrine to improve oxygenation

42.

A 45-year-old patient on fluoxetine (SSRI) requests sedation for an extraction. Which is the safest sedation plan?

a)

Fentanyl + midazolam IV

b)

Triazolam 0.25 mg

c)

Nitrous oxide–oxygen sedation

d)

Meperidine with midazolam

43.

A 32-year-old patient admits to using cocaine 12 hours ago. You plan a filling requiring local anesthesia with epinephrine. What should you do?

a)

Proceed as normal

b)

Increase epinephrine to overcome tolerance

c)

Avoid epinephrine due to hypertensive crisis risk

d)

Use only nitrous oxide

44.

A 68-year-old patient with stable angina (ASA III) needs extraction. What is the safest sedation strategy?

a)

Deep IV sedation

b)

High-dose triazolam

c)

Low-dose midazolam with monitoring

d)

General anesthesia in the office

45.

A 20-year-old dental patient presents with severe caries, bruxism, and extreme xerostomia. He is agitated and sweating. Which substance is MOST likely?

a)

Opioids

b)

Methamphetamine

c)

Alcohol

d)

LSD

46.

You administer triazolam for oral sedation. After 20 minutes, the patient shows slurred speech and decreased responsiveness. What do you do first?

a)

Give naloxone

b)

Administer epinephrine

c)

Administer flumazenil

d)

Start chest compressions immediately

47.

A 15-year-old patient vapes THC daily and presents with moderate periodontal disease. What mechanism BEST explains this?

a)

THC increases enamel solubility

b)

THC increases IL-6 and immunosuppression

c)

THC causes vasoconstriction of the gingival vessels

d)

THC destroys the cemento-enamel junction

48.

A 72-year-old patient with dementia becomes confused and combative after receiving lorazepam for sedation. What went wrong?

a)

Lorazepam has too fast an onset

b)

Elderly metabolize lorazepam too quickly

c)

Lorazepam has a prolonged duration, causing delirium

d)

Benzodiazepines are contraindicated in all elderly patients

49.

A patient on chronic Adderall presents for composite restorations. You plan to use lidocaine with epinephrine. What should you do?

a)

Proceed normally

b)

Avoid epinephrine, as it may cause a hypertensive crisis

c)

Increase epinephrine to counteract stimulant effects

d)

Delay treatment for 72 hours

50.

A 45-year-old man with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 4 presents with severe dental pain. Which analgesic is most appropriate to minimize further renal damage?

a)

High-dose ibuprofen

b)

Naproxen

c)

Aspirin

d)

Acetaminophen (dose-adjusted if needed)