wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

MCB 244 - Exam 3

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In hyaline cartilage, the cells that produce new matrix are called this:

a)

chondroblast

b)

osteocyte

c)

chondrocyte

d)

osteoblast

2.

In this zone of the epiphyseal plate, new cartilage is produced as chondrocytes divide and form stacks of cells:

a)

resting cartilage

b)

proliferation

c)

hypertrophy

d)

calcification

3.

This structure covers the outer surface of bones and serves as an attachment site for tendons and ligaments:

a)

endosteum

b)

lamellae

c)

periosteum

d)

perichondrium

4.

This kind of bones can contain air filled sinuses which are lined with mucous membranes:

a)

irregular

b)

short

c)

long

d)

flat

e)

a & d

5.

Bone remodeling is involved in this:

a)

bone growth

b)

changes in bone shape

c)

calcium regulation in the body

d)

bone repair

e)

all of these

6.

When a fracture is healing, these move into the fracture site to tear down the damaged and excess bone tissue:

a)

osteoblasts

b)

osteoclasts

c)

osteocytes

d)

chondrocytes

7.

Which of these is not an effect of PTH?

a)

rise in blood phosphate level

b)

increased intestinal calcium absorption

c)

increased number of osteoclasts

d)

increased calcitriol synthesis

8.

One long bone meets another at its

a)

diaphysis

b)

epiphyseal plate

c)

metaphysis

d)

epiphysis

9.

Calcitriol is made from

a)

calcitonin

b)

7-dehydrocholesterol

c)

hydroxyapatite

d)

estrogen

10.

Which cells have a ruffled border and secrete hydrochloric acid?

a)

osteocytes

b)

osteogenic cells

c)

osteoblasts

d)

Osteoclasts

11.

Unlike other joints, a -------------- does not join two bones to one another

a)

suture

b)

syndesmosis

c)

gomphosis

d)

cartilaginous joint

12.

The most movable joints are ___ joints

a)

Symphysis

b)

Synovial

c)

Syndesmosis

d)

Synchondrosis

13.

The smooth, connective tissue lining that covers the opposing bony surfaces of a synovial joint is called ----------

a)

articular cartilage

b)

a ligament

c)

the fibrous capsule

d)

a synovial membrane

14.

One example of a multiaxial joint is the ---------- joint

a)

proximal radioulnar

b)

humeroulnar

c)

humeroscapular

d)

Atlantoaxial

15.

These statements about myosin myofilaments are all true EXCEPT

a)

they are thicker than actin

b)

they are attached to the Z disc

c)

they make up the H zone

d)

they are attached to filaments that form the M line

16.

The functional unit of a muscle fiber is the

a)

myofibril

b)

sarcomere

c)

neuromuscular junction

d)

striation

17.

Which of the following muscle proteins is NOT intracellular?

a)

actin

b)

myosin

c)

troponin

d)

Collagen

18.

All muscle types will respond to an electrical stimulus because all muscle cells are -----------

a)

excitable

b)

contractile

c)

striated

d)

involuntary

19.

Which of the following is predominately made up of myosin?

a)

G actin

b)

F actin

c)

The thin filament

d)

The thick filament

20.

Which of the following contains overlapping thick and thin filaments?

a)

A band

b)

H band

c)

I band

d)

Z discs

21.

When a muscle contracts, it usually has an opposing muscle that can cause movement in the opposite direction called this:

a)

antagonist

b)

agonist

c)

fixator

d)

synergist

22.

These muscles of the neck tilt the head down and toward the side:

a)

scalenes

b)

sternocleidomastoid

c)

splenius capitis

d)

Semispinalis

23.

This muscle flexes both the arm and the forearm

a)

biceps brachii

b)

brachialis

c)

deltoid

d)

triceps brachii

24.

Which of the following is not a function of the skeleton?

a)

Storage of calcium and phosphate ions

b)

Storage of red blood cells

c)

Providing support for most muscles

d)

Protecting the brain

e)

Protecting the spinal cord

25.

Osseous tissue is a(an) __________ tissue.

a)

connective

b)

epithelial

c)

dense regular

d)

dense irregular

e)

reticular

26.

Which of the following tissues is not found as part of a long bone?

a)

Osseous tissue

b)

Nervous tissue

c)

Adipose tissue

d)

Cartilage

e)

Transitional epithelium

27.

The center cavity of the diaphysis of a long bone is called the __________.

a)

marrow cavity

b)

central canal

c)

nutrient foramen

d)

canaliculus

e)

epiphysis

28.

Bone-forming cells are called __________.

a)

osteogenic (osteoprogenitor) cells

b)

osteoblasts

c)

osteoclasts

d)

osteocytes

e)

osteons

29.

The spaces found within the concentric lamellae are called __________, and they contain __________.

a)

canaliculi; osteoblasts

b)

osteons; stem cells

c)

lacunae; osteocytes

d)

lacunae; osteoclasts

e)

central canals; osteocytes

30.

Red bone marrow does not contain __________.

a)

myeloid tissue

b)

yellow bone marrow

c)

hemopoietic tissue

d)

white blood cells

e)

red blood cells

31.

Which one of the following bone cells would have the greatest number of lysosomes?

a)

Osteoblasts

b)

Osteoclasts

c)

Osteocytes

d)

Osteogenic cells

e)

Stem cells

32.

It is common to find __________ in compact bone, but they are not seen in spongy bone.

a)

lamellae

b)

osteoclasts

c)

lacunae

d)

central canals

e)

osteocytes

33.

Intramembranous ossification produces the __________.

a)

irregular bones of the vertebrae

b)

flat bones of the skull

c)

long bones of the limbs

d)

short bones of the wrist

e)

short bones of the ankle

34.

In endochondral ossification, the precursor connective tissue is __________, which is replaced by bone.

a)

embryonic mesenchyme

b)

fibrous membranes

c)

hyaline cartilage

d)

transitional epithelium

e)

fibrocartilage

35.

A growing long bone in a child has only two areas of cartilage at the epiphysis. These two areas are the __________.

a)

elastic cartilage and epiphyseal plate

b)

epiphyseal plate and epiphyseal line

c)

primary and secondary ossification centers

d)

fibrocartilage and articular cartilage

e)

articular cartilage and epiphyseal plate

36.

The process of dissolving bone and returning its minerals to the bloodstream is known as __________.

a)

mineralization

b)

mineral deposition

c)

crystallization

d)

resorption

e)

ossification

37.

Phosphate is necessary for all of the following except __________.

a)

ATP

b)

DNA

c)

phospholipids

d)

RNA

e)

amino acids

38.

Which of the following is not a function of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

a)

Promote calcium reabsorption by the kidneys

b)

Stimulate osteoclast activity

c)

Lower blood calcium

d)

Promote calcitriol synthesis

e)

Inhibit osteoblast activity

39.

Blood Ca 2+^{2+} deficiency stimulates __________ secretion, which leads to __________.

a)

calcitonin; more urinary phosphate reabsorption

b)

calcitriol; more urinary phosphate excretion

c)

parathyroid hormone; increased osteoclast activity

d)

growth hormone; increased osteoblast activity

e)

thyroid hormone; less urinary calcium excretion

40.

A soft callus forms during __________.

a)

endochondral ossification

b)

intramembranous ossification

c)

bone growth at the metaphysis

d)

the remodeling of bone

e)

the healing of a fracture

41.

Osteoporosis is most common in elderly women because of the lack of __________, which would otherwise inhibit __________.

a)

estrogen; osteoclast activity

b)

estrogen; osteoblast activity

c)

dietary calcium; estrogen production

d)

calcitonin; osteoclast activity

42.

A fracture in which the bone is broken into three or more pieces is called a ______ fracture.

a)

linear

b)

Pott

c)

comminuted

d)

greenstick

e)

compound

43.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the healing of a bone fracture?

a)

Bone remodeling → soft callus formation → hard callus formation → hematoma formation

b)

Bone remodeling → hard callus formation → soft callus formation → hematoma formation

c)

Hematoma formation → soft callus formation → hard callus formation → bone remodeling

d)

Hematoma formation → hard callus formation → soft callus formation → bone remodeling

e)

Soft callus formation → hard callus formation → hematoma formation → bone remodeling

44.

The _____ is an example of bone as an organ; _____ bone is an example of bone as a tissue.

a)

femur; spongy

b)

spongy; femur

c)

skull; marrow

d)

compact; sesamoid

45.

All the bones below belong to the axial skeleton, except the __________, which belongs to the appendicular skeleton.

a)

frontal bone

b)

mandible

c)

scapula

d)

thoracic vertebra

e)

stapes

46.

A rounded knob that articulates with another bone is called a(n) __________.

a)

condyle

b)

sulcus

c)

alveolus

d)

foramen

e)

sinus

47.

Why does an adult not have as many bones as a child?

a)

Osteoporosis leads to bone loss with age.

b)

Some separate bones gradually fuse with age.

c)

Many bones are replaced by cartilage with age.

d)

Bones are reabsorbed with age.

e)

Osteoclast activity overcomes osteoblast activity with age.

48.

A hole through a bone that usually allows passage for nerves and blood vessels is called a(n) __________.

a)

canal

b)

alveolus

c)

fissure

d)

foramen

e)

sinus

49.

Which of the bones below does not belong to the appendicular skeleton?

a)

Clavicle

b)

Patella

c)

Ethmoid

d)

Ulna

e)

Fibula

50.

All of the following are found on the temporal bone except the __________.

a)

zygomatic process

b)

mastoid process

c)

external acoustic meatus

d)

sella turcica

e)

mandibular fossa

51.

The __________ houses the pituitary gland (hypophysis) and is found in the __________.

a)

foramen magnum; occipital bone

b)

sella turcica; sphenoid bone

c)

lambdoid suture; parietal bones

d)

supraorbital margin; frontal bone

e)

occipital condyle; occipital bone

52.

The __________ suture separates the temporal bone from the parietal bone.

a)

coronal

b)

squamous

c)

lambdoid

d)

sagittal

e)

frontal

53.

Fontanelles are __________ in an infant.

a)

spaces between the unfused cranial bones

b)

cartilages covering cranial bones

c)

fibrous connective tissues lining the cranial cavity

d)

fibrous connective tissues lining the orbits

e)

fibrous connective tissues lining paranasal sinuses

54.

Which of the following bones is adjacent to both the coronal and lambdoid sutures?

a)

Occipital bone

b)

Sphenoid bone

c)

Parietal bone

d)

Zygomatic bone

e)

Frontal bone

55.

Which of the following articulates with the vertebral column?

a)

Mandibular fossa

b)

Mastoid process

c)

Occipital condyle

d)

Foramen magnum

e)

Zygomatic arch

56.

From superior to inferior, how many individual vertebrae are there of each type?

a)

12; 7; 5; 5; 4

b)

12; 5; 5; 7; 4

c)

7; 5; 5; 12; 4

d)

7; 12; 5; 5; 4

e)

7; 5; 5; 4; 12

57.

Which of the following is only found on the axis vertebra?

a)

Transverse foramen

b)

Spinous process

c)

Dens (odontoid process)

d)

Vertebral arch

e)

Superior articular facet

58.

Which of the following is not true of a thoracic vertebra?

a)

The body has facets as points of articulation for ribs.

b)

It usually has a facet at the end of each transverse process for attachment of a rib.

c)

The body is more massive than those of cervical vertebrae but less than those of lumbar vertebrae.

d)

The spinous process is pointed and angled sharply downward.

e)

It has a pair of transverse foramina.

59.

The __________ belongs to the thoracic cage, whereas the __________ belongs to the pectoral girdle.

a)

sternum; clavicle

b)

clavicle; sternum

c)

vertebra T5; vertebra T1

d)

scapula; clavicle

e)

scapula; sternum

60.

Rib 7 is a __________ rib.

a)

true

b)

floating

c)

false

d)

pelvic

e)

cartilaginous

61.

Which of the following do coastal cartilages connect?

a)

The clavicles with the sternum

b)

The true ribs with the scapula

c)

The true ribs with the sternum

d)

The false ribs with sacrum

e)

The floating ribs with the scapula

62.

Which of the following is not part of the pectoral girdle?

a)

The glenohumeral joint

b)

The acromioclavicular joint

c)

The sternoclavicular joint

d)

The sacroiliac joint

e)

The clavicle and scapula

63.

The glenoid cavity of the __________ articulates with the head of the __________.

a)

scapula; sternum

b)

radius; humerus

c)

humerus; scapula

d)

sternum; humerus

e)

scapula; humerus

64.

The antebrachium (forearm) contains the __________.

a)

radius and ulna

b)

humerus

c)

carpals and metacarpals

d)

scapula and clavicle

e)

phalanges

65.

Which of the following is a sesamoid bone?

a)

Metatarsal

b)

Tarsal

c)

Tibia

d)

Fibula

e)

Patella

66.

The acetabulum articulates with the __________.

a)

humerus

b)

femur

c)

patella

d)

tibia

e)

hip bone

67.

What are the three auditory ossicles?

a)

The malleus, incus, and stapes

b)

The superior, middle, and inferior nasal conchae

c)

The hyoid, mandible, and maxilla

d)

The temporal, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones

68.

The __________ is a U-shaped bone that sits above the larynx yet does not articulate with any other bone.

a)

hyoid bone

b)

mandible

c)

maxilla

d)

zygomatic bone

69.

One difference between the male and female pelvis is that the subpubic angle of a female is generally __________.

a)

greater than 100 degrees

b)

less than 90 degrees

c)

greater than 120 degrees

d)

less than 20 degrees

70.

The joint between the first costal cartilage and the sternum, is a __________, whereas the other costal cartilages are joined to the sternum by __________ joints.

a)

syndesmosis; synovial

b)

synchondrosis; synovial

c)

synostosis; cartilaginous

d)

synarthrosis; cartilaginous

e)

symphysis; cartilaginous

71.

What do sutures, gomphoses, and syndesmoses have in common?

a)

These are joints found only in the appendicular skeleton.

b)

These are joints found only in the axial skeleton.

c)

These are all bony joints.

d)

These are all fibrous joints.

e)

These are cartilaginous joints.

72.

The joint between the diaphyses of the radius and ulna is a __________.

a)

suture

b)

gomphosis

c)

syndesmosis

d)

synchondrosis

e)

symphysis

73.

The study of joint structure, function, and dysfunction is called __________.

a)

kinesiology

b)

arthrology

c)

osteology

d)

biomechanics

e)

synostology

74.

The least movable joints are __________ joints.

a)

symphysis

b)

synchondrosis

c)

syndesmosis

d)

gomphosis

e)

synostosis

75.

Which of the following is not an anatomical component of a synovial joint?

a)

Articular cartilage

b)

The joint cavity

c)

The interosseous membrane

d)

The fibrous capsule

e)

The synovial membrane

76.

A(n) ________ is a sac of fluid associated with a synovial joint.

a)

articular sac

b)

synovial vesicle

c)

bursa

d)

meniscus

e)

articular cavity

77.

Which of the following is a first-class lever?

a)

The humeroulnar joint

b)

The talocrural joint

c)

The knee joint

d)

Any metacarpophalangeal joint

e)

The atlanto-occipital joint

78.

The proximal radioulnar joint is a ________ joint.

a)

ball-and-socket

b)

saddle

c)

hinge

d)

pivot

e)

condylar

79.

When you walk up the stairs, your hip and knee joints ________ to lift your body weight.

a)

rotate

b)

abduct

c)

adduct

d)

flex

e)

extend

80.

Raising an arm to one side of the body to stop a taxi, is an example of ________ of the shoulder.

a)

abduction

b)

adduction

c)

circumduction

d)

rotation

e)

protraction

81.

While standing, looking up at the stars requires ________.

a)

elevation of the mandible

b)

extension of the neck

c)

hyperextension of the neck

d)

abduction of the neck

e)

dorsiflexion of the neck

82.

Raising your hand and placing it on the shoulder of a person standing in front of you, requires ________ of the shoulder.

a)

abduction

b)

adduction

c)

extension

d)

flexion

e)

elevation

83.

The temporomandibular joint is a(n) ________ joint.

a)

osseous

b)

cartilaginous

c)

bony

d)

fibrous

e)

synovial

84.

Radial (lateral) and ulnar (medial) collateral ligaments restrict side-to-side movements of the ________ joint.

a)

shoulder

b)

elbow

c)

wrist

d)

hip

e)

knee

85.

Which of the following is the largest and most complex diarthrosis in the body?

a)

The hip

b)

The knee

c)

The elbow

d)

The shoulder

e)

The wrist

86.

The ________ is not part of the tibiofemoral joint.

a)

lateral meniscus

b)

anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)

c)

tibial (medial) collateral ligament

d)

fibular (lateral) collateral ligament

e)

posterior tibiofibular ligament

87.

Which of the following structures prevents knee hyperextension?

a)

The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)

b)

The posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)

c)

The fibular (lateral) collateral ligament

d)

The medial meniscus

e)

The lateral meniscus

88.

The talocrural joint is formed by the union of the ________, the ________, and the ________.

a)

femur; calcaneus; talus

b)

femur; tibia; patella

c)

tibia; fibula; talus

d)

tibia; fibula; calcaneus

e)

tibia; calcaneus; talus

89.

Which of the following is not a function of the muscular system?

a)

Stability

b)

Heat production

c)

Control of openings

d)

Secretion

e)

Breathing

90.

What term best describes the relationship between the pronator quadratus and supinator?

a)

Fixators

b)

Antagonists

c)

Synergists

d)

Prime movers

e)

Depressors

91.

Muscle fibers are arranged in bundles called ________.

a)

compartments

b)

fascicles

c)

retinacula

d)

aponeuroses

e)

groups

92.

Groups of muscles are separated by which of the following?

a)

Epimysium

b)

Fascicles

c)

Perimysium

d)

Fascia

e)

Endomysium

93.

The semitendinosus is an example of what muscle shape?

a)

Triangular

b)

Fusiform

c)

Sphincter

d)

Convergent

e)

Pennate

94.

Which of the following muscles of facial expression is not innervated by the facial nerve?

a)

Orbicularis oculi

b)

Zygomaticus major

c)

Corrugator supercilii

d)

Levator palpebrae superioris

e)

Buccinator

95.

The ________ attaches to the zygomatic arch and also to the angle of the mandible.

a)

masseter

b)

buccinator

c)

temporalis

d)

genioglossus

e)

stylohyoid

96.

Which of the following muscles of mastication would be responsible for mandibular elevation?

a)

Temporalis

b)

Lateral pterygoid

c)

Stylohyoid

d)

Zygomaticus major

e)

Zygomaticus minor

97.

The deepest muscle of the abdominal wall is the ________.

a)

transverse abdominal

b)

internal oblique

c)

rectus abdominis

d)

latissimus dorsi

e)

pectoralis minor

98.

While sitting at your desk, you drop your pencil onto the floor. You bend over to pick up the pencil. In order to straighten up and continue your exam you must use which of the following muscles?

a)

Tibialis anterior

b)

Erector spinae

c)

Semimembranosus

d)

Tibialis anterior and semimembranosus

e)

Extensor hallucis longus

99.

In lifting a heavy weight from the floor, one should use the power of the ________ in order to avoid straining the lower back.

a)

biceps brachii and brachialis

b)

gastrocnemius and soleus

c)

external and internal abdominal obliques

d)

knee and hip extensors

e)

trapezius and latissimus dorsi

100.

In a whiplash injury, the neck undergoes forced hyperextension then hyperflexion, injuring multiple muscles in the neck. Which of the following muscles would be injured during the hyperextension phase of the injury?

a)

Trapezius

b)

Splenius capitis

c)

Sternocleidomastoid

d)

Semispinalis capitis

e)

Levator scapulae

101.

The rectus abdominis is a ________ muscle, while the rectus femoris is a ________ muscle.

a)

fusiform; parallel

b)

parallel; bipennate

c)

convergent; unipennate

d)

bipennate; parallel

e)

multipennate; convergent

102.

The muscles that laterally rotate and depress the scapula, as in shrugging and lowering the shoulders, are the ________.

a)

trapezius and serratus anterior

b)

pectoralis minor and serratus anterior

c)

levator scapulae and rhomboideus

d)

trapezius and rhomboideus

e)

trapezius and latissimus dorsi

103.

Which muscle(s) of respiration is(are) innervated by the phrenic nerve?

a)

Diaphragm

b)

External intercostals

c)

Internal intercostals

d)

Innermost intercostals

e)

Pectoralis major

104.

After taking their wedding vows, a bride and groom often ceremonially use which of the following muscles before walking away from the altar?

a)

Depressor anguli oris

b)

Orbicularis oris

c)

Levator labii superioris

d)

Platysma

e)

Quadriceps femoris

105.

Some people suffer involuntary urination due to incompetence of what muscle?

a)

External urethral sphincter

b)

Bulbospongiosus

c)

Compressor urethrae

d)

Ischiocavernosus

e)

Levator ani

106.

Which of the following is an intrinsic muscle of the hand?

a)

Extensor carpi radialis brevis

b)

Adductor pollicis

c)

Extensor pollicis longus

d)

Extensor indicis

e)

Abductor pollicis longus

107.

Which muscle acting on the arm assists in deep inspiration?

a)

Pectoralis major

b)

Trapezius

c)

Teres minor

d)

Diaphragm

e)

Deltoid

108.

A butcher who cuts the distal portion of his fingers may cut the ________ tendon.

a)

flexor pollicis longus

b)

flexor carpi ulnaris

c)

palmaris longus

d)

adductor pollicis

109.

When a nurse draws blood, it is not uncommon for the needle to penetrate which muscle near the cubital region?

a)

Pronator quadratus

b)

Semimembranosus

c)

Pronator teres

d)

Buccinator

e)

Supinator

110.

Tennis elbow is a common term describing injury to the attachment of which of the following?

a)

Extensor hallucis longus

b)

Pronator quadratus

c)

Extensor carpi radialis longus

d)

Subscapularis

e)

Flexor digitorum profundus

111.

What is the longest muscle in the human body?

a)

Iliopsoas

b)

Sartorius

c)

Erector spinae

d)

Semitendinosus

e)

Semimembranosus

112.

Which of the following muscles attaches on the head of the fibula?

a)

Extensor digitorum longus

b)

Tibialis anterior

c)

Popliteus

d)

Biceps femoris

e)

Semitendinosus

113.

Which of the following muscles is responsible for medially rotating the tibia on the femur when the knee is flexed?

a)

Piriformis

b)

Semitendinosus

c)

Adductor brevis

d)

Vastus medialis

e)

Sartorius

114.

A clinician induces contraction of the gastrocnemius and soleus and notices that the foot does not plantar flex as expected. Which of the following would be a logical diagnosis?

a)

Peroneal nerve injury

b)

Ruptured calcaneal tendon

c)

Anterior compartment syndrome

d)

Shinsplints

e)

Lateral plantar nerve injury

115.

A heavyset middle-aged insurance salesman, who doesn't exercise often, accepts his friend's invitation to a pickup basketball game. When attempting a jump shot, he falls to the ground in pain, grasping at the calf of his leg. There is an enormous bulge in his leg immediately below the popliteal fossa, and he is unable to plantar flex that foot. Most likely he has injured his ________ and the bulge is ________.

a)

quadriceps tendon; his rectus femoris

b)

calcaneal tendon; his triceps surae

c)

patellar ligament; his fibularis longus

d)

tibia; a previously undetected bone tumor

e)

hamstrings; a large hematoma (blood clot)

116.

An Olympic sprinter prepares for a race. After the sound of the starting gun, he propels himself forward from the starting block and immediately grimaces in pain, grabbing for the back of his thigh. Within 48 hours he begins noticing extensive bruising on the back of his thigh extending into the back of the knee. He now has difficulty rising from a seated position and flexing his knee. Bending at the waist generates more pain. Which muscle is likely injured?

a)

Gluteus maximus

b)

Popliteus

c)

Biceps femoris

d)

Gastrocnemius

e)

Iliopsoas

117.

After childbirth, a woman begins experiencing tremendous pain in her groin, making it difficult for her to walk. An X-ray shows a fracture extending from her symphysis pubis to the inferior ramus of the pubis. As a result of the fracture, which group of muscles might be impaired?

a)

Hip flexors

b)

Thigh abductors

c)

Hip extensors

d)

Lateral rotators

e)

Thigh adductors

118.

A skateboarder falls and lands directly on his buttocks and lower back. He does not feel much pain and continues skating. After a couple of days, he begins experiencing right hip pain and notices his right foot and leg are rotated to the right. A doctor diagnoses a muscle spasm. Which of the following muscles is most likely causing the leg and foot rotation?

a)

Quadratus lumborum

b)

Tibialis posterior

c)

Piriformis

d)

Adductor longus

e)

Sacrospinalis

119.

If one nerve stimulus arrives at a muscle fiber so soon that the fiber does NOT relax at all from the previous twitch, the most likely result will be ________. This can only be achieved in the laboratory.

a)

fatigue

b)

spasm

c)

incomplete tetanus

d)

complete tetanus

e)

wave summation

120.

When a skeletal muscle lengthens, its ________ helps resist excessive stretching and subsequent injury to the muscle.

a)

thick filaments

b)

collagen

c)

actin

d)

troponin-tropomyosin complex

e)

varicosities

121.

Which of the following marks the boundaries of a sarcomere?

a)

I bands

b)

H bands

c)

Z discs

d)

M lines

e)

A bands

122.

Which muscle type(s) depend(s) solely on the sarcoplasmic reticulum as its/their calcium source?

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Smooth muscle

c)

Cardiac muscle

d)

Skeletal and smooth muscle

e)

Smooth and cardiac muscle

123.

Shortening a muscle while it maintains constant tension is called ________.

a)

complete tetanus

b)

incomplete tetanus

c)

an isokinetic contraction

d)

an isometric contraction

e)

an isotonic contraction

124.

Michael Jordan was arguably the best player in professional basketball history. Scientifically, one would expect him to have highly developed ________ fibers.

a)

red

b)

white

c)

intermediate

d)

fast twitch

e)

slow oxidative

125.

Where would you expect to find numerous gap junctions in muscular tissue?

a)

The sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle

b)

The A bands of skeletal and cardiac muscle

c)

The sarcolemma of skeletal muscle

d)

The intercalated discs of cardiac muscle

e)

Multiunit smooth muscle

126.

The contraction strength of smooth muscle is relatively independent of its resting length because:

a)

It gets nearly all of its Ca2+ from the extracellular fluid.

b)

It does not have intercalated discs.

c)

It does not have sarcomeres.

127.

If one nerve stimulus arrives at a muscle fiber so soon that the fiber has only partially relaxed from the previous twitch, the most likely result will be _________.

a)

fatigue

b)

spasm

c)

incomplete tetanus

d)

complete tetanus

e)

flaccid paralysis

128.

To stimulate muscle contraction, acetylcholine is released from the __________ into the synaptic cleft.

a)

synaptic vesicles

b)

junctional folds

c)

sarcoplasmic reticulum

d)

sarcolemma

e)

terminal cisterns

129.

Which statement best describes the goal of medications used to treat myasthenia gravis?

a)

To increase the number of acetylcholine receptors

b)

To decrease the number of synaptic vesicles

c)

To promote multiple motor unit summation

d)

To inhibit Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

e)

To inhibit the function of cholinesterase

130.

The process of engaging more motor units to increase the strength of a muscle contraction is called ________.

a)

wave summation

b)

recruitment

c)

temporal summation

d)

incomplete tetanus

e)

complete tetanus

131.

Athletes who train at high altitudes increase their red blood cell count, which increases their oxygen supply during exercise. Increased oxygen supply results in __________.

a)

increased glycolysis

b)

increased use of myokinase

c)

longer aerobic respiration

d)

longer anaerobic fermentation

e)

reduced ATP consumption

132.

Cardiac muscle has very little capacity for regeneration because it lacks __________.

a)

satellite cells

b)

an endomysium

c)

sarcomeres

d)

dense bodies

e)

somatic nerve fibers

133.

Which of the following would be caused by a contraction of smooth muscle?

a)

Goose bumps

b)

Blood leaving the left ventricle of the heart

c)

Elevating the eyebrows

d)

Blinking the eyelids

e)

Deep inspiration

134.

As you are lifting a box, someone places extra weight on top of it. For your muscle to continue contracting and lifting the box, the muscle must __________.

a)

recruit more muscle fibers

b)

lower its threshold

c)

reduce its wave summation

d)

shift from isometric to isotonic contraction

e)

shift from slow-twitch to fast-twitch mode

135.

The protein that acts as a calcium receptor in skeletal muscle is __________.

a)

F actin

b)

tropomyosin

c)

troponin

d)

titin

e)

dystrophin

136.

The toxin of Clostridium tetani travels within somatic motor neurons and effects the functioning of their presynaptic neurons. What effect does this have on smooth muscle?

a)

Flaccid paralysis

b)

Spastic paralysis

c)

Lockjaw

d)

No effect

e)

Myocardial atrophy

137.

Drugs called calcium channel blockers may be used to lower blood pressure by causing arteries to vasodilate. How do you suppose these drugs work?

a)

They prevent calcium from entering the sarcoplasmic reticulum of smooth muscle.

b)

They stimulate the calcium pump in smooth muscle, thus removing calcium from the calmodulin.

c)

They prevent calcium from exiting the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle.

d)

They prevent calcium from entering cardiac muscle, thus slowing down the heart rate.

e)

They prevent calcium from entering smooth muscle, thus allowing the muscle to relax.

138.

The transfer of phosphate from Creatine phosphate to ADP is catalyzed by __________.

a)

myokinase

b)

creatinine

c)

cAMP

d)

creatine kinase

e)

ATP

139.

Which of the following best describes the resting membrane potential (RMP)?

a)

The intracellular environment is negatively charged.

b)

The intracellular environment has more positively charged sodium.

c)

The extracellular environment is negatively charged.

d)

It has a voltage of about +75 mV.

e)

It is dependent upon the absorption of potassium ions by the muscle fiber.

140.

What is the purpose of the triad?

a)

The triad stores sodium.

b)

The triad synthesizes ATP.

c)

The triad maintains the resting membrane potential.

d)

The triad removes acetylcholine from the synaptic cleft.

e)

The triad allows for Ca2+ release when a muscle fiber is excited.

141.

Loss of muscle mass from lack of activity is called __________.

a)

myopathy

b)

dystrophy

c)

apathy

d)

atrophy

e)

tetanus

142.

The axon terminal releases acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft, which is received by receptors on the motor end plate. Which structure does this describe?

a)

A sarcomere

b)

The thick filament

c)

The varicosity of a smooth muscle cell

d)

The neuromuscular junction of a skeletal muscle

e)

A motor unit

143.

Why does one continue to breathe heavily after rigorous physical activity has stopped?

a)

The diaphragm is waiting for its acetylcholine to run out.

b)

The body requires more oxygen to restore levels of ATP and creatine phosphate.

c)

The lungs can't stop breathing until the heart rate slows down.

d)

Myosin heads need more oxygen to fully detach from actin.

e)

The kidneys require oxygen to dispose of excess lactate

144.

Which type of joint allows for the least amount of movement?

a)

Syndesmosis

b)

Synovial

c)

Suture

d)

Symphysis

145.

Which bone cell is responsible for breaking down bone tissue?

a)

Osteoclast

b)

Osteocyte

c)

Chondrocyte

d)

Osteoblast

146.

What is the name of the connective tissue that covers the outer surface of a bone?

a)

Perimysium

b)

Epimysium

c)

Endosteum

d)

Periosteum

147.

Calcitonin _____ osteoclast activity and _____ excretion of calcium from the kidney.

a)

stimulates; increases 

b)

 stimulates; decreases

c)

inhibits; increases

d)

 inhibits; decreases

148.

_____ is responsible for holding the head of the radius in place. _____ strengthens the elbow joint laterally.

a)

ulnar collateral ligament; radial collateral ligament

b)

radial collateral ligament; ulnar collateral ligament

c)

annular ligament; transverse humeral ligament

d)

annular ligament; radial collateral ligament

149.

Which of the following is implicated in osteoporosis in older women?

a)

poor posture

b)

estrogen deficiency due to menopause

c)

abnormal PTH receptor

d)

heritage such as African or Mediterranean

150.

Latent period is...

a)

the time of receiving many impulses in rapid succession

b)

the period between stimulation and contraction

c)

the time when ATP is depleated

d)

the time of muscle relaxation

Similar Resources on Wayground

Page 1

150 questions

Page 1

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Microorganisms & Bacterial Basics

150 questions

Microorganisms & Bacterial Basics

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Belajar Anatomi dan Fisiologi Manusia

152 questions

Belajar Anatomi dan Fisiologi Manusia

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Biology Final Study Guide

148 questions

Biology Final Study Guide

quiz

Worksheet

•

KG - Professional Dev...

Ғылыми зерттеу әдістемесі – жұмыс парағы

155 questions

Ғылыми зерттеу әдістемесі – жұмыс парағы

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Cảm biến sinh học

150 questions

Cảm biến sinh học

quiz

Worksheet

•

University