Osteomyelitis can be caused by a variety of organisms. Which is the most common organism?

Indirect entry (hematogenous) accounts for what percentage of osteomyelitis cases?

Indirect entry of osteomyelitis usually involves how many microorganisms?

Indirect entry of osteomyelitis most often affects which age group?

Direct entry (contiguous) accounts for what percentage of osteomyelitis cases?

Direct entry of osteomyelitis generally involves:

Organisms can enter the bone in direct entry osteomyelitis through which of the following?

What is the result of ischemia in osteomyelitis?

What is the name of the new bone formed by the periosteum with blood supply in osteomyelitis?

Why can't WBCs and antibiotics reach the sequestrum in osteomyelitis?

What is the duration of initial infection in acute osteomyelitis?

Which of the following is NOT a local manifestation of acute osteomyelitis?

Fill in the blank: Systemic manifestations of acute osteomyelitis include fever, night sweats, chills, restlessness, nausea, malaise, and ________ (late sign).

Chronic osteomyelitis is defined as infection lasting longer than ______ OR has failed to respond to initial antibiotic treatment.

SATA: Which of the following is a long-term complication of osteomyelitis?

In chronic osteomyelitis, systemic manifestations are lessened, while the local signs of infection are more prominent.

What is the ideal site for microorganism growth in chronic osteomyelitis due to its inability to be penetrated by antibiotics?

Fill in the blank: The diagnostic method for osteomyelitis mentioned in the notes is ______ or soft tissue biopsy.

SATA: Which diagnostic tests are used for osteomyelitis?

Fill in the blank: The care of acute osteomyelitis USUALLY starts with ______ therapy, then switches to oral agents.

Some patients with osteomyelitis can require IV antibiotic therapy for up to 6 months. What is the MINIMUM amount of time osteomyelitis patients receive IV antibiotic therapy?

Cultures or bone biopsy should be done ______ starting antibiotics in acute osteomyelitis.

What is the PRIMARY treatment for chronic osteomyelitis involving poorly perfused tissue and/or dead bone?

Intravenous therapy with a ______ for 6-8 weeks is used in chronic osteomyelitis.

How long is oral therapy continued after IV therapy in chronic osteomyelitis?

What is monitored through bone scans and ESR testing in chronic osteomyelitis?

Intermittent or constant antibiotic irrigation of bone is a treatment for chronic osteomyelitis.

SATA: Which therapies may be used for wound management in chronic osteomyelitis?

What type of oxygen therapy is used in chronic osteomyelitis?

Fill in the blank: Persons at risk for osteomyelitis include the immunocompromised, those with diabetes, orthopedic prosthetic devices, and ________.

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom that should prompt a patient to call their healthcare provider (HCP) specifically for possible osteomyelitis?

SATA: Which of the following medications can be used to treat pain and muscle spasms in acute care for osteomyelitis?

SATA: Which of the following is a possible adverse or toxic reaction to antibiotic therapy for osteomyelitis that should be taught to patients?

Long-term antibiotic use for treatment of osteomyelitis is most linked to which type of toxicity?

What is muscular dystrophy characterized by?

Which of the following is the most common type of muscular dystrophy?

Duchenne and Becker MD are X-linked recessive disorders that usually only affect which group?

When examining muscle serum enzymes, elevation of which particular enzyme is a strong indicator of muscular dystrophy?

There is a cure for muscular dystrophy.

Deflazacort/Emflaza is used to slow the progression of muscular dystrophy for up to 2 years and improve survival. This drug falls into which class of medications?

What percentage of adults in the US experience low back pain at least once?

What is the leading cause of job-related disability?

Diffuse low back pain affects a _____ surface area than localized pain, and affects ____ tissue.

Sciatica manifests as which type of low back pain?

Which type of low back pain involves discomfort in a specific area?

Radicular pain in low back pain is due to what?

Why is the lumbar region of the spine the most common site of low back pain?

Which region of the spinal column is the most flexible?

Which of the following is a risk factor for back pain?

SATA: Select the musculoskeletal causes of low back pain (LBP).

Acute LBP usually lasts how long?

Symptoms of acute LBP often do NOT appear at the time of injury.

What is a common cause of acute LBP?

When a patient injures themselves in a way which will eventually manifest as acute low back pain, how long does it USUALLY take for the pain to manifest after the injury?

The job that you are using CSUP to attain a license for puts you at extremely high risk for both acute and chronic low back pain.

Which diagnostic test is positive for disc herniation when radicular pain occurs?

Receiving an epidural injection in the past puts a patient at risk for acute and/or chronic low back pain.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a medication for ACUTE back pain management?

SATA: What are some functional health patterns that can lead to the development and exacerbation of acute low back pain?

SATA: What are some neurologic findings that are associated with acute low back pain?

Which of the following is NOT a recommended outpatient treatment for non-severe ACUTE low back pain (LBP)?

Acute low back pain is usually treated in an _______ manner.

Prolonged bedrest is recommended for acute low back pain (LBP).

Acute low back pain USUALLY resolves within ______, often without treatment.

SATA: Select all of the tips a nurse might give a patient to prevent acute low back pain incidence.

AS A NURSE, BE SURE TO ASK FOR HELP WHEN LIFTING OR MOVING PATIENTS TO PREVENT LOW BACK PAIN AND OTHER INJURIES!

Which of the following activities place nurses at high risk for developing LBP?

Chronic Low Back Pain lasts longer than ________ months or involves a repeated incapacitating episode, often progressive.

Which of the following is a degenerative (NOT metabolic) condition that can cause chronic low back pain?

Osteoporosis or other ________ bone disease can cause chronic low back pain.

The narrowing of the spinal canal is a common cause of chronic low back pain. This condition is known as:

Which acquired condition is the most common cause of spinal stenosis?

Congenital spinal stenosis is an _______ condition.

SATA: What are some symptoms of Lumbar Spinal Stenosis?

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Lumbar Spinal Stenosis?

Name the type of drug therapy used for daily discomfort in chronic LBP.

Which medication is used SPECIFICALLY to improve walking and relieve leg symptoms in chronic LBP?

In osteomyelitis, when dead bone separates from living bone, the ______ is formed.

The sequestrum in osteomyelitis becomes a ______ for microorganisms that can spread to other sites. If not resolved or surgically debrided, a _______ may develop with chronic cutaneous drainage.

Which two bodily functions are the MOST important to monitor in patients with muscular dystrophy, ESPECIALLY in later stages?

What are the functions of intervertebral discs?

SATA: Loss of fluid in an intervertebral disc leads to loss of:

Unless accompanied by pain, some degree of intervertebral disc degeneration is a normal process of aging.

When an intervertebral disc deteriorates and becomes thinner, the _______ dries out and the load of body weight shifts to the _______.

The process of the progressive destruction of the nucleus pulposus, with presence of SEEPAGE, is also known as:

SATA: Select some of the most common sites of herniated discs.

Herniated discs _____ the nerves that emerge through the intervertebral foramen.

The compression of multiple nerve roots in the spine is known as:

In the radicular low back pain caused by disc herniation of the lumbar spine, the pain follows the ______ nerve.

SATA: What are some manifestations of Equina syndrome?

SATA: Saddle anesthesia is the loss of sensation in the:

The compression of multiple spinal nerve roots is considered a MEDICAL EMERGENCY requiring immediate surgical DECOMPRESSION to prevent PERMANENT PARALYSIS.

What is considered the last resort diagnostic tool for disc deterioration if the standard studies are inconclusive?

Patients with a history of intervertebral disc degeneration are encouraged to do back strengthening exercises twice a day for:

Most patients heal from a herniated disc in as few as ___ months.

SATA: What are some indications that a patient suffering from intervertebral disc disease REQUIRES surgical intervention?

When a patient undergoes an Intradiscal Electrothermoplasty (IDET), a wire is surgically threated into the affected disc and is ______, which destroys nerve fibers.

When a patient undergoes a Radiofrequency Discal Nucleoplasty (Coablation Nucleoplasty), a radiofrequency probe generates energy that breaks down up to ___% of the _______.

An Interspinous Process Decompression System (X-Stop) is a titanium structure that is fitted to a mount placed on vertebrae to:

A laminectomy is a surgical ______ of a protruding herniated disc through the lamina.

A discectomy is performed to surgically decompress a spinal nerve root by removing the damaged portion of the nerve.

An artificial disc replacement is surgically placed in spine through small incision after the damaged disk is removed. This surgical procedure allows for ______ at the level of the implant.

A spinal fusion that uses a bone graft from patient’s fibula or iliac crest is called an ______, and a fusion graft from a donated cadaver bone is called an _______.

Metal fixation that is implemented in a spinal fusion procedure can add stability, but decreased motion and movement ability.

SATA: What are some positioning guidelines the RN should use for postoperative lumbar fusion patients?

What is a MAJOR complication of spinal surgery that the RN should VIGILANTLY monitor for?

A patient returns to the floor post spinal procedure. Not long after they arrive, the patient complains of a splitting headache. Upon inspection of the surgical dressing, the RN notes serous-appearing drainage oozing from the site. The RN should:

To monitor for a CSF leak in a postoperative spinal procedure patient, the RN should monitor and document the peripheral neurological status of the patient every ____ hours during the first _____ hours post surgery.

In a postoperative spinal procedure patient, loss of bladder ____ may indicate nerve damage.

The RN should notify the surgeon _______ if a postoperative spinal patient displays new onset bowel and/or bladder incontinence, as this may indicate nerve damage.

In postop spinal fusion patients, the bone graft donor site is usually more painful than the fusion site itself.

SATA: What are some issues with patients wearing ill-fitting footwear?

A patient has worn shoes that are two sizes too small for multiple years. They mention during their health history that they feel like a sock is rolled up under their toes, even when barefoot. This finding is indicative of:

Halux valgus is defined as:

It is important for the RN to ensure that postop foot surgery patients have their heels ON the bed to ensure proper healing.

Osteomalacia is a deficiency of:

In osteomalacia, bone loses _____ and becomes _____.

Long-term use of antiseizure drugs and phosphate-binding antacids can cause the development of osteomalacia.

A diagnostic finding of osteomalacia would be a ____ level of serum calcium and a _____ level of alkaline phosphatase.

Osteoporosis is a chronic, progressive diseased marked by ________.

The bones in a patient with osteoporosis are more _____ than normal.

Osteoporosis is 8 times more common:

An initial bone density test is recommended for women over age _____, with a repeat test in ____ years if the initial results are normal.

There is evidence that screening for osteoporosis and bone density is beneficial for men.

SATA: What are some osteoporosis risk factors?

SATA: Which of the following nutrients protect against the development of osteoporosis if ingested in adequate amounts?

The long term use of _______ heavily interferes with bone metabolism.

Bone loss after age 35-40 is ______.

What is the function of osteoblasts?

What is the function of osteoclasts?

In osteoarthritis, bone ______ (____ activity) exceeds bone _____ (____ activity).

X-rays and lab studies are NOT diagnostic of osteoporosis until _______ of bone is lost.

DEXA scans will usually include most common sites of fragility and fracture from osteoporosis, which are:

A T score, in regards to osteoporosis, is a comparison of ideal bone mineral density to the patient's _____ bone mineral density. The differences in scores are measured in ______.

A T score of 0, in regards to osteoporosis, means that the patient's bone density is:

When using T scores to evaluate bone mineral density, the RN should remember that the greater the ______ number, the ______ the patient's bone mineral density is, and therefore the ______ the risk of fracture.

Z scores are similar to T scores in regards to bone mineral density testing. However, Z scores factor age and ethnicity into the comparison and can sometimes be misleading.

SATA: The National Osteoporosis Foundation recommends treatment for:

What is the adequate amount of calcium intake for men ages 19-70 years old and women ages 19-50 years old?

What is the adequate amount of calcium intake for men ages 71+ years old and women ages 51+ years old?

Calcium carbonate contains 40% elemental calcium, and should be taken with:

Calcium citrate contains 20% elemental calcium, and is ____ dependent on stomach acid than calcium carbonate.

Biphosphonates ____ bone resorption and _____ bone remodeling.

Osteonecrosis is a rare side effect of biphosphonate therapy, and is marked by bone death of the _____.

SATA: Select the options below that align with the proper administration of biphosphonate medications.

Osteitis Deformans is also known as:

In Paget's disease, excessive bone resorption is followed by replacement of normal marrow with ______, fibrous ________.

The structure of the new "bones" created by Paget's Disease are ______, more disorganized, and weaker than real bone.

Paget's Disease may present asymptomatically in mild forms. What is often the first sign of this disorder?

How did Ben somehow manage to injure himself during the elementary school health education Peds clinical?