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1111 exam 5 pt.2 oucomes

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A client receiving a rapid blood transfusion reports sudden shortness of breath, has crackles in all lung fields, and a BP increase from 128/70 to 168/90. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Slow the infusion to keep vein open

b)

Stop the transfusion and position the client upright with legs dependent

c)

Increase oxygen to 2 L/min

d)

Assess temperature and check for fever

2.

A client with CHF receiving IV fluids at 150 mL/hr develops a new S3 sound and jugular venous distention. What additional finding supports circulatory overload?

a)

Bounding peripheral pulses and increased respiratory rate

b)

Decreased blood pressure

c)

Dry mucous membranes

d)

Flat neck veins

3.

A postop client receiving IV antibiotics suddenly develops restlessness, tachypnea, and pink frothy sputum. Which lab finding is consistent with fluid overload?

a)

Serum osmolality 285

b)

BNP 1,200 pg/mL

c)

Potassium 4.1

d)

Hemoglobin 12.5

4.

Which task should the RN delegate to an AP for a client on fall precautions with new hyponatremia?

a)

Educate the client on fluid restriction

b)

Perform hourly rounding and assist with ambulation using a gait belt

c)

Evaluate response to hypertonic saline

d)

Monitor neurological status every hour

5.

The RN is caring for multiple clients. Which task can be delegated to an AP?

a)

Assessing peripheral edema

b)

Reinforcing fat-soluble vitamin teaching

c)

Monitoring for dyspnea during IV Lasix

d)

Obtaining daily weights using the same scale at the same time each day

6.

The RN is delegating care on a postoperative unit. Which assignment is appropriate for an AP?

a)

Ambulate a client 1 hour after receiving IV morphine

b)

Assess surgical dressing integrity

c)

Assist a stable client to the bathroom using a walker after safety checks

d)

Teach incentive spirometry use

7.

A client with a suspected paralytic ileus after surgery reports increasing abdominal distention and nausea. Which intervention is appropriate?

a)

Provide clear liquids as tolerated

b)

Maintain NPO status and anticipate NG tube decompression per provider order

c)

Administer oral simethicone

d)

Encourage ambulation immediately

8.

A nurse reviews findings for a client with a paralytic ileus. Which assessment requires immediate action?

a)

Hypoactive bowel sounds

b)

Mild abdominal tenderness

c)

Vomiting large amounts of green bile despite NPO status

d)

Pulse 88/min

9.

A client with prolonged immobility is diagnosed with a paralytic ileus. Which priority intervention supports resolution?

a)

Providing a high-fiber diet

b)

Administering IV fluids to correct electrolyte imbalances that worsen ileus (e.g., hypokalemia)

c)

Encouraging oral potassium

d)

Restricting mobility

10.

While checking equipment, the nurse finds an IV pump with an exposed wire. Which action is appropriate?

a)

Cover with tape until maintenance arrives

b)

Remove pump from service and label as “Do Not Use” immediately before notifying biomedical engineering

c)

Continue using and monitor for sparks

d)

Turn pump off and return to storage

11.

A nurse is educating AP staff about electrical safety. Which statement indicates understanding?

a)

I can use extension cords if the outlet is far.

b)

I will plug equipment only into grounded, hospital-approved outlets.

c)

I can operate equipment with frayed cords if it still works.

d)

I can unplug devices by pulling the cord.

12.

A nurse plugs a portable suction machine into a non-grounded outlet and senses heat from the cord. What should the nurse do?

a)

Continue using it but monitor

b)

Reduce suction pressure

c)

Disconnect immediately and report a potential electrical hazard to engineering services

d)

Move the cord under the bed

13.

A client with osteoporosis needs dietary teaching. Which menu choice reflects good understanding?

a)

Oatmeal with raisins

b)

White bread and jelly

c)

Apple juice and toast

d)

Greek yogurt with fortified orange juice on the side

14.

A nurse teaches a client about calcium absorption. Which statement indicates correct understanding?

a)

Caffeine will help my body absorb more calcium.

b)

I need vitamin D along with dietary calcium for proper absorption.

c)

Spinach is the best source of absorbable calcium.

d)

Calcium supplements should be taken with soda.

15.

A client recently started a calcium supplement. Which finding indicates inadequate dietary calcium intake?

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Hyperreflexia

c)

Numbness and tingling around the mouth (positive Chvostek sign) despite supplementation

d)

Constipation

16.

A postop abdominal surgery client is at risk for dehiscence. Which finding increases that risk?

a)

BMI 24

b)

Albumin 4.0

c)

Persistent cough with poor pain control at incision site

d)

Controlled glucose

17.

Which client is MOST at risk for wound dehiscence?

a)

Client with asthma

b)

Client with hypoalbuminemia and vomiting episodes after surgery

c)

Client with controlled hypertension

d)

Client with no nausea

18.

A nurse assesses a surgical incision that suddenly begins leaking large amounts of serosanguinous fluid. What does this suggest?

a)

Infection

b)

Evisceration only

c)

Potential early dehiscence requiring immediate support of incision with sterile dressings

d)

Hematoma formation

19.

A nurse caring for a client 6 hours postop notes decreased urine output and HR 118/min. Which action is priority?

a)

Administer PRN opioids

b)

Encourage incentive spirometry

c)

Assess volume status and review IV fluid orders for possible hypovolemia correction

d)

Increase ambulation

20.

A client recovering from abdominal surgery suddenly becomes pale, restless, and hypertensive. What is the nurse’s FIRST action?

a)

Assess the airway and apply oxygen as needed before further interventions.

b)

Apply warm blankets

c)

Change the dressing

d)

Reposition supine

21.

A nurse notes that a postop client has a weak cough and shallow breathing. Which complication is most likely?

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Hypertension

c)

Atelectasis due to poor lung expansion postoperatively

d)

Urinary retention

22.

Before giving Kayexalate, which finding must the nurse assess?

a)

Calcium level

b)

BUN

c)

Bowel sounds and abdominal assessment for hypomotility risk before administering medication

d)

Capillary refill

23.

Which action indicates that Kayexalate has been effective?

a)

Increased urine output

b)

Improved appetite

c)

Serum potassium decreases from 6.4 to 5.1 mEq/L

d)

Regular heart rate of 100/min

24.

A client receiving Kayexalate reports watery diarrhea. What is the nurse’s priority?

a)

Encourage ambulation

b)

Monitor for dehydration and electrolyte shifts due to sodium polystyrene sulfonate effect

c)

Hold all medications

d)

Increase dietary potassium

25.

A client taking calcium carbonate reports nausea and muscle weakness. Which finding indicates toxicity?

a)

Potassium 3.9

b)

Sodium 136

c)

Magnesium 1.9

d)

Calcium 12.8 mg/dL with decreased reflexes and confusion

26.

Which client finding suggests adverse effects from excessive calcium supplementation?

a)

Hyperreflexia

b)

Kidney stone formation and flank pain reported over 2 days

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Tachycardia

27.

A client on chronic calcium supplements shows ECG changes. Which lab finding explains this?

a)

K+ 4.0

b)

Ca+ 13.2 mg/dL (dangerously high)

c)

Mg 1.8

d)

Phos 3.4

28.

A client with long-term alcohol use presents with tremors, diaphoresis, and BP 164/102. What is the immediate nursing action?

a)

Provide juice

b)

Start IV fluids

c)

Administer scheduled benzodiazepine per CIWA protocol for withdrawal symptoms

d)

Encourage deep breathing

29.

Which finding indicates complications from chronic alcohol use?

a)

Normal blood pressure

b)

Peripheral neuropathy with numbness and burning in extremities

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Decreased bilirubin

30.

A nurse is preparing teaching for a client with a history of alcohol abuse. Which nutrient is MOST important?

a)

Vitamin C

b)

Thiamine (B1) to prevent Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

c)

Vitamin K

d)

Calcium

31.

A client asks how gas exchange works. Which statement shows understanding of diffusion?

a)

My lungs push oxygen into my blood.

b)

Oxygen moves from high concentration in the lungs to lower concentration in the blood.

c)

CO₂ requires energy to move out of my body.

d)

The heart forces gases across membranes.

32.

A nurse evaluating teaching recognizes correct understanding when the client states:

a)

Diffusion moves particles from low to high concentration.

b)

Water follows protein in diffusion.

c)

Diffusion does not require energy and goes down a concentration gradient.

d)

Diffusion only happens in the kidneys.

33.

Which situation best represents diffusion?

a)

Water moving through a membrane

b)

Sodium moving via protein pump

c)

Oxygen moving from alveoli to pulmonary capillaries down its gradient.

d)

Glucose transported with insulin

34.

A client with vomiting and diarrhea has K+ of 2.6 mEq/L. Which assessment finding is expected?

a)

Hyperactive bowel sounds

b)

Hypertension

c)

Decreased respiratory rate

d)

Flattened T waves and weak, irregular pulse on ECG monitoring

35.

A nurse suspects hypokalemia. Which manifestation supports the finding?

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Muscle twitching

c)

Shallow respirations and decreased breath sounds due to weak respiratory muscles

d)

Tall peaked T waves

36.

A client with hypokalemia related to NG suction will likely exhibit which finding?

a)

Hyperreflexia

b)

Abdominal distention and hypoactive bowel sounds due to decreased smooth muscle contraction.

c)

Increased GI motility

d)

Hypertensive crisis

37.

Before initiating an IV solution, which action is PRIORITY?

a)

Document rate

b)

Check blood sugar

c)

Verify provider order, solution type, and compatibility before obtaining fluid bag.

d)

Apply warm compress

38.

A nurse prepares to start IV D5 ½NS. Which assessment must be done first?

a)

Pedal pulses

b)

Respiratory rate

c)

Inspect IV site for patency and signs of infiltration before connecting solution.

d)

Temperature

39.

A client receiving hypertonic saline must be monitored for which complication?

a)

Hypovolemia

b)

Fluid overload and pulmonary edema due to fluid shift into vascular space.

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Hypoglycemia

40.

While infusing IV antibiotics, the client reports burning at the site. What is the FIRST action?

a)

Increase rate

b)

Flush the IV

c)

Notify provider

d)

Stop infusion and assess for phlebitis or infiltration.

41.

A client receiving blood develops mild back pain and fever. What should the nurse do next?

a)

Give acetaminophen

b)

Stop transfusion and maintain IV line with normal saline for possible reaction.

c)

Elevate legs

d)

Take blood pressure only

42.

A nurse monitoring an infusion notes cool skin, swelling at the IV site, and slowed rate. What is suspected?

a)

Phlebitis

b)

Infiltration requiring site removal and warm compress application.

c)

Air embolism

d)

Hematoma

43.

A client with peripheral arterial disease needs DVT prevention. Which intervention is appropriate?

a)

Massage the legs

b)

Apply warm compresses

c)

Teach ankle pumping exercises every hour and avoid crossing legs.

d)

Maintain bedrest at all times

44.

Which client action helps reduce venous thromboembolism risk?

a)

Using sequential compression devices consistently while in bed.

b)

Wearing tight socks

c)

Sitting with legs dependent

d)

Avoiding fluid intake

45.

A nurse identifies need for further teaching when a client states:

a)

I’ll do foot circles.

b)

I’ll walk as tolerated.

c)

I’ll use my SCDs every night.

d)

I should massage my calves if they feel tight.

46.

Which statement indicates appropriate preoperative teaching?

a)

I should stay in bed after surgery.

b)

I can eat breakfast before my procedure.

c)

I need to stop herbal supplements 1–2 weeks prior to surgery.

47.

A nurse plans pre-op teaching for total knee replacement. Which should be included?

a)

Avoid incentive spirometry

b)

Expect to stay on strict bedrest

c)

Practice deep-breathing, coughing, and leg exercises before surgery.

d)

Drink water up until surgery

48.

Which finding indicates appropriate preop learning?

a)

I’ll take all my meds the morning of surgery.

b)

I won’t wear lotion or makeup on the day of surgery.

c)

I’ll bring valuables with me.

d)

I will avoid moving after surgery.

49.

A postop client reports a sudden “popping” at the incision site. The nurse finds the wound partially separated. What is the FIRST action?

a)

Remove sutures

b)

Cover wound with sterile saline-soaked dressing and notify provider immediately.

c)

Apply abdominal binder

d)

Ambulate client

50.

A nurse teaches about potassium-rich foods. Which meal shows correct understanding?

a)

Turkey sandwich

b)

Baked potatoes with spinach and yogurt smoothie.

c)

White rice with carrots

d)

Chicken noodle soup

51.

A nurse reviews labs for a client with dehydration receiving a continuous IV infusion. Which action is priority?

a)

Maintain infusion at ordered rate

b)

Monitor lungs closely for fluid overload as rehydration proceeds.

c)

Restrict fluids

d)

Stop infusion for mild edema

52.

During IV therapy, the client develops chest pain and dyspnea. What is the FIRST nursing action?

a)

Check BP

b)

Trendelenburg position

c)

Clamp IV tubing and place client on left side to prevent air embolus travel.

d)

Obtain ECG

53.

Which finding after spinal anesthesia requires rapid response?

a)

Mild itching

b)

Headache relieved when lying flat

c)

Severe hypotension with bradycardia and decreased sensation above expected level.

d)

Nausea

54.

A nurse suspects catheter-related pneumothorax after central line insertion. Which finding supports this?

a)

Crackles

b)

Sudden shortness of breath and tracheal deviation toward opposite side.

c)

Fever

d)

Hypertension

55.

Which client is MOST at risk for surgical complications?

a)

50-year-old nonsmoker

b)

22-year-old athlete

c)

74-year-old diabetic client with BMI 36 and history of COPD.

d)

40-year-old with stable vitals

56.

A client received 250 mL IV antibiotics and 50 mL for flushes. What should the nurse document as intake?

a)

100 mL

b)

300 mL total IV intake.

c)

250 mL

d)

50 mL

57.

Before a colonoscopy, which instruction is appropriate?

a)

Eat light breakfast

b)

Avoid clear liquids

c)

Take bowel prep and maintain NPO after midnight per orders.

d)

Avoid walking

58.

Which postop finding in a smoker requires IMMEDIATE intervention?

a)

Slight cough

b)

Diminished breath sounds with low O2 saturation unresponsive to coughing.

c)

HR 96

d)

Pain 4/10

59.

A nurse reviews PO potassium orders for a client with K+ of 3.0. Which action is correct?

a)

Crush extended-release tablets

b)

Give on empty stomach

c)

Administer with a full glass of water and monitor for GI upset.

d)

Push IV K+ rapidly

60.

Which teaching about DVT prevention is accurate?

a)

I shouldn’t move my legs.

b)

I’ll flex my feet and rotate my ankles while in bed.

c)

I should massage my calves.

d)

I won’t drink fluids.

61.

A nurse teaches incentive spirometer use. Which instruction is correct?

a)

Exhale quickly into the device

b)

Inhale slowly and deeply to raise the marker, then hold breath for 3–5 seconds.

c)

Use once per day

d)

Lie flat while using

62.

Which teaching about DVT prevention is accurate?

a)

I shouldn’t move my legs.

b)

I’ll flex my feet and rotate my ankles while in bed.

c)

I should massage my calves.

d)

I won’t drink fluids.

63.

A nurse teaches incentive spirometer use. Which instruction is correct?

a)

Exhale quickly into the device

b)

Inhale slowly and deeply to raise the marker, then hold breath for 3–5 seconds.

c)

Use once per day

d)

Lie flat while using

64.

A client recovering from magnesium sulfate therapy becomes hypotensive with decreased respirations. What is the antidote?

a)

Vitamin K

b)

Sodium chloride

c)

Calcium gluconate IV push per protocol.

d)

Potassium chloride

65.

A client receiving magnesium sulfate develops absent reflexes. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Increase infusion

b)

Reassess in 30 min

c)

Stop infusion and prepare calcium gluconate.

d)

Administer diuretics