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Week 13 PathoPharm

Total questions: 55

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to the instructional text, which statement best describes inflammation in the immune system?

a)

A specific, adaptive response that targets previously encountered pathogens

b)

A body’s defense mechanism considered part of innate, nonspecific immunity

c)

A metabolic process primarily involved in energy production

d)

A neural reflex that reduces sensory input after injury

2.

Which is the primary purpose of inflammation as stated in the material?

a)

To prevent blood clotting at the site of injury

b)

To contain the injury or destroy the antigen

c)

To increase oxygen diffusion across tissues

d)

To stimulate adaptive memory cell production exclusively

3.

Which combination of signs and symptoms is characteristic of inflammation in the provided content?

a)

Swelling, pain, warmth, and redness

b)

Fever, pallor, bradycardia, and hypotension

c)

Itching, cyanosis, diarrhea, and tremor

d)

Rigidity, jaundice, tinnitus, and photophobia

4.

Which classification distinction is highlighted for inflammation?

a)

Innate vs. adaptive inflammation

b)

Acute vs. chronic inflammation

c)

Humoral vs. cellular inflammation

d)

Primary vs. secondary inflammation

5.

A patient presents with localized redness and warmth after a minor cut. Using the material’s concepts, what is the most plausible reason the body produces these changes?

a)

To downregulate innate immunity and avoid tissue repair

b)

To contain the injury or destroy the antigen as part of a nonspecific defense

c)

To activate learned, antigen-specific memory responses exclusively

d)

To divert blood flow away from the area to prevent swelling

6.

Recall: Which molecule listed is a chemical mediator that alerts surrounding tissue after injury?

a)

Insulin

b)

Histamine

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Collagen

7.

Recall: Which set includes only chemical mediators of inflammation mentioned in the material?

a)

Leukotrienes, bradykinin, complement

b)

Serotonin, epinephrine, cortisol

c)

Glucose, ATP, creatine

d)

Keratin, elastin, actin

8.

Skill/Concept: According to the material, which event directly follows cellular injury to initiate acute inflammation?

a)

Immediate thrombosis within arterioles

b)

Release of chemical mediators from mast cells

c)

Proliferation of fibroblasts forming scar tissue

d)

Apoptosis of neutrophils reducing inflammation

9.

Skill/Concept: Which option correctly matches an acute inflammation step with the hallmark listed in the diagram?

a)

Vasodilation — pus

b)

Vascular permeability — edema

c)

Cellular infiltration — heat

d)

Stimulation of nerve endings — clot formation

10.

Recall: Which step among the five basic steps of acute inflammation is primarily associated with redness and heat?

a)

Cellular infiltration

b)

Vasodilation

c)

Thrombosis

d)

Stimulation of nerve endings

11.

Strategic Thinking: A patient presents with localized swelling shortly after tissue injury. Based on the steps of acute inflammation provided, which process most directly explains this finding?

a)

Enhanced lymphatic drainage decreasing interstitial fluid

b)

Vascular permeability allowing plasma proteins to leak

c)

Accelerated thrombosis sealing damaged venules

d)

Immediate stimulation of nerve endings causing fluid retention

12.

Skill/Concept: Which sequence best represents the ordered cascade described for acute inflammation?

a)

Cellular infiltration → vasodilation → thrombosis → stimulation of nerve endings → vascular permeability

b)

Release of chemical mediators → vasodilation → vascular permeability → cellular infiltration → thrombosis → stimulation of nerve endings

c)

Thrombosis → cellular infiltration → stimulation of nerve endings → vasodilation → vascular permeability

d)

Stimulation of nerve endings → thrombosis → vasodilation → vascular permeability → cellular infiltration

13.

Strategic Thinking: Which mediator from the list would most plausibly contribute to bronchoconstriction and increased vascular permeability, thereby amplifying edema in acute inflammation?

a)

Leukotrienes

b)

Complement

c)

Prostaglandins

d)

Bradykinin

14.

Recall the role of histamine in inflammation based on the provided material. Which statement best describes histamine?

a)

A neurotransmitter released primarily by neurons to inhibit inflammation

b)

A key chemical mediator stored in mast cells that initiates the inflammatory response

c)

An enzyme produced by capillaries to prevent tissue swelling

d)

A hormone secreted by the stomach to regulate vasoconstriction

15.

According to the material, what immediate vascular effect follows the release of histamine during inflammation?

a)

Vasoconstriction leading to reduced capillary permeability

b)

Vasodilation with capillaries becoming leaky and causing tissue swelling

c)

No change in vessel diameter but increased lymphatic drainage

d)

Formation of thrombi that seal damaged vessels

16.

Which receptor distribution and effect pairing is correct for H1 receptors?

a)

Located in stomach; stimulation increases hydrochloric acid secretion

b)

Found in vascular smooth muscle, bronchi, and sensory nerves; stimulation leads to itching, pain, edema, vasodilation, and bronchoconstriction

c)

Present on cardiac myocytes; stimulation causes bradycardia and decreased contractility

d)

Expressed in hepatic cells; stimulation promotes glycogen breakdown

17.

Where are H2 receptors primarily located, and what is their principal physiological response when stimulated?

a)

In bronchi; stimulation causes bronchodilation

b)

In sensory nerves; stimulation increases pain perception

c)

In stomach; stimulation results in secretion of hydrochloric acid

d)

In vascular endothelium; stimulation causes platelet aggregation

18.

Which clinical phenomenon is histamine directly implicated in, as stated in the material?

a)

Symptoms of anaphylaxis

b)

Development of autoimmune tolerance

c)

Suppression of allergic reactions

d)

Resolution of chronic inflammation without edema

19.

A patient presents with itchy skin, edema, and bronchoconstriction during an allergic episode. Based on the material, stimulation of which receptor most plausibly explains these signs?

a)

H1 receptor

b)

H2 receptor

c)

Dopamine D2 receptor

d)

Beta-2 adrenergic receptor

20.

Histamine can exert its effects by interacting with different receptors. Based on the material, which pair correctly lists these receptor classes?

a)

H1 and H2 receptors

b)

M1 and M2 receptors

c)

Alpha-1 and Alpha-2 receptors

d)

NK1 and NK2 receptors

21.

According to the instructional text, which initial approach is emphasized for managing inflammatory conditions?

a)

Begin with systemic antibiotics for all cases

b)

Identify and treat the underlying cause

c)

Immediately use high-dose corticosteroids

d)

Focus on surgical removal of inflamed tissue

22.

Which statement best describes the course of many inflammatory responses as presented in the material?

a)

They invariably require long-term systemic therapy

b)

They are usually self-limiting

c)

They always progress to chronic disease

d)

They resolve only with surgical intervention

23.

For mild inflammatory symptoms, what non-pharmacologic measure is recommended in the text?

a)

Heat packs and vigorous exercise

b)

Ice packs and rest

c)

Ultraviolet light exposure

d)

Continuous compression without rest

24.

Which set lists topical agents appropriate for inflammation of skin or mucous membranes as indicated in the material?

a)

Oral tablets, inhalers, and vaccines

b)

Creams, ointments, patches, suppositories, and intranasal sprays

c)

Intravenous infusions and subcutaneous implants

d)

Radiation therapy and phototherapy

25.

What are stated goals of inflammation treatment in the instructional text?

a)

Eliminate all immune activity and enhance fever

b)

Prevent or decrease the intensity of the inflammatory response and reduce fever

c)

Increase inflammation to accelerate healing and induce fever

d)

Focus solely on cosmetic outcomes without addressing symptoms

26.

Which statement best describes NSAIDs in the management of inflammation?

a)

Primary drugs for mild to moderate inflammation with similar efficacy and both analgesic and antipyretic actions

b)

Primarily antipyretic drugs reserved only for severe inflammation and vary widely in efficacy

c)

Drugs that have anti-inflammatory action only when combined with acetaminophen

d)

Agents used mainly for infection control and do not provide analgesia

27.

According to the material, which statement about acetaminophen is accurate?

a)

It has no anti-inflammatory actions and is not classified as an NSAID

b)

It strongly inhibits COX-2 and is a first-generation NSAID

c)

It is a selective COX-1 inhibitor used to reduce gastric irritation

d)

It increases platelet aggregation and is contraindicated in bleeding disorders

28.

Salicylates treat inflammation primarily by which mechanism?

a)

Inhibiting both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes

b)

Selectively inhibiting COX-2 without affecting COX-1

c)

Blocking leukotriene receptors in bronchial smooth muscle

d)

Increasing prostaglandin synthesis to protect the gastric mucosa

29.

Which adverse effect profile is linked with salicylates as presented?

a)

Gastrointestinal upset, bleeding, and salicylism

b)

Bronchospasm and severe renal vasoconstriction only

c)

Hypercoagulation with reduced bleeding risk

d)

Marked digestive tolerance with no GI symptoms

30.

Which statement about ibuprofen and ibuprofen-like NSAIDs is supported by the material?

a)

They are alternatives to aspirin that inhibit both COX-1 and COX-2 and have low incidence of adverse effects when used intermittently

b)

They selectively inhibit COX-1 and therefore increase gastric protection and platelet aggregation

c)

They exclusively inhibit COX-2 and eliminate the risk of bleeding

d)

They are ineffective as antipyretics compared with salicylates

31.

Selective COX-2 inhibitors have which distinguishing characteristic compared with nonselective NSAIDs?

a)

They do not inhibit COX-1, so they do not affect blood coagulation or irritate the digestive system

b)

They block both COX enzymes, increasing risk of gastric ulceration

c)

They primarily increase platelet function and enhance coagulation

d)

They are reserved only for mild inflammation due to poor efficacy

32.

Which clinical scenario best matches the stated use of selective COX-2 inhibitors?

a)

Treatment of choice for moderate to severe inflammation because COX-1 is spared

b)

First-line therapy for mild inflammation due to strong COX-1 inhibition

c)

Adjunct for fever reduction when gastric protection is needed from COX-1 inhibition

d)

Agent preferred to increase blood coagulation in postsurgical patients

33.

Which function is attributed to COX-1 in the provided material?

a)

Reducing gastric acid secretion and promoting renal blood flow

b)

Promoting inflammation after tissue injury

c)

Increasing bronchial smooth muscle tone to induce bronchospasm

d)

Triggering platelet hyperfunction to reduce bleeding

34.

Which statement correctly differentiates COX-2 from COX-1?

a)

COX-2 is formed only after tissue injury and serves to promote inflammation

b)

COX-2 is present in all tissues and primarily protects gastric mucosa

c)

COX-2 is constitutively active to regulate renal blood flow

d)

COX-2 reduces smooth muscle tone in blood vessels

35.

What consequence is associated with first-generation NSAIDs such as aspirin and ibuprofen due to their blocking of both COX-1 and COX-2?

a)

Bleeding, gastric upset, and reduced kidney function

b)

Enhanced gastric protection and decreased bleeding

c)

Selective reduction of inflammation without GI effects

d)

Marked increase in blood coagulation and bronchial constriction

36.

Which statement best describes the mechanism of action for Ibuprofen as presented?

a)

Selective inhibition of COX-2 to reduce prostaglandins

b)

Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis to treat mild to moderate pain, fever, and inflammation

c)

Irreversible inhibition of COX-1 only, primarily affecting platelet aggregation

d)

Enhancement of leukotriene synthesis to reduce inflammation

37.

According to the Black Box Warning for Ibuprofen, which risk is highlighted?

a)

Hyperglycemic crises leading to diabetic ketoacidosis

b)

Increased risk of serious thrombotic events, myocardial infarction, and stroke that can be fatal

c)

Permanent renal failure due to direct nephrotoxicity

d)

Severe dermatologic reactions including Stevens–Johnson syndrome as the primary concern

38.

Which administration alert for Ibuprofen is correct?

a)

Always give with high-fat meals to increase absorption

b)

Give on an empty stomach; if nausea or vomiting occurs, it can be given with food

c)

Avoid giving with food under any circumstances

d)

Crush all tablets before administration to reduce GI adverse events

39.

Which patient condition is listed as a contraindication for Ibuprofen?

a)

Active peptic ulcers

b)

Type 2 diabetes mellitus

c)

Hypothyroidism

d)

Chronic otitis media

40.

Which drug class interaction is noted for Ibuprofen?

a)

Anticoagulants, alcohol or corticosteroids, and aspirin may interact

b)

Only antacids significantly interact

c)

Penicillin enhances the effect

d)

Beta-blockers eliminate GI risks

41.

Which adverse effect category for Ibuprofen includes peripheral edema, aplastic anemia, leukopenia, and anaphylaxis?

a)

Common but mild adverse effects

b)

Rare but serious adverse effects

c)

Expected therapeutic effects

d)

Dose-independent side effects

42.

What is the recommended treatment of Ibuprofen overdose?

a)

Hemodialysis only

b)

Activated charcoal and nasogastric suction

c)

Alkalinization of urine with sodium bicarbonate

d)

Administration of naloxone

43.

Which therapeutic class grouping applies to Ibuprofen?

a)

Opioid analgesic

b)

Analgesic, anti-inflammatory, antipyretic

c)

Anticonvulsant

d)

Antiemetic

44.

Which administration guidance is specified for Aspirin regarding surgery?

a)

Continue Aspirin up to the day of surgery

b)

Discontinue Aspirin 24 hours prior to surgery

c)

Discontinue Aspirin 1 week prior to surgery

d)

Increase dose before surgery to prevent pain

45.

Which statement correctly summarizes Aspirin’s mechanism of action?

a)

Selective COX-2 inhibition without affecting COX-1

b)

Binds to both COX-1 and COX-2, altering their structure and preventing formation of inflammatory prostaglandins

c)

Stimulates prostaglandin synthesis to relieve fever

d)

Blocks leukotriene receptors to reduce bronchospasm

46.

Which contraindication is explicitly listed for Aspirin?

a)

Patients with uncontrolled hypothyroidism

b)

Do not give to patients receiving anticoagulant therapy

c)

Children under 2 years of age

d)

Patients with migraine only

47.

Which interaction set is noted for Aspirin?

a)

Concurrent use with phenobarbital, antacids, glucocorticoids; alcohol or other NSAIDs; and garlic, ginger, and ginkgo

b)

Only interacts with beta-2 agonists

c)

No known food or drug interactions

d)

Contraindicated with vitamin C supplementation alone

48.

Which adverse effect is identified for Aspirin in the profile?

a)

Severe hypertension

b)

Epigastric discomfort

c)

Profound bradycardia

d)

Cholestatic jaundice

49.

Which pharmacologic class is assigned to Aspirin in the material?

a)

Salicylate; cyclooxygenase inhibitor

b)

Opioid receptor agonist

c)

Selective COX-2 inhibitor

d)

Serotonin reuptake inhibitor

50.

Which statement about Celebrex’s selectivity is correct?

a)

Celebrex inhibits both COX-1 and COX-2 equally

b)

Celebrex is only a selective COX-2 inhibitor

c)

Celebrex selectively inhibits COX-1 while sparing COX-2

d)

Celebrex has no effect on cyclooxygenase enzymes

51.

Why do COX-2 inhibitors like Celebrex lack effects on blood coagulation according to the profile?

a)

They do not inhibit COX-1, so they do not affect platelet-related coagulation effects

b)

They increase thromboxane synthesis

c)

They directly block fibrin formation

d)

They enhance COX-1 activity in platelets

52.

Which clinical preference is stated for Celebrex?

a)

Preferred for mild headaches only

b)

Preferred treatment for moderate to severe inflammation

c)

Preferred for anticoagulation in atrial fibrillation

d)

Preferred for management of acute infections

53.

Which therapeutic and pharmacologic classes are matched correctly for Celebrex?

a)

Therapeutic: nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory; Pharmacologic: COX-2 inhibitors

b)

Therapeutic: opioid analgesic; Pharmacologic: salicylate

c)

Therapeutic: antipyretic only; Pharmacologic: proton pump inhibitor

d)

Therapeutic: anticoagulant; Pharmacologic: antiplatelet

54.

Comparing Ibuprofen and Aspirin, which statement best distinguishes their COX selectivity based on the profiles?

a)

Both are selective COX-2 inhibitors

b)

Ibuprofen is a salicylate that irreversibly inhibits COX-1 only, while Aspirin is nonselective

c)

Aspirin binds COX-1 and COX-2; Ibuprofen is classified as an NSAID that inhibits prostaglandin synthesis without stated selectivity

d)

Ibuprofen inhibits COX-1 irreversibly; Aspirin inhibits COX-2 reversibly

55.

Which warning or precaution is common to NSAID use but specifically highlighted in the Ibuprofen profile’s Black Box Warning?

a)

Risk of fatal hepatotoxicity as the primary concern

b)

Serious GI adverse events including bleeding, ulceration, and perforation of stomach or intestines can be fatal

c)

Routine hypoglycemia in non-diabetics

d)

Guaranteed prevention of stroke