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Management Worksheet

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 2hrs 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement BEST explains why moving into management can be risky for an employee?

a)

Managers usually earn less than non-management workers.

b)

Companies allow managers to return to their previous jobs if they fail.

c)

Successful employees may not necessarily succeed at management.

d)

Management work primarily involves tasks similar to frontline work.

2.

Which trend best reflects the modern shift in manager–employee relationships?

a)

Managers provide minimal information to employees to ensure control.

b)

Employees are excluded from decision-making to eliminate conflict.

c)

Managers rely more on authority and formal controls.

d)

Managers collaborate with employees and share information openly.

3.

A manager who spends most of the workday directly supervising employees and ensuring daily tasks are completed is operating at which level?

a)

Executive

b)

Middle manager

c)

Supervisor

d)

Administrative manager

4.

Which management function focuses MOST on determining whether a company has achieved its objectives as intended?

a)

Planning

b)

Controlling

c)

Organizing

d)

Staffing

5.

Which of the following is a core assumption of Frederick Taylor’s classical management theory?

a)

Employees work hardest when given autonomy and minimal oversight.

b)

There is one best way to perform every job.

c)

Motivation is driven primarily by social recognition.

d)

Quality should be evaluated by employee self-report.

6.

Henri Fayol’s contribution to administrative management included:

a)

The Hawthorne effect and worker motivation

b)

Functional specialization and piece-rate compensations

c)

Identifying common functions of management and unity of command

d)

Creating assembly-line efficiency systems

7.

Which factor spurred the need for new management approaches during the Industrial Revolution?

a)

A reduction in factory worker hours

b)

Massive business growth and complex operations

c)

Widespread automation that eliminated most labor

d)

Government bans on child labor

8.

Quality management focuses primarily on:

a)

Increasing managerial authority

b)

Reducing waste, errors, and defects through total commitment

c)

Giving supervisors full control of production

d)

Encouraging employees to self-train and self-manage

9.

The Hawthorne studies concluded that worker productivity increases when:

a)

Workers are given strict instructions

b)

Lighting conditions are optimized scientifically

10.

Which characteristic BEST differentiates a middle manager from other levels?

a)

They spend most of their time hiring new employees.

b)

They complete all management functions but specialize in one area.

c)

They are responsible for setting company-wide long-term strategies.

d)

They focus mainly on performing frontline tasks.

11.

Which factor is NOT explicitly listed as part of determining a company’s management strategy?

a)

The work performed by employees

b)

The characteristics of the business environment

c)

Personal values of each employee

d)

Characteristics of the management team

12.

Which statement BEST reflects 21st-century business competition?

a)

Most competition now occurs only within local regions.

b)

The Internet allows small businesses to compete globally.

c)

Global competition is declining due to transportation limits.

d)

Only large corporations can engage in e-commerce.

13.

Which age demographic is projected to increase the most between 2010 and 2050?

a)

16–24

b)

25–54

c)

55 and over

d)

All will increase equally

14.

What was a major unintended effect of Ford’s increased wages and reduced working hours?

a)

Workers became less loyal due to shorter shifts.

b)

Workers were less likely to buy Ford cars.

c)

Other companies were forced to improve wages or lose talent.

d)

Employee turnover increased dramatically.

15.

Which of the following BEST explains why management is increasingly complex in the 21st century?

a)

Fewer technological tools exist to support managers.

b)

Workforce demographics and competition remain stable.

c)

Managers face rapid change, global competition, and technological demands.

d)

Work is becoming more physically demanding than intellectually demanding.

16.

A supervisor with authority over employees but who also performs some non-managerial duties most likely belongs to which level of the management pyramid?

a)

Top

b)

Middle

c)

First level

d)

Administrative

17.

Which key change in the nature of work is highlighted in the chapter?

a)

More jobs require repetitive manual labor.

b)

Independent, isolated work tasks are increasingly common.

c)

Work is increasingly completed by teams using technology.

d)

Machines are being replaced by human labor.

18.

Which managerial function is MOST closely related to motivating employees and providing necessary resources?

a)

Planning

b)

Organizing

c)

Leading

d)

Controlling

19.

Which management theory emphasizes improving relationships between managers and employees to increase satisfaction and productivity?

a)

Classical management

b)

Behavioral management

c)

Administrative management

d)

Quality management

20.

Which of the following is a key factor influencing whether a management strategy is appropriate for a business?

a)

Personal hobbies of the managers

b)

Whether the business is old or new

c)

Customer opinion of the CEO

d)

Whether employees work part-time or full-time elsewhere

21.

Which leadership trait most directly prevents a manager from reacting to stereotypes or first impressions?

a)

Stability

b)

Objectivity

c)

Understanding

d)

Confidence

22.

An employee follows a manager’s guidance primarily because they admire and want approval from the manager. This is an example of:

a)

Reward power

b)

Identity power

23.

Which situation would least justify an autocratic leadership style?

a)

A rush order with strict deadlines

b)

Managing temporary seasonal employees

c)

Highly experienced employees performing routine tasks

d)

A factory emergency requiring immediate action

24.

A manager strongly believes employees enjoy their work and take initiative. This belief aligns most closely with which management view?

a)

Close management

b)

Limited management

c)

Flexible management

d)

Open management

25.

Which soft skill is most directly harmed when a manager’s verbal and nonverbal communication do not match?

a)

Teamwork

b)

Communication

c)

Networking

d)

Professionalism

26.

A situational leader supervising a team of expert employees working remotely should most likely use which style?

a)

Autocratic

b)

Democratic

c)

Open

d)

Close

27.

Which leadership characteristic most directly supports building cooperative relationships among employees?

a)

Teamwork

b)

Communication

c)

Decision Making

d)

Conflict Resolution

28.

A manager relying primarily on position power will likely face which limitation?

a)

Employees follow willingly

b)

Employees grant the manager more expert power

c)

Employees may comply but lack motivation

d)

Employees feel appreciated and involved

29.

A manager adjusting the amount of supervision based on employee experience is demonstrating:

a)

Autocratic leadership

b)

Situational leadership

c)

Limited management

d)

Reward power

30.

Which is a disadvantage of the democratic leadership style?

a)

It reduces employee motivation

b)

It causes human relations problems

c)

It is inefficient for routine or time-sensitive work

d)

It prevents employee involvement

31.

Which factor least influences job satisfaction?

a)

Employee personal characteristics

b)

The manager’s leadership style

c)

The employee’s financial investments outside work

d)

Relationships with coworkers

32.

Employee assistance programs (EAPs) are primarily designed to address:

a)

Workplace productivity

b)

Employee training

c)

Personal problems and issues affecting employee performance

d)

Company policies

33.

Which is the most important reason managers must understand their own biases?

a)

To appear more confident

b)

To treat employees as individuals

c)

To enforce more consistent rules

d)

To make faster decisions

34.

A new employee is nervous and insecure about a task. Which approach is most effective?

a)

Decrease supervision to build independence

b)

Provide close support and feedback

c)

Switch to an open leadership style immediately

d)

Avoid involvement so the employee learns independently

35.

Which leadership style most risks causing employee boredom and frustration?

a)

Open

b)

Democratic

c)

Autocratic

d)

Situational

36.

What is the main purpose of work rules?

a)

To punish employees for poor behavior

b)

To maintain an effective working environment

c)

To increase the number of tasks employees must complete

d)

To allow employees full control over their work

37.

According to the “hot stove principle,” effective discipline should be:

a)

Immediate, consistent, and impersonal

b)

Delayed and emotional

c)

Random and unpredictable

d)

Avoided whenever possible

38.

Which type of power is granted by employees rather than the manager’s position?

a)

Position and reward power

b)

Reward and expert power

c)

Expert and identity power

d)

Position and identity power

39.

A manager who routinely arrives late, despite expecting punctuality from employees, is lacking which soft skill?

a)

Networking

b)

Teamwork

c)

Professionalism

d)

Critical thinking

40.

Which statement best explains why a leader must have judgment?

a)

To react emotionally to difficult situations

b)

To make decisions based on personal preference

c)

To consider facts carefully before making decisions

d)

To avoid gathering new information

41.

Which of the following BEST explains why the U.S. is described as a “service economy”?

a)

Most U.S. firms focus on mass production

b)

Service firms greatly outnumber manufacturing firms

c)

U.S. firms export more services than goods

d)

Service firms require fewer employees

42.

A company increases the number of identical products produced per hour while maintaining quality. This is primarily an improvement in:

a)

Delayed and private

b)

Immediate, consistent, and clearly communicated

c)

Public and unpredictable

d)

Based solely on employee feedback

43.

Which situation reflects high supply and low demand?

a)

Prices drop because many similar products exist

b)

Prices rise because many people want the product

c)

Firms increase marketing to boost sales

d)

Product availability is limited, raising price

44.

A business that extracts minerals used by car manufacturers is classified as:

a)

A service business

b)

A goods-producing business

c)

A nonprofit enterprise

d)

A retail enterprise

45.

An American company competing with lower-priced foreign goods is an example of:

a)

Market segmentation

b)

Total quality management

c)

Global competition

d)

Mass production

46.

Which of the following BEST describes effectiveness?

a)

Producing the most goods in the least time

b)

Making correct decisions about products customers want

c)

Reducing workforce to lower costs

d)

Lowering product price while increasing sales

47.

Total quality management (TQM) MOST emphasizes:

a)

Using foreign suppliers for cheaper materials

b)

Continuous improvement and teamwork

c)

Increasing output regardless of cost

d)

Eliminating all employee decision-making

48.

Which innovation MOST transformed the relationship between businesses and customers by enabling 24-hour access?

a)

The Internet

b)

Television

c)

Telephone

d)

Mail

49.

A company redesigns its workflow by allowing groups of employees to manage entire processes. This MOST clearly illustrates:

a)

Re-engineering

b)

Mass production

c)

Downsizing

d)

Marketing

50.

A firm that reduces product variety and lays off workers to cut costs is engaging in:

a)

Empowerment

b)

Downsizing

c)

Specialization

d)

Output reduction

51.

Which statement about the GDP is TRUE?

a)

It includes illegal and off-record income

b)

It measures only goods, not services

c)

It excludes underground economy transactions

d)

It decreases when population increases

52.

Which is an example of the underground economy?

a)

A bank not reporting interest earnings

b)

A student paid cash for yard work

c)

A company outsourcing labor

d)

A small business franchising its brand

53.

A person who buys the right to operate a business using another company’s name is a:

a)

Franchisor

b)

Franchisee

c)

Entrepreneur

d)

Manager

54.

A major benefit of franchise ownership is:

4 lines
55.

Which is a risk of franchise ownership?

a)

Limited access to national advertising

b)

High failure rate compared to independent businesses

c)

Requirement to buy supplies only from franchisor

d)

No territorial protection

56.

Which MOST strongly contributes to improved efficiency in a large business?

a)

Increased marketing spending

b)

Employee specialization

c)

Higher product prices

d)

Eliminating all technology

57.

A firm that offers a high-quality product but produces it slowly is:

a)

Effective but inefficient

b)

Efficient but ineffective

c)

Both effective and efficient

d)

Neither effective nor efficient

58.

Which BEST explains the decline of the old Kirk bicycle company (Case in Point)?

a)

Excessive innovation and product variety

b)

Refusal to adjust to changing competition and customer needs

c)

Too much customer consultation

d)

Excessive focus on low-cost foreign materials

59.

Empowerment primarily helps a business by:

a)

Reducing employee responsibilities

b)

Increasing employee control over competitors

c)

Enhancing quality and productivity

d)

Eliminating the need for managers

60.

Which factor MOST contributes to the popularity of small businesses?

a)

Strict government controls

b)

High capital needed to start a business

c)

Lower start-up costs

d)

Limited product variety

61.

Which factor has contributed MOST to long-term population growth in the United States in recent decades?

a)

Higher national birth rates

b)

Increased life expectancy and immigration

c)

Increased labor participation of women

d)

Reduced poverty rates

62.

Which generation created a large labor “bubble” that is now entering retirement?

a)

Generation X

b)

Baby Boomers

c)

Millennials

d)

Baby Bust

63.

A business concerned that it cannot find enough future workers due to declining birth rates is MOST affected by:

a)

Labor participation rate

b)

Skill shortages caused by automation

c)

New baby bust trends

d)

Lack of international trade

64.

A worker who is 17 years old, unemployed, and actively seeking work is counted as part of:

a)

The GDP labor ratio

b)

The labor force

c)

The employment index

d)

The productivity pool

65.

The “sticky floor syndrome” refers to:

a)

Barriers that prevent low-wage workers, especially women, from rising above entry-level positions.

b)

A phenomenon where employees are unable to leave their jobs due to financial constraints.

c)

A situation where workers are stuck in temporary or contract roles.

d)

An issue where employees face discrimination in promotions due to age.

66.

Which best defines comparable worth?

a)

Paying all workers equal wages regardless of job type

b)

Paying workers based on performance alone

c)

Paying equally for jobs requiring similar skills and responsibility

d)

Maintaining equal pay across all industries

67.

Which example BEST reflects the “glass ceiling”?

a)

A worker denied promotion due to lack of training

b)

Women unable to move into top management despite good performance

c)

Men being promoted faster in physically demanding jobs

d)

Employees unable to telecommute due to policy limits

68.

The increased diversity of the U.S. workforce primarily increases the need for:

a)

Lower wage standards

b)

Greater automation

c)

Cross-cultural communication

d)

More physical labor

69.

Relocation from the Frost Belt to the Sun Belt MOST likely results in:

a)

Lower unemployment in northern states

b)

Revitalization of Rust Belt manufacturing

c)

Growth of southern economies and declining northern cities

d)

Increased suburban poverty

70.

10. The government agency primarily responsible for enforcing pollution standard laws is:

a)

Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

b)

Department of Transportation (DOT)

c)

Federal Communications Commission (FCC)

d)

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

71.

A company allowing employees to work from home using electronic communication is practicing:

a)

Flexible wage theory

b)

Job rotation

c)

Telecommuting

d)

Employee empowerment

72.

The primary purpose of a company’s code of ethics is to:

a)

Replace laws with internal rules

b)

Prevent all illegal behavior

c)

Define the organization’s right–wrong behavioral standards

d)

Increase employee wages

73.

Which ethical framework is based on “the greatest good for the greatest number”?

a)

Common-good principle

b)

Rights principle

c)

Utilitarianism

d)

Virtue principle

74.

The stakeholders of a business include:

a)

Only employees and owners

b)

Anyone affected by business operations

c)

Only customers and suppliers

d)

Only government regulators

75.

Which situation BEST reflects a social responsibility decision?

a)

Donating to charity

b)

Reducing pollution

c)

Supporting community projects

d)

Maximizing profits

76.

Which BEST illustrates a sustainability strategy?

a)

Raising prices during shortages

b)

Using only nonrenewable resources to cut short-term costs

c)

Meeting present needs while protecting future generations’ ability to meet theirs

d)

Reducing workforce size to cut expenses

77.

Which is an example of an ethical dilemma described in the chapter?

a)

Choosing between hiring two equally qualified applicants

b)

Deciding whether to reveal confidential company plans

c)

Determining a manager’s salary

d)

Scheduling a worker’s shift

78.

According to the PMI Ethical Decision-Making Framework, which step occurs FIRST?

a)

Evaluate alternatives

b)

Ensure compliance with the code of ethics

c)

Assess the situation and confirm no laws are broken

d)

Make the final decision

79.

Adam Smith’s concept of the “invisible hand” is often misunderstood because people overlook his belief that:

a)

Markets eliminate all unethical behavior

b)

Competition removes the need for regulations

c)

Self-interest should be balanced by concern for others

d)

Businesses should operate without profit

80.

20. Poverty is particularly concerning for businesses and society because:

a)

it can lead to reduced consumer spending and hinder economic growth.

b)

it guarantees higher profits for all businesses.

c)

it ensures equal opportunities for everyone.

d)

it eliminates competition among businesses.

81.

Which type of utility is most directly created when a bakery decides to operate 24/7 during tourist season?

a)

Form utility

b)

Time utility

c)

Place utility

d)

Possession utility

82.

A nation shifts resources away from consumer electronics toward the construction of heavy industrial machinery. In the long run, this most directly reflects:

a)

Decreasing human capital

b)

Capital formation

c)

Declining utility

d)

Price competition

83.

Which factor of production is most responsible for coordinating natural resources, labor, and capital into a functioning business?

a)

Labor

b)

Capital goods

c)

Entrepreneurship

d)

Government

84.

In a pure market economy, which group primarily determines what goods are produced?

a)

Government planning boards

b)

Consumers

c)

The market

85.

In which political-economy system does the government own most factors of production and allocate all resources through a central plan?

a)

Socialism

b)

Capitalism

c)

Communism

d)

Mixed economy

86.

A government decides to sell state-owned telephone and transportation companies to private firms. This process is known as:

a)

Deregulation

b)

Privatization

c)

Capital formation

d)

Mixed allocation

87.

Which best explains why competition benefits society in a free-enterprise system?

a)

It eliminates price fluctuations

b)

It guarantees equal income for all

c)

It forces businesses to use scarce resources efficiently

d)

It prevents foreign firms from entering the market

88.

A monopolist raises prices substantially without losing many customers. According to chapter principles, which condition makes this possible?

a)

Perfectly elastic demand

b)

Only one viable seller exists

89.

A society that allows private ownership of property but still controls key industries such as healthcare or utilities most likely practices:

a)

Capitalism

b)

Communism

c)

Moderate socialism

d)

Pure command economy

90.

Which scenario best represents demand, not merely a want?

a)

Wanting a luxury car but having no money

b)

Wanting pizza at midnight

c)

Having the desire and ability to buy a laptop at its current price

d)

Wanting more friends

91.

If the supply of apples decreases sharply due to frost damage, what will most likely occur according to supply and demand?

a)

Prices will fall until demand rises

b)

Prices will rise as consumers compete for fewer apples

c)

Supply will stabilize demand at a lower price

d)

Demand will decrease automatically

92.

Which statement best explains the national importance of economic growth?

a)

It reduces competition among firms

b)

It makes capital goods unnecessary

c)

It ensures more goods and services are available per person

d)

It guarantees equal wealth distribution

93.

A rapid, long-term decline in GDP accompanied by widespread unemployment represents:

a)

Recession

b)

Inflation

c)

Depression

d)

Deflation

94.

Which indicator tracks the average change in consumer prices in urban areas?

a)

GDP

b)

CPI

c)

National Employment Index

d)

Retail Sales Index

95.

During which phase of the business cycle is unemployment typically at its highest?

a)

Peak

b)

Expansion

c)

Contraction

d)

Trough

96.

If the government raises taxes significantly, which effect is most consistent with chapter principles?

a)

Increased economic growth

b)

Consumers have less spending power, slowing growth

c)

Higher profits for private firms

d)

Automatic reduction in inflation

97.

Which situation most clearly demonstrates inflation?

a)

GDP has fallen for 6 months

b)

Prices rise broadly because demand exceeds supply

c)

Consumers are buying fewer imported goods

d)

Interest rates fall

98.

In which system do individuals have the most economic freedom?

a)

Communism

b)

Socialism

c)

Capitalism

d)

Mixed command economy

99.

Which best describes private property under capitalism?

a)

Property that must be shared among all citizens

b)

Any resources the government allows the public to use

c)

Items individuals may own, use, and sell freely

d)

Land only, not capital goods

100.

Which government action is intended to stimulate a slowing economy?

a)

Increasing interest rates

b)

Increasing taxes

c)

Reducing government spending

d)

Lowering interest rates to encourage borrowing

101.

Which statement BEST explains why marketing costs can sometimes exceed production costs?

a)

Marketing activities require specialized equipment and large labor inputs

b)

Producers spend more on research than distribution

c)

Consumer goods are too inexpensive to manufacture

d)

Retailers set higher prices than wholesalers

102.

A business that emphasizes increasing production efficiency because demand exceeds supply is BEST described as:

a)

Customer-oriented

b)

Sales-oriented

c)

Production-oriented

d)

Profit-oriented

103.

Which activity is LEAST likely to occur during the introduction stage of the product life cycle?

a)

High production costs

b)

High profits

c)

Educating customers about a new product

d)

Limited competition

104.

What is the MAIN reason companies identify target markets?

a)

To reduce the need for market research

b)

To group customers with similar needs

c)

To eliminate competition

d)

To produce the highest-priced product possible

105.

Which element of the marketing mix determines the maximum revenue per unit?

a)

Product

b)

Price

c)

Distribution

d)

Promotion

106.

A bicycle manufacturer using a positioning chart comparing “price” and “performance” is MOST likely trying to:

a)

Identify unsought goods

b)

Select target markets

c)

Increase advertising efficiency

d)

Choose international distributors

107.

A company that shifts focus toward satisfying consumers’ needs during design, production, and distribution is applying which concept?

a)

Marketing mix

b)

Customer profiling

c)

Marketing concept

d)

Production orientation

108.

Which of the following is an example of a shopping good?

a)

Milk

b)

Toothpaste

c)

Laptop computer

d)

Candy

109.

During which product life-cycle stage do profits typically begin to decline even if sales remain high?

a)

Introduction

b)

Growth

c)

Maturity

d)

Decline

110.

The “place utility” provided by distribution refers to:

a)

Offering multiple product sizes

b)

Setting prices at competitive levels

c)

Ensuring products are available where customers want them

d)

Reducing promotional spending

111.

Which statement BEST describes specialty goods?

a)

Customers purchase them regularly without thought

b)

Customers are unwilling to compare alternatives

c)

Customers will search extensively for a preferred brand

d)

Customers buy them only during sales promotions

112.

Market research is most essential in which stage of developing a marketing plan?

a)

Setting the price

b)

Writing promotional messages

c)

Identifying target markets

d)

Determining warehouse locations

113.

A declining product that still has a small but loyal customer base would MOST likely require which strategy?

a)

Increase production

b)

Heavy advertising

c)

Minimal marketing and selling off remaining inventory

d)

Reducing all competing brands

114.

Which activity is NOT one of the eight major marketing activities?

a)

Researching

b)

Financing

c)

Packaging

d)

Grading and valuing

115.

A company selling tablet computers to both consumers and businesses is offering a product considered:

a)

A convenience good only

b)

An industrial good only

c)

Both a consumer good and an industrial good

d)

Neither industrial nor consumer good

116.

A sales-oriented business primarily focuses on:

a)

Heavy promotion and wide distribution

b)

Long-term customer satisfaction

c)

Offering low-quality goods

d)

Increasing research expenditures

117.

Which factor is LEAST likely to influence pricing decisions?

a)

Product quality

b)

Competition

c)

Demand

d)

Packaging design only

118.

In which product life-cycle stage does competition first become significant as similar brands appear on the market?

a)

Introduction

b)

Growth

c)

Maturity

d)

Decline

119.

Promotion mainly involves:

a)

Delivering goods to retail outlets

b)

Providing persuasive information to consumers

c)

Determining how many models to produce

d)

Setting product warranties

120.

Before determining the geographic area to market a product, managers should MOST likely consider:

a)

Production scheduling

b)

Climate and regional characteristics

c)

Retailer promotional budgets

d)

The number of employees in the company