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CAF-ECO-MT(Micro Eco)

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Who defined Business economics in terms of the use of economic analysis in the formulation of business policies?

a)

Adam Smith

b)

Robbins

c)

Joel Dean

d)

Alfred Marshall

2.

Which of the following is true of an imperfect market structure?

a)

Participants in the market have little or no control over outcome in the market.

b)

Consumer surplus is maximized.

c)

The maximization of producer surplus may lead to a loss of net benefit for society.

d)

Imperfect market structures include monopolies but not cartels.

3.

Marshallian theory of consumer’s behaviour is based on

a)

Hypothesis of additive utilities

b)

Hypothesis of independent utilities

c)

Both (A) and (B)

d)

Weak ordering

4.

Which of the following are the features of a mixed economy?

a)

Planned economy

b)

Dual system of pricing exists

c)

Balance regional development

d)

All of the above

5.

Peak is the __________ stage of expansion.

a)

Later

b)

Earlier

c)

Either (A) or (B)

d)

None of the above

6.

The Book “The Wealth of Nations“ is written by:

a)

Adam Smith

b)

Arthur Pigou

c)

Robinson

d)

Ragnar Nurske

7.

The demand for labour in response to the wage rate is ________ whereas the demand for same labour in response to the price of electronic goods where labour enters as an input is_____.

a)

Derived Demand, Direct Demand

b)

Direct Demand, Derived Demand

c)

Individual Demand, Market Demand

d)

Company Demand, Industry Demand

8.

Marginal revenue of a firm is constant throughout under:

a)

Perfect Competition

b)

Monopolistic Competition

c)

Oligopoly

d)

All the above

9.

Given TC = 2000+15Q−6Q2+Q32000 + 15Q - 6Q^2 + Q^3 . How much is TFC at Q = 2000?

a)

2000

b)

975

c)

30,000

d)

Can’t be determined

10.

Exception to the law of demand:

a)

Conspicuous goods

b)

Giffen goods

c)

Future expectations about prices

d)

All of the above

11.

Which is not the External Causes of business cycle:

a)

Technology shock

b)

Population Growth

c)

Money Supply

d)

Technology Shock

12.

Monopolistic competition constitutes:

a)

Single firm producing close substitutes

b)

Many firms producing close substitutes

c)

Many firms producing differentiated substitutes

d)

Few firms producing differentiated substitutes

13.

The Relationship between AR, MR and Price Elasticity –

a)

MR = AR × (e − 1) ÷ e

b)

AR = MR × (e − 1) ÷ e

c)

AR − MR = (e − 1) ÷ e

d)

None of these

14.

Successful business firms spend considerable time, energy, and efforts in analyzing the _________ for their products.

a)

Supply

b)

Price

c)

Demand

d)

None of these

15.

‘Interdependence Between Firms’ is a feature of which type of market form:

a)

Oligopoly

b)

Monopolistic Competition

c)

Monopoly

d)

Perfect Competition

16.

Which of the following matters is/are fundamentally connected to economic analysis?

a)

Economic prosperity

b)

Higher standard of living

c)

Changes in price of a commodity

d)

All of the above

17.

Agricultural goods markets depict characteristics close to:

a)

Perfect competition

b)

Oligopoly

c)

Monopoly

d)

Monopolistic competition

18.

If marginal product of labour is below average product of labour, then

a)

average product of labour is flat.

b)

average product of labour is increasing.

c)

average product of labour is decreasing.

d)

may be increasing, decreasing or flat.

19.

If the price of a commodity raised by 12% and Ed is (−) 0.63, the expenditure made on the commodity by a consumer will ___

a)

Decrease

b)

Increase

c)

Remain same

d)

Can’t Say

20.

Price Rigidity explained by Sweezy’s model is related to which market form:

a)

Monopoly

b)

Oligopoly

c)

Monopolistic competition

d)

Perfect Competition

21.

Which of the following is a function of an entrepreneur?

a)

Initiating a business enterprise

b)

Risk bearing

c)

Innovating

d)

All of the above

22.

Which of the following curve cannot be u-shaped?

a)

Average total cost

b)

Average variable cost

c)

Average fixed cost

d)

Marginal cost

23.

Innovation theory is propounded by:

a)

Schumpeter

b)

Nicholas Kaldor

c)

Keynes

d)

None of these

24.

In economics, generally the classification of the markets is made on the basis of:

a)

Time

b)

Geographic area

c)

Volume of business

d)

All of these

25.

In a capitalist economy, profit is socially desirable because it:

a)

signals efficient allocation of resources and guides investment.

b)

creates monopoly power that reduces consumer welfare.

c)

discourages innovation and technological progress.

d)

always increases deadweight loss in competitive markets.

26.

Price discrimination will be profitable only if the elasticity of demand in different markets in which the total market has been divided is:

a)

uniform

b)

different

c)

less

d)

zero

27.

Decrease in input demand _____.

a)

Doesn’t affect inputs prices

b)

Pushes inputs prices up

c)

Pulls inputs prices down

d)

Either (B) or (C)

28.

If a firm has a downward-sloping long-run average cost curve, then

a)

it is experiencing increasing returns

b)

it is experiencing decreasing returns

c)

it is a natural monopoly

d)

marginal cost is greater than average cost

29.

The Producer is in equilibrium at a point where the cost line is

a)

above the isoquant

b)

cutting the isoquant

c)

tangent to the isoquant

d)

none of these

30.

Selling cost are essential in:

a)

Monopoly

b)

Monopolistic competition

c)

Perfect competition

d)

All of the above

31.

During lockdown due to COVID-19, a consumer finds the vegetable vendors selling vegetables in the street have raised the prices of vegetables than usual prices. She will buy ____________ vegetables than/as her usual demand showing the demand of vegetable_____

a)

more, inelastic demand

b)

less, elastic demand

c)

same, inelastic demand

d)

same, elastic demand

32.

Mr Amit, a stock market trader through inside information, comes to know that share price of X Ltd is likely to go up in future, so he purchases the shares to make a gain by selling them later at higher price. It is a case of:

a)

Moral Hazard

b)

Asymmetric Information

c)

Free Riding

d)

None of the above

33.

A consumer who is below the personal budget line (rather than on it):

a)

is not spending all personal income

b)

is spending all personal income

c)

may or may not be spending all personal income

d)

is in equilibrium

34.

What is ‘price ceiling’?

a)

Minimum price that can be charged for a good

b)

Maximum price that can be charged for a good

c)

Minimum support price

d)

Both (a) and (b)

35.

The kinked demand curve theory explains that even when the demand conditions __________ the price ____________:

a)

change, change

b)

change, remains stable

c)

remain stable, changes

d)

remain stable, falls

36.

During depression, it is advisable to:

a)

Lower Bank Rate and purchase securities in the market

b)

Increase Bank Rate and purchase securities in the open market

c)

Decrease Bank Rate and sell securities in the open market

d)

Increase Bank Rate and sell securities in the open market

37.

If the firm’s total costs are INR 2,200,000 and total variable costs are INR 1,300,000, what are the total fixed costs?

a)

900,000

b)

1,200,000

c)

4,500,000

d)

None of the above

38.

When rent control is imposed above the current market price it will:

a)

increase the quantity of rental housing demanded

b)

reduce the quality of rental housing

c)

create a shortage of rental housing

d)

create no impact on the market

39.

The regulatory mechanism of the market system is

a)

Self interest

b)

Private property

c)

Competition

d)

Specialization

40.

“If Americans today, for example were to content to live at the level of the Indian middle class people, all their wants would be fully satisfied with their available resources and capacity to produce.” On the basis of the above statement, which of the following is correct?

a)

The possession of goods and services by USA has enormously increased to exceed their wants.

b)

The affluent and developed countries of USA and Western Europe face the problem of scarcity even today as their present wants remain ahead of their increased resources and capacity to produce.

c)

The affluent and developed countries are not facing the problem of scarcity.

d)

None of these

41.

If supply increases while demand decreases:

a)

the equilibrium price will definitely increase

b)

the equilibrium quantity will definitely increase

c)

the equilibrium price will definitely decrease

d)

the equilibrium quantity will definitely decrease

42.

If the price of apples rises from ₹30 per kg to ₹40 per kg and the supply increases from 240 kg to 300 kg. Elasticity of supply is

a)

0.77

b)

0.67

c)

−0.67

d)

−0.77

43.

In a market economy, resource allocation is primarily determined by:

a)

Central planning by the government

b)

Consumer demand and supply in the marketplace

c)

The decisions of a few large corporations

d)

International trade agreements

44.

If the income elasticity of demand is greater than 1, the commodity is:

a)

a necessity

b)

a luxury

c)

an inferior good

d)

a nonrelated good

45.

In the Cobb–Douglas production function given as: Q=ALaK1−aQ = A L^a K^{1−a} the share of labour in total production is:

a)

a

b)

1 − a

c)

A

d)

a·L

46.

Which of the following is incorrect formula?

a)

TC = AC × Q

b)

∑MC = TC

c)

∑MC = TVC

d)

∑MC + TFC = TC

47.

In a mixed economy resources are used as a result of

a)

The decisions of consumers

b)

The decisions of firms only

c)

The decisions of consumers and firms

d)

The decisions of consumers and firms and government

48.

Which of the following describe a Typical Business Cycle?

a)

Economic expansions are followed by contractions

b)

Inflation is followed by rising income and unemployment

c)

Economic expansion is followed by economic growth and development

d)

Stagflation is followed by inflationary growth

49.

If we notice that an increase in the price of product X causes reductions in the demand for product Y, then we can conclude that these two products are

a)

complements in consumption

b)

substitutes in consumption

c)

complements in production

d)

substitutes in production

50.

Cost function is a concept of which kind?

a)

Economical

b)

Functional

c)

Financial

d)

Technical

51.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding business cycles?

a)

Business cycles are contagious and international in character

b)

Business cycles begin in one country and spread to other countries through trade relations

c)

Business cycles have serious consequences on well-being of the societies

d)

All of the above

52.

Which of the following is NOT dealt with in microeconomics?

a)

the effect of agricultural subsidies on the price of milk

b)

differences between the market for skilled labour versus the market for unskilled labour

c)

issues related to the structure and performance of the health care sector

d)

policies that affect the level of aggregate consumption

53.

The price elasticity of demand for a good will tend to be more elastic if

a)

the good is broadly defined (for example, demand for food as opposed to demand for carrots)

b)

the good has relatively few substitutes

c)

a long period of time is required to fully adjust to a price change in the good

d)

None of the above is true

54.

When the output increases from 20 to 30 units and total revenue increases from Rs 400 to Rs 500, what is marginal revenue (MR)?

a)

20

b)

10

c)

15

d)

None of these

55.

Price in capitalist economy is determined by

a)

Small private firms

b)

Big corporates

c)

Market forces of demand and supply

d)

Government

56.

The point at which the total product curve begins to flatten out indicates

a)

The onset of diminishing marginal returns

b)

Maximum efficiency in production

c)

A decrease in fixed costs

d)

The end of increasing returns to scale

57.

During an expansion phase of the business cycle, which of the following is likely to occur?

a)

Decrease in consumer spending

b)

Increase in business bankruptcies

c)

Increase in job opportunities

d)

Decrease in government spending

58.

Which of the following is not a variable in the index of leading indicators?

a)

Prime rate

b)

New building permits

c)

Delayed deliveries

d)

None of these

59.

Let QX = 1500PX\frac{1500}{PX} , the elasticity of demand of the good X when its price falls from 8 to to \ 22 per unit will be

a)

greater than one

b)

less than one

c)

equal to one

d)

can’t say

60.

The stages in law of variable proportion is

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

61.

A seller cannot influence the market price under

a)

Perfect Competition

b)

Monopoly

c)

Monopolistic Competition

d)

All of the above

62.

Business Economics is basically concerned with

a)

Applied Economics

b)

Managerial Economics

c)

Micro Economics

d)

Macro Economics

63.

Collectively peaks and troughs together is known as

a)

Turning Points

b)

Contraction

c)

Expansion

d)

A trough

64.

The most important function of an entrepreneur is to

a)

Innovate

b)

Bear the sense of responsibility

c)

Finance

d)

None of these

65.

Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the given options. Assertion (A): Demand curve is vertical when elasticity of demand is zero. Reason (R): Marginal utility of a product is increasing.

a)

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

b)

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

c)

(A) is true but (R) is false

d)

(A) is false but (R) is true

66.

Negative return sets in at the stage when

a)

MP is negative

b)

MP is diminishing

c)

MP is rising

d)

None of these

67.

In the long run, all production costs are

a)

Fixed

b)

Sun

c)

Variable

d)

Marginal

68.

Sarah runs a lemonade stall; her decision-making process involves assessing the demand for her lemonade, pricing strategies, and maximizing her profit within the limited scope of her small business. Which level of the economy does Sarah's lemonade stall belong to?

a)

Macro Economy

b)

Global Economy

c)

Micro Economy

d)

National Economy

69.

What are the internal causes of business cycle?

a)

Fluctuations in effective demand

b)

Macroeconomic policies

c)

Money supply

d)

All the above

70.

The level of consumption at which marginal utility of a commodity reaches zero is called

a)

Point of satiety

b)

Point of equilibrium

c)

Point of breakeven

d)

None of these

71.

In describing a given production technology, the short run is best described as lasting

a)

Up to six months from now

b)

Up to five years from now

c)

As long as all inputs are fixed

d)

As long as at least one input is fixed

72.

On all points of rectangular hyperbola demand curve, elasticity of demand is

a)

Equal to unity

b)

Zero

c)

Less than unity

d)

Greater than unity

73.

Cost incurred which has no relevance to future planning is called

a)

Marginal cost

b)

Sunk cost

c)

Average cost

d)

None of these

74.

Which of the following phases of the business cycle is characterized by increasing economic activity, rising employment, and growing consumer spending?

a)

Expansion

b)

Recession

c)

Trough

d)

Recovery

75.

Price elasticity of demand of a good is (-) 3. It shows that

a)

When price falls by 1%, demand rises by 3%

b)

When price rises by 1%, demand falls by 3%

c)

Either (a) or (b)

d)

Neither (a) nor (b)

76.

Assertion (A): In the short run, a producer operates in only Stage II of the Law of Diminishing Returns where average product of the variable factor is declining. Reason (R): In Stage I and Stage III the marginal product of the fixed and the variable factors differs. Choose the correct option:

a)

(A) is true and (R) is false

b)

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

c)

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

d)

(A) is false and (R) is true

77.

Some economists have suggested that oligopolists tend to maintain stable prices when there are changes in the demand for their products or in their costs of production. Which of the following models provides an explanation for this type of behavior?

a)

Price leadership

b)

Centralized cartel

c)

Prisoners' dilemma

d)

Kinked demand curve

78.

In a commodity market, excess demand exists when

a)

Market price is greater than equilibrium price

b)

Equilibrium price is greater than market price

c)

Equilibrium price is not equal to market price

d)

Government fixes the price

79.

The interest on own capital is

a)

Implicit cost

b)

Future cost

c)

Explicit cost

d)

Past cost

80.

Which of the following industries is most likely to be monopolistically competitive?

a)

The automobile industry

b)

The steel industry

c)

The car repair industry

d)

The electrical generating industry

81.

What term is used to describe costs that remain fixed over a certain range of output but suddenly jump to a new higher level when output goes beyond a given limit?

a)

Variable cost

b)

Semi-variable cost

c)

Stair-step variable cost

d)

Sunk cost

82.

Which of the following groups of goods have inelastic demand?

a)

Salt, smart phone

b)

School uniform, branded goggles and smart phone

c)

Salt, school uniform and medicine

d)

Medicine, branded sports shoes and diamond ring

83.

If increasing air fares increases revenues and decreasing them decreases revenues, then the demand for air travel has a price elasticity of

a)

0

b)

> 0 but < 1

c)

1

d)

> 1

84.

Which of the following markets comes close to satisfying the assumptions of a perfectly competitive market structure?

a)

The stock market

b)

The market for agricultural commodities such as wheat or corn

c)

The market for petroleum and natural gas

d)

All of the above come close to satisfying the assumptions of perfect competition

85.

______ is the exception to law of demand.

a)

Income

b)

Price

c)

Giffen good

d)

Fashions

86.

For Giffen good the angle curve is

a)

Vertical

b)

Horizontal

c)

Negatively sloped

d)

Positively sloped

87.

How is production in the economic sense distinguished from non-market activities performed within a household?

a)

Involvement of love and affection

b)

Exchange in the market

c)

Exchange in the income

d)

Intangible outputs

88.

While drawing the budget line of a consumer consuming Nachos chips and Pepsi, if the quantity of Nachos is on the Y-axis and the quantity of Pepsi is on the X-axis, the slope of the budget line will be

a)

- price of Pepsi divided by price of Nachos

b)

- price of Nachos divided by price of Pepsi

c)

price of Pepsi divided by price of Nachos

d)

- income divided by price of Nachos

89.

Price discrimination is a situation when a producer:

a)

Charge same price

b)

Charges may prices

c)

Charges different prices in different market

d)

None of these

90.

Different business cycles ______ in duration and intensity.

a)

differ

b)

similar

c)

consistent

d)

Can’t say

91.

Which type of market structure does not typically have a negatively sloped market demand curve?

a)

Monopoly

b)

Perfect competition

c)

Oligopoly

d)

All of the above typically have negatively sloped market demand curves

92.

The distributive function of the budget is related to the basic function of __________ an economy produces goods and services:

a)

what

b)

for whom

c)

how

d)

All of the above

93.

The restaurant industry has a market structure that comes closest to:

a)

monopolistic competition

b)

oligopoly

c)

perfect competition

d)

monopoly

94.

When some people start investing money in share market then many people start following the same without considering its advantage and disadvantages is called:

a)

Demonstration effect

b)

Snob effect

c)

Veblen effect

d)

None of these

95.

Law of Production does not include

a)

least Cost Combination of factors

b)

Law of variable proportion

c)

Law of diminishing returns to a factor

d)

Return to scale

96.

A recession is a decline in:

a)

The unemployment rate that lasts six months or longer

b)

Real GDP that lasts six months or longer

c)

Potential GDP that lasts six months or longer

d)

The inflation rate that lasts six months or longer

97.

Break even point indicate which of the following?

a)

TR=TCTR = TC

b)

TR>TCTR > TC

c)

TR=TVCTR = TVC

d)

None of these

98.

Which of the following is a lagging economic indicator?

a)

Consumer confidence index

b)

Stock market performance

c)

Unemployment rate

d)

New housing starts

99.

The price of a commodity is 10 per unit. At this price quantity supplied is 500 units. Price elasticity of supply of the commodity is 1.25. At what price the quantity to be supplied would be 20% more?

a)

₹ 8.40

b)

₹ 11.60

c)

₹ 12.50

d)

₹ 7.50

100.

In the context of price elasticity, if demand is elastic, a decrease in price will result in:

a)

A decrease in total revenue

b)

An increase in total revenue

c)

No change in total revenue

d)

None of the above