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Biology Final Exam

Total questions: 169

Worksheet time: 33hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Meiosis produces

a)

2 haploid cells

b)

4 haploid cells

c)

2 diploid cells

d)

4 diploid cells

2.

Which of the following describes meiosis?

a)

Makes new sex cells, creates 2 daughter cells each with 23 chromosomes

b)

Makes new sex cells, creates 4 daughter cells each with 23 chromosomes

c)

Makes new body cells, creates 2 daughter cells each with 46 chromosomes

d)

Makes new body cells, creates 4 daughter cells each with 46 chromosomes

3.

During which phase of meiosis does crossing over occur?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Telophase I

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Anaphase I

4.

Why is meiosis important for sexual reproduction?

a)

It allows the zygote formed from fertilization to have triple the chromosome number of the organism.

b)

It allows gametes to have twice the original number of chromosomes of the organism.

c)

It allows gametes to have half the original number of chromosomes of the organism.

d)

It allows the zygote formed from fertilization to have half the original number of chromosomes of the organism.

5.

Unlike mitosis, meiosis results in the formation of

a)

diploid cells

b)

haploid cells

c)

2N daughter cells

d)

body cells

6.

What is formed at the end of meiosis?

a)

two genetically identical cells

b)

four genetically different cells

c)

four genetically identical cells

d)

two genetically different cells

7.

Which event in meiosis increases genetic variation within a population?

a)

A. Chromosomes form pairs.

b)

B. DNA condenses to form chromosomes.

c)

C. Chromosomes duplicate themselves.

d)

D. Segments of chromosomes cross over.

8.

How does meiosis contribute to sexual reproduction? Meiosis is responsible for the production of _______________.

a)

haploid gametes with identical DNA. When the gametes join, a diploid cell is formed with matching DNA to the gametes

b)

diploid daughter cells, as represented by the zygote in the diagram

c)

haploid gametes containing unique DNA. When the gametes join, a diploid zygote is formed with a combination of DNA

d)

diploid, somatic cells that combine during sexual reproduction

9.

Above is a diagram that describes the process of sexual reproduction in human beings involving meiosis. The importance of meiosis is:

a)

To make a diploid zygote that is genetically identical to the cells of both the mother and the father

b)

To create new body cells to replace old dying body cells such as blood or skin cells

c)

To create haploid gametes that have half the chromosomes from the mother and half the chromosomes from the father

d)

To create diploid gametes that have all 46 chromosomes from the mother and all 46 chromosomes from the father

10.

Which phrase best describes the process of meiosis?

a)

occurs in somatic cells

b)

results in genetically identical cells

c)

happens only in haploid cells

d)

produces haploid gametes

11.

After meiosis is complete, how many chromosomes will be in the sperm?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

8

d)

16

12.

Dogs have 78 chromosomes in each of their body (somatic) cells. The numbers in the figure below represent the chromosome number found in each of the dog cells shown. The process that is occurring at A is _______ and after step B a _______ is created.

a)

mitosis; homologous cell

b)

meiosis; zygote

c)

mitosis; gamete

d)

meiosis; embryo

13.

Mitosis and meiosis are two processes that can produce new cells in an organism. Which statement correctly compares and contrasts the new cells produced by each process?

a)

New cells produced by mitosis have unique genetic material, and new cells produced by meiosis have identical genetic material.

b)

New cells produced by mitosis are responsible for reproduction, and new cells produced by meiosis are responsible for growth and repair.

c)

New cells produced by mitosis are the result of two nuclear divisions, and new cells produced by meiosis are the result of one nuclear division.

d)

New cells produced by mitosis maintain genetically identical offspring, and new cells produced by meiosis contribute to genetic diversity in offspring.

14.

A scientist is studying the stages of meiosis in a cell that has two pairs of chromosomes. The diagram shows a parent cell and four daughter cells formed after meiosis. Which of the following best explains what occurred in this parent cell?

a)

Abnormal meiosis occurred because half of the daughter cells are haploid and half of the daughter cells are diploid.

b)

Abnormal meiosis occurred because some daughter cells received more chromosomes than the other daughter cells.

c)

Normal meiosis occurred because some daughter cells received more dominant genes than the other daughter cells.

d)

Normal meiosis occurred because half of the daughter cells became egg cells and half of the daughter cells became sperm cells.

15.

If a muscle cell in a clown fish contains 28 chromosomes, a clown fish egg cell would contain:

a)

7 Chromosomes

b)

14 Chromosomes

c)

28 Chromosomes

d)

42 Chromosomes

e)

56 Chromosomes

16.

Crossing over occurs in both Mitosis and Meiosis

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Human body cells each have 46 chromosomes in their nuclei. Meiosis is necessary in order to ensure that each gamete produced in the human body has —

a)

12 chromosomes

b)

23 chromosomes

c)

46 chromosomes

d)

92 chromosomes

18.

Which organelle begins to form in Phase 4 of the process in Figure 1?

a)

mitochondrion

b)

nucleus

c)

ribosome

d)

lysosome

19.

If a student were to discuss Figure 1 with a classmate, which description would be correct?

a)

The student says Phase 2 of Figure 1 shows prophase, with the chromosomes moving toward the far ends of the cell.

b)

The student says Phase 3 of Figure 1 shows telophase, where the chromosomes have duplicated.

c)

The student says Phase 4 of Figure 1 shows anaphase, where the chromosomes have lined up in the middle of the cell.

d)

The student says the bottom part of Figure 1 shows the daughter cells, with each having the same chromosomes as the parent cell.

20.

Mitosis occurs in the organelle that controls cell activities. Which organelle should be added to the model in Figure 1 to show where this process is occurring?

a)

vacuole

b)

chloroplast

c)

mitochondrion

d)

nucleus

21.

A scientist is studying the stages of meiosis in a cell that has two pairs of chromosomes. The diagram shows a parent cell and four daughter cells formed after meiosis. Which of the following best explains what occurred in this parent cell?

a)

Abnormal meiosis occurred because half of the daughter cells are haploid and half of the daughter cells are diploid.

b)

Abnormal meiosis occurred because some daughter cells received more chromosomes than the other daughter cells.

c)

Normal meiosis occurred because some daughter cells received more dominant genes than the other daughter cells.

d)

Normal meiosis occurred because half of the daughter cells became egg cells and half of the daughter cells became sperm cells.

22.

What are haploid daughter cells in the context of meiosis?

a)

Cells that contain half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell, produced at the end of meiosis.

b)

Cells that contain the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell, produced at the end of mitosis.

c)

Cells that contain double the number of chromosomes as the parent cell, produced at the end of meiosis.

d)

Cells that contain no chromosomes, produced at the end of meiosis.

23.

What are diploid daughter cells in the context of meiosis?

a)

Cells that contain the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell; not produced by meiosis but by mitosis.

b)

Cells that have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell; produced by meiosis.

c)

Cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell; produced by meiosis.

d)

Cells that contain double the number of chromosomes as the parent cell; produced by meiosis.

24.

How many diploid daughter cells are produced at the end of meiosis?

a)

None. Meiosis produces haploid daughter cells, not diploid.

b)

One diploid daughter cell is produced.

c)

Two diploid daughter cells are produced.

d)

Four diploid daughter cells are produced.

25.

What is a diploid parent cell in meiosis?

a)

A cell that contains two sets of chromosomes, which undergoes meiosis to produce haploid cells.

b)

A cell that contains only one set of chromosomes and divides by mitosis.

c)

A cell that produces identical daughter cells through binary fission.

d)

A cell that contains three sets of chromosomes and divides by meiosis.

26.

How many haploid daughter cells are produced at the end of meiosis?

a)

Four haploid daughter cells are produced at the end of meiosis.

b)

Two haploid daughter cells are produced at the end of meiosis.

c)

Six haploid daughter cells are produced at the end of meiosis.

d)

Eight haploid daughter cells are produced at the end of meiosis.

27.

What is independent assortment of chromosomes in meiosis?

a)

The random distribution of maternal and paternal chromosomes into gametes during meiosis.

b)

The pairing of homologous chromosomes during meiosis.

c)

The replication of chromosomes before cell division.

d)

The fusion of gametes to form a zygote.

28.

What is crossing over in meiosis?

a)

The exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes during meiosis, leading to genetic variation.

b)

The separation of sister chromatids during mitosis.

c)

The duplication of chromosomes before cell division.

d)

The fusion of gametes to form a zygote.

29.

Refer to the diagram of meiosis. Which process is shown in the first part of the diagram?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis I

c)

Meiosis II

d)

Binary fission

30.

Refer to the diagram of meiosis. Fill in the blank: The second part of the diagram is labeled as _________.

a)

Meiosis II

b)

Meiosis I

c)

Interphase

d)

Cytokinesis

31.

What is the main difference between Meiosis I and Meiosis II as shown in the diagram?

a)

Meiosis I separates homologous chromosomes, while Meiosis II separates sister chromatids.

b)

Meiosis I separates sister chromatids, while Meiosis II separates homologous chromosomes.

c)

Meiosis I results in identical cells, while Meiosis II results in non-identical cells.

d)

Meiosis I occurs only in animals, while Meiosis II occurs only in plants.

32.

What are the results of mitosis?

a)

Two identical daughter cells

b)

Four genetically different cells

c)

One cell with double the chromosomes

d)

Three cells with half the chromosomes

33.

What are the results of meiosis?

a)

Four non-identical daughter cells (gametes)

b)

Two identical daughter cells

c)

Four identical daughter cells

d)

Two non-identical daughter cells

34.

Label the four phases of mitotic cell division shown in the diagram.

a)

Phase 1: Prophase, Phase 2: Metaphase, Phase 3: Anaphase, Phase 4: Telophase

b)

Phase 1: Metaphase, Phase 2: Prophase, Phase 3: Telophase, Phase 4: Anaphase

c)

Phase 1: Anaphase, Phase 2: Telophase, Phase 3: Prophase, Phase 4: Metaphase

d)

Phase 1: Telophase, Phase 2: Anaphase, Phase 3: Metaphase, Phase 4: Prophase

35.

Which organelle begins to form in Phase 4 of the process in Figure 1?

a)

mitochondrion

b)

nucleus

c)

ribosome

d)

lysosome

36.

After an injury, the human body begins a process of cell division to repair damaged tissues. Which model best represents the cellular process for tissue repair?

a)

A.

b)

B.

c)

C.

d)

D.

37.

Which phase of the cell cycle does the white arrow represent? (The white arrow includes the yellow, blue, and red sections)

a)

Prophase

b)

Interphase

c)

Mitosis

38.

What is the other name for the cell division phase? *This is the purple/pink phases on the left side of the cycle.

a)

Interphase

b)

Mitosis

c)

Cancer

39.

On the image, during which phase is DNA replicated (copied)?

a)

the yellow phase

b)

the blue phase

c)

over multiple pink phases

40.

What are cells doing during the yellow phase?

a)

growing and doing their cellular activities (job)

b)

growing and dividing

c)

preparing to divide

d)

dividing and separating

41.

Which organelle is critical for cell division?

a)

Centrioles

b)

Cilia

c)

Vacuoles

d)

Vesicles

42.

In anticipation of cell division cells must first

a)

grow large enough

b)

replicate their DNA

c)

replicate their organelles

d)

all of the above

43.

What is the stage of the cell cycle that is "in between cell divisions"?

a)

telophase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

interphase

44.

As an adult, organisms stop growing, why is mitosis/ cell division still needed?

a)

regeneration

b)

for replacement of dead cells

c)

for replacement of cells that are worn out

d)

all of these

45.

Which step in cell division must occur first so that a young animal can grow into an adult?

a)

The chromosomes must duplicate.

b)

The chromosomes must separate.

c)

The cells must divide the cytoplasm.

d)

The cells must produce spindle fibers.

46.

Put the phases of cell division in order.

a)

Interphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis

b)

Metaphase, Prophase, Telophase, Anaphase, Cytokinesis

c)

Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis

d)

Telophase, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Cytokinesis

47.

Which three of the following best describe what would happen if mitosis did not take place?

a)

A. Organisms would be single-celled.

b)

B. Chromosomes would not duplicate.

c)

C. Asexual reproduction would not occur.

d)

D. Body tissues would not repair themselves.

e)

E. The production of gametes would not occur.

48.

How do the contents of a gamete’s nucleus change as a result of meiosis?

a)

The number of chromosomes is divided in half, and the amount of DNA is divided in half.

b)

The number of chromosomes stays the same, but the amount of DNA is divided in half.

c)

The number of chromosomes is divided in half, but the amount of DNA is reduced to one-fourth.

d)

The number of chromosomes is reduced to one-fourth, and the amount of DNA is reduced to one-fourth.

49.

What do the letters inside a Punnett square represent?

a)

phenotypes of parents

b)

phenotypes of offspring

c)

genotypes of parents

d)

genotypes of offspring

50.

A Punnett square can be used to

a)

predict the traits of the offspring produced by genetic crosses.

b)

determine the actual outcomes of genetic crosses.

c)

predict the traits of the parents used in genetic crosses.

d)

decide which organisms are best to use in genetic crosses.

51.

Which Punnett square shows a cross between a heterozygous tall (Tt) plant and a homozygous short (tt) pea plant?

a)

A.

b)

B.

c)

C.

d)

D.

52.

What should be filled in the missing box to complete the punnett square correctly?

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

53.

A pair of giraffes are going to have offspring. The genotype of Parent #1 is Tt. The genotype of Parent #2 is tt. Below are four examples of Punnett Squares. Which is the correct Punnett Square for giraffe parents #1 and #2?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

54.

Which of the following Punnett Squares is correctly filled out?

a)

b)

55.

A Punnett Square is divided into four squares. These squares are divided into percentages. What do these percentages represent?

a)

Probability

b)

Traits

56.

On a Punnett square two capital letters indicate a gene which is __________.

a)

Homozygous dominant

b)

Homozygous recessive

c)

Heterozygous

d)

None of the above

57.

Fill in the blank: When the two alleles of a gene are the same, its genotype is _________.

a)

homozygous

b)

heterozygous

c)

dominant

d)

recessive

58.

Fill in the blank: If the two alleles of a gene are different, its genotype is _________.

a)

heterozygous

b)

homozygous

c)

dominant

d)

recessive

59.

Which allele is dominant in pea seed shape? The capital R or the lower case r?

a)

Round (R)

b)

Wrinkled (r)

60.

Below are 5 different genotypes of Pea Plants. Select all the pea plants that are heterozygous.

a)

cc

b)

kk

c)

LL

d)

Rr

e)

AA

61.

In humans, the allele for having a straight thumb is dominant to the allele for having a curved thumb. A male is homozygous dominant for straight thumbs, and a female has curved thumbs. What is the possibility that their offspring has curved thumbs?

a)

0%

b)

50%

c)

25%

d)

100%

62.

Which of the following correct describes the difference between dominant and recessive traits?

a)

A) Dominant traits are found more frequently in a population than recessive traits.

b)

B) Recessive traits are found more frequently in a population than dominant traits.

c)

C) When present together, recessive traits are the ones which we see in the organism.

d)

D) When present together, dominant traits are the ones which we see in the organism.

63.

Scientists use symbols to represent the alleles in a genotype. In genetics, uppercase letters represent dominant alleles and lowercase letters represent recessive alleles. When the two alleles of a gene are the same, its genotype is homozygous. Both RR and rr are homozygous genotypes. Select the homozygous options below.

a)

A. LL

b)

B. AA

c)

C. kk

d)

D. Rr

e)

E. cc

64.
Structure (a) is a ____.
a)
chromosome
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere
65.

The following footwear is required in the lab ________.

a)

Sandals.

b)

Open-toe shoes.

c)

Closed-toe shoes.

d)

Shoes appropriate for the weather.

66.
The proper technique for smelling chemicals is ______________
a)
keeping your nose close to the glassware
b)
wafting
c)
to sniff only a small amount
d)
Trick question; you never are allowed to smell chemicals in class
67.
Keeping your work area neat and clean is important because:
a)
My teacher is a neat-freak
b)
I won't lose my supplies in the clutter.
c)
It keeps the room from looking messy.
d)
It helps prevent accidents.
68.

After completing an experiment, all wastes should be

a)

taken home

b)

tossed in the trash can

c)

disposed of according to your teacher's directions

d)

left out for someone else to clean

69.

Approved eye protection devices (such as goggles) are worn in the laboratory

a)

to avoid eye strain

b)

to improve your vision

c)

so that you look super cool

d)

any time chemicals, heat or glassware are used

70.

This variable is the one thing that changed on purpose...

a)

Dependent Variable

b)

Control

c)

Independent Variable

71.

What is the DEPENDENT variable (effect) in this experiment?


"Does eating breakfast improve test scores?"

a)

eating breakfast or not

b)

the grade you got on the test

c)

what time you get up in the morning

d)

how tasty the breakfast is

72.

You are testing how the amount you water a plant affects its growth. What would be the INDEPENDENT VARIABLE in this experiment.

a)

They type of pot you put the plants in.

b)

The amount you water each plant.

c)

The amount of sunlight the plants get.

d)

The amount the plant grows.

73.

Mr. Pransky wants to see how different surfaces affect how high a tennis ball can bounce. What is the independent variable?

a)

the different surfaces

b)

using the same ball

c)

how high they bounce

74.

Why do we use graphs in science?

a)

to record and display data

b)

to show trends in data

c)

to predict what will happen if we extend the experiment

d)

all of these are correct

75.

What is the definition of quantitative data?

a)

Data that is collected through surveys and questionnaires.

b)

Data that can be measured using qualitative methods.

c)

Data that can only be expressed using words.

d)

Numerical data that can be measured and expressed using numbers.

76.

What is the definition of qualitative data?

a)

Data that is collected through surveys and questionnaires.

b)

Data that can be measured and expressed numerically.

c)

Data that is collected through experiments and observations.

d)

Non-numerical data that is descriptive in nature

77.

Give an example of quantitative data.

a)

Temperature in degrees Celsius.

b)

Weight of an object in kilograms.

c)

Height of a person in centimeters

d)

Number of students in a classroom.

78.

Give an example of qualitative data.

a)

Height of a building.

b)

Weight of a person.

c)

Color of a flower

d)

Temperature of a room.

79.

What are some common methods used to collect quantitative data?

a)

Ethnography, participant observation, field experiments

b)

Literature reviews, content analysis, archival research

c)

Interviews, case studies, focus groups

d)

Surveys, experiments, observations, and secondary data analysis.

80.

What are some common methods used to collect qualitative data?

a)

surveys, experiments, questionnaires

b)

statistical analysis, data mining, content analysis

c)

random sampling, case studies, participant observation

d)

interviews, focus groups, observations, and document analysis

81.

What is a hypothesis?

a)

A well-supported explanation of something in the natural world

b)

An explanation that can be tested by further investigation

c)

A statement that describes a natural phenomenon

d)

A mathematical equation

82.

What is a hypothesis?

a)

A well-supported explanation of something in the natural world

b)

An explanation that can be tested by further investigation

c)

A statement that describes a natural phenomenon

d)

A mathematical equation

83.

Which of the following describes a scientific theory?

a)

It is a guess based on personal opinion.

b)

It is an explanation formed after using the scientific method.

c)

It is a statement that describes a natural phenomenon.

d)

It is a hypothesis that has not been tested.

84.

Which of the following best describes a scientific law?

a)

An explanation that can be tested

b)

A well-supported explanation of some aspect of the natural world

c)

A statement that describes a pattern

in nature

d)

A mathematical equation

85.

Which of the following is an example of a scientific law?

a)

The theory of evolution

b)

Newton's law of universal gravitation

c)

The hypothesis of continental drift

d)

The theory of relativity

86.

What is the main difference between a theory and a law in science?

a)

A theory is a guess, while a law is a fact.

b)

A theory explains why something happens, while a law

describes how something happens.

c)

A theory is a mathematical equation, while a law is a statement.

d)

A theory is untested, while a law is tested.

87.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a scientific theory?

a)

It is based on a large body of evidence.

b)

It can be changed

or rejected based

on new evidence.

c)

It is a guess that has not been tested.

d)

It explains a wide range of patterns

in our world.

88.

Which of the following is an example of a hypothesis?

a)

Cells are the

basic unit of life.

b)

If plants are given more sunlight, then they will grow taller.

c)

The Earth orbits

the Sun.

d)

Energy cannot be created or destroyed.

89.

Which step of the scientific method uses an "If...Then..." statement to provide a possible answer to the question?

a)

Purpose

b)

Research

c)

Hypothesis

d)

Conclusion

90.
If plants are exposed to sunlight, then they will grow taller.
What part of the scientific method is this an example of?
a)
Procedure
b)
Hypothesis
c)
Question
d)
Results
91.

These can change when new evidence is presented

a)

theory

b)

law

92.
Which of these contains steps in the right order?
a)
Ask a question, state your hypothesis, research, experiment, analyze, make a conclusion
b)
State your hypothesis, ask a question, research, experiment, analyze, make a conclusion
c)
Ask a question, research, state your hypothesis, experiment, analyze, make a conclusion
d)
State your hypothesis, ask a question, research, make a conclusion, experiment, analyze
93.
A series of steps used by scientists to solve a problem or answer a question. 
a)
scientific method
b)
recipe
c)
data collection
d)
metric system
94.

What is the first step in the scientific method?

a)

draw conclusions

b)

ask a question/make an observation

c)

make a hypothesis

d)

test the experiment

95.

To make observations you use your _______.

a)

senses

b)

feet

c)

smile

d)

experience

96.

Performing a test or experiment allows you to test your ___________.

a)

draw conclusions

b)

hypothesis

c)

senses

d)

battery

97.
Should experiments be repeated over and over to see if the results are the same each time?
a)
yes
b)
no
98.
All factors that can change in an experiment.
a)
variable
b)
data
c)
conclusion
d)
result
99.
The outcome of your test.
a)
variable
b)
results
c)
experiment
d)
question
100.
What you learned from the experiment is the ___.
a)
conclusion
b)
hypothesis
c)
variable
d)
materials
101.
Which is NOT a step in the scientific method?
a)
Make observation
b)
Form a theory
c)
Collect data
d)
Form a hypothesis
102.
A testable explanation to a problem that has not yet been tested. 
a)
data
b)
theory
c)
hypothesis
d)
fact
103.

If you wake up on a Saturday morning, and notice you cannot find your phone, you have made a(n)

a)

discovery.

b)

law.

c)

idea.

d)

observation.

104.

Quantitative data relies on ___________________________.

a)

descriptions.

b)

numbers.

c)

colors.

d)

noise.

105.

Which variable do you measure in an experiment?

a)

Independent

b)

Dependent

106.
Which variable do you change in an experiment?
a)
Dependent
b)
Independent
107.

The group in an experiment that has all of the normal conditions is the

a)

control group.

b)

experimental group.

c)

data.

d)

materials.

108.

After you complete your experiment, you look carefully at data. When you do this you _____________ the data.

a)

analyze

b)

conclude

c)

procedure

d)

hypothesis

109.
A student wants to test the effects of type of exercise on heart rate.  What is the dependent variable?
a)
heart rate
b)
type of exercise
c)
amount of exercise
d)
time of day exercise occurs
110.
An experiment is performed on plants to see how different liquids affect plant growth. Each plant in the experiment is given a different liquid; water, apple juice, or milk. Each plant has the same amount of soil, sunlight, and listens to the same music. In this investigation, the independent variable is ...
a)
The type of plant
b)
The amount of sunlight
c)
The type of music
d)
The type of liquid
111.

Which phrase represents the series of steps followed to solve problems and learn new information in science?

a)

Drawing a conclusion

b)

Analyzing Data

c)

The Scientific Method

d)

Designing an experiment

112.

Which of the following is a valid hypothesis?

a)

The adult at the front of the classroom must be the teacher.

b)

The adult at the front of the classroom can't possibly be the teacher.

c)

If the adult stands at the front of the classroom, then he must be the teacher.

d)

If the amount of sugar added to the bread recipe is increased, then the size of the loaf of bread produced will be larger.

113.

Which of the following represents a valid scientific question?

a)

Asking "Does Miracle-Gro" fertilizer cause plants to become taller?"

b)

Stating that "Miracle-Gro" fertilizer causes plants to become taller.

c)

Researching the effects of "Miracle-Gro" fertilizer on plant growth.

d)

Concluding that "Miracle-Gro" fertilizer actually prevents plant growth.

114.

In a "controlled" science experiment, how many variables should the scientist manipulate (change) at any one time?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

Many variables can be changed at the same time.

115.

Which statement defines a valid conclusion from an experiment?

a)

A summary of the results of an experiment based on evidence or facts relating to the hypothesis.

b)

Posing a question after conducting an experiment.

c)

Creating a data table during a science experiment.

d)

Creating a graph based on the data created during a science experiment.

116.

In an experiment where I change the amount of sugar in a recipe to bake a loaf of bread, which group demonstrates the constants.

a)

The amount of time baked, the brand of flour used, the amount of yeast used.

b)

The amount of time baked, the amount of sugar in the recipe, the amount of yeast used.

c)

The amount of time baked, the amount of sugar in the recipe, the size of the pan the bread is baked in.

d)

The amount of time baked, the amount of sugar in the recipe, the brand of yeast used.

117.

Using your senses to gather information is called an _____?

a)

observation

b)

inference

c)

question

118.

Explaining or interpreting the observations is called _____?

a)

observation

b)

inference

c)

question

119.

The 3 parts of the Cell Theory are...?

a)

All living things are composed of cells

Cells are the basic units of structure and function in living things

All cells are produced from other cells

b)

All living things are composed of cells

Cells are the basic units of dance and vibes in living things

All cells are destroyed from other aliens

c)

All living things are composed of Jell-O

Cells are the basic units of structure and function in living things

All cells are produced from factories in Canada

d)

All living things are composed of cells

Cells do karate and practice eating whole pies in their free time

All cells are produced from other cells

120.
The invention of the microscope made it possible for people to discover and learn about
a)
Plants
b)
Skin 
c)
Animals 
d)
Cells
121.

cell

a)

smallest unit of matter

b)

smallest unit of life

c)

group of 2 or more atoms joined by a covalent bonds.

d)

composed of only 1 type of atom

122.
What do scientists call the parts of a cell?
a)
Pieces
b)
Sections
c)
Organelles
d)
None of the above
123.
Which of these is a unicellular organism?
a)
Fish
b)
Worm
c)
Amoeba
d)
Ant
124.
Which part of an onion root cell gives it a brick-like structure?
a)
Cell membrane
b)
Cell wall
c)
Vacuole
d)
Chloroplast
125.
The DNA of a cell is found in the __________.
a)
mitochondria
b)
lysosome
c)
nucleus
d)
vacuole
126.
What do you call the gooey liquid in a cell?
a)
Lysosome
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Cytoplasm
127.
Which of these organelles do animal cells not have?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Chloroplasts
c)
Cell membrane
d)
Lysosome
128.
This organelle is often referred to as the power house of the cell.
a)
Mitochondria
b)
Lysosome
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Vacuole
129.
This organelle is where plants do photosynthesis.
a)
Mitochondria
b)
Lysosome
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Vacuole
130.
This organelle is the trash and recycling center of a cell.
a)
Mitochondria
b)
Lysosome
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Vacuole
131.
Which organelle is on the outside of an animal cell?
a)
Cell wall
b)
Cell membrane
c)
Cellular lining
d)
Cytoplasm
132.

What 3 cell parts are found in PLANT cells, but not animal cells? (Check all that apply.)

a)

Cell Wall

b)

Large Vacuole

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Chloroplast

e)

Nucleus

133.

What distinguishes a plant cell from an animal cell? (How do you tell them apart) Hint: There's 3 ways (Check all 3)

a)

Large Central Vacuole

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Ribosomes

e)

Chloroplasts

134.
Which type of cell came first?
a)
Eukaryotic
b)
Prokaryotic
c)
Plant
d)
Both Eukaryotic and Prokaryotic cells evolved around the same time
135.

What is one way in which all living things on Earth are alike?

a)

All living things have hair.

b)

All living things are made of cells and come from other cells.

c)

The cells of all living things have chloroplast.

d)

All living things eat other organisms for nutrition.

136.

Which of the following is NOT part of the cell theory?

a)

All living things are composed of cells.

b)

All cells are produced from other cells.

c)

All cells have a nucleus and chloroplasts.

d)

Cells are the basic unit of structure and function in living things.

137.

Which type of cell has membrane bound organelles?

a)

Prokaryotic cells

b)

Bacteria cells

c)

Eukaryotic cells

d)

E-coli bacterium

138.

Jayden knows that multicellular organisms are more complex than unicellular organisms. Which of these is a characteristic of multicellular organisms?

a)

obtaining food

b)

breathing

c)

being able to move

d)

having specialized cells

139.

a type of cell that DOES NOT have a nucleuse (Hint: NO nucleus)

a)

prokaryotic cell

b)

eukaryotic cell

140.

This organelle is known as “powerhouse” of cell because it converts food into energy during cell respiration.

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cell Membrane

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Golgi Bodies

141.

Which is smaller, a Prokaryotic or an Eukaryotic Cell?

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

c)

I don't know

d)

They are the same size

142.

Which is a more complex cell?

a)

Prokaryotic Cell

b)

Euglena

c)

Eukaryotic Cell

d)

Bacteria

143.

What cells are we made up of?

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

c)

We are absolutely made up of no cells.

d)

Both

144.

When you need more oxygen, how would your circulatory system respond?

a)

more blood gets sent to the lungs & less to other parts of the body

b)

the blood vessels to the legs & arms expand to use oxygen

c)

blood vessels move more slowly through the organs to carry away more waste

d)

the heart beats faster to get more oxygenated blood to your organs

145.

Which is an example of feedback in a biological system?

a)

the use of energy when muscles contract

b)

the movement of salts from cells into the bloodstream

c)

the decrease on oxygen levels in the blood after vigorous exercise

d)

the release of insulin into the bloodstream when blood sugar increases

146.

What is the balance environment inside the human body called?

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Hierarchical Organization

c)

Relative Equilibrium

d)

Hypothalamus

147.
What is another word that can be used to describe "homeostasis"?
a)

stable

b)

equal

c)

complete

d)

correct

148.

What body systems work together to maintain homeostasis and ensure a healthy living organism?

a)

Respiratory

b)

Digestive

c)

Excretory

d)

All of them

149.

Which two systems work together to maintain homeostasis while transporting oxygen throughout the body and removing carbon dioxide?

a)

circulatory and respiratory

b)

respiratory and excretory

c)

circulatory and digestive

d)

respiratory and digestive

150.
Maintaining body temperature is an example of a:
a)
negative feedback loop
b)
positive feedback loop
151.
When you get cut, your skin cells release hormones that signal platelets to come and stop the bleeding. Platelets then release more hormones that signal even more platelets to help stop bleeding. The hormone signals continue until the cut is closed.
a)
Positive Feedback Response
b)
Negative Feedback Loop 
152.

What is a green structure in a plant cell where food is produced?

a)

A Cell Membrane

b)

A Lysosome

c)

A Chromosome

d)

A Chloroplast

e)

A Nucleus

153.

What is the largest part of the cell and is the control center of the cell?

a)

A Cell Membrane

b)

A Lysosome

c)

A Chromosome

d)

A Chloroplast

e)

A Nucleus

154.

What is a long strand in the nucleus that stores directions for cell activities (blueprint of the cell)?

a)

A Cell Membrane

b)

A Lysosome

c)

A Chromosome

d)

A Chloroplast

e)

A Nucleus

155.

What is a cell’s outer covering, gives the cell shape and helps to control what moves in and out of the cell?

a)

A Cell Membrane

b)

A Lysosome

c)

A Chromosome

d)

A Chloroplast

e)

A Nucleus

156.

What is a sac in the cell’s cytoplasm that stores materials such as food?

a)

A Mitochondria

b)

The Cytoplasm

c)

A Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

A Vacuole

e)

A Ribosome

157.

What is a rod shaped structure in the cytoplasm that supplies energy for the cell?

a)

A Mitochondria

b)

The Cytoplasm

c)

A Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

A Vacuole

e)

A Ribosome

158.

What manufactures and transports materials throughout the cell?

a)

A Mitochondria

b)

The Cytoplasm

c)

A Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

A Cell Wall

e)

A Ribosome

159.

What is a gel-like substance that surrounds a cell’s nucleus and is the place where most of the cell activities occur?

a)

A Mitochondria

b)

The Cytoplasm

c)

A Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

A Cell Wall

e)

A Ribosome

160.

What is a stiff covering outside the cell membrane in a plant cell?

a)

A Mitochondria

b)

The Cytoplasm

c)

A Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

A Cell Wall

e)

A Ribosome

161.

What is found in the cytoplasm, these are where proteins are made?

a)

A Mitochondria

b)

The Cytoplasm

c)

A Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

A Cell Wall

e)

A Ribosome

162.
Osmosis
a)
diffusion of water molecules through a semi-permeable mebrane from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
b)
the diffusion of particles from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration
c)
diffusion of water molecules through a semi-permeable membrane from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration
d)
the diffusion of particles from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
163.
The cell below is in a _________ solution.
a)
Hypotonic
b)
Hypertonic
c)
Isotonic
164.
Which cell is placed into a hypotonic environment? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
165.

_____ is the amount of a given substance contained in a solution

a)

concentration

b)

equilibrium

c)

diffusion

d)

facilitated diffusion

166.

What are TWO ways you can predict the movement of water?

a)

from a [High] of water to a [Low] of water

b)

towards the [Lower] of solutes

c)

towards the [Higher] of solutes

d)

from a [Low] of water to a [High] of water

167.

In the cell pictured, where would water move? 

a)

Into the cell, causing it to swell

b)

Out of the cell, causing it to shrink

c)

In and out of the cell equally, causing the shape to stay the same

168.

In the cell pictured, which way would water move?

a)

Into the cell, causing the cell to swell

b)

Out of the cell, causing the cell to shrink

c)

In and out of the cell equally, keeping the shape the same

169.

In the cell pictured, which way would water move?

a)

Into the cell, causing the cell to swell

b)

Out of the cell, causing the cell to shrink

c)

In and out of the cell equally, keeping the shape the same