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NYSSLS Earth & Space Science Midterm Review

Total questions: 169

Worksheet time: 3hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Big Bang theory is supported by evidence showing that most galaxies are moving away from Earth. What is this observation called?

a)

Blueshift

b)

Parallax

c)

Redshift

d)

Reflection

2.

When astronomers observe the Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB), what do they conclude about the early universe?

a)

It formed in many separate regions

b)

It was cold and mostly empty

c)

It was hot, dense, and uniform

d)

It was filled with heavy elements

3.

According to Hubble’s Law, galaxies that are farther from Earth are moving…

a)

Slower than closer galaxies

b)

At the same speed

c)

Faster than closer galaxies

d)

Toward Earth

4.

What primarily determines how long a star will live and how it will evolve?

a)

Color

b)

Density

c)

Mass

d)

Size of its planets

5.

High-mass stars have shorter lifespans because they…

a)

Rotate too quickly

b)

Produce less energy

c)

Burn fuel faster at higher temperatures

d)

Do not undergo fusion

6.

Which process powers stars like the Sun by combining lighter elements into heavier ones?

a)

Fission

b)

Fusion

c)

Radioactive decay

d)

Combustion

7.

Why does fusion stop when a high-mass star begins forming iron in its core?

a)

Iron blocks gravity

b)

Iron is unstable

c)

Iron fusion requires energy instead of releasing it

d)

Iron instantly explodes

8.

What usually remains after a low-mass star like the Sun finishes its life cycle?

a)

Black hole

b)

Supernova

c)

White dwarf

d)

Neutron star

9.

Where does nuclear fusion occur in the Sun?

a)

Photosphere

b)

Core

c)

Convective zone

d)

Corona

10.

Why are sunspots darker than their surroundings?

a)

They contain dust

b)

They are cooler than surrounding regions

c)

They block sunlight

d)

They reflect less light

11.

What causes absorption lines to appear in a star’s spectrum?

a)

Elements emitting extra light

b)

Light bending in space

c)

Elements absorbing specific wavelengths

d)

Background radiation interference

12.

A galaxy moving away from Earth will show spectral lines shifted toward…

a)

Blue wavelengths

b)

Green wavelengths

c)

Red wavelengths

d)

Ultraviolet wavelengths

13.

Infrared telescopes are useful because they can…

a)

Travel faster through space

b)

See through dust clouds

c)

Detect only visible stars

d)

Block microwave radiation

14.

Why do astronomers place telescopes in space instead of only on Earth’s surface?

a)

To avoid gravity

b)

To reduce maintenance costs

c)

Because Earth’s atmosphere blocks many wavelengths

d)

Because telescopes cannot work on land

15.

Which observation best supports that the universe is expanding?

a)

Changing star colors

b)

Increasing galaxy brightness

c)

Redshift patterns in distant galaxies

d)

Irregular galaxy shapes

16.

Stars on the left side of the H–R diagram appear blue. What does this color indicate about their temperature?

a)

They are the coolest type of stars

b)

They are medium-temperature stars

c)

They are the hottest type of stars

d)

Their temperature constantly changes

17.

A star that is very bright but relatively cool is most likely classified as a:

a)

White dwarf

b)

Main sequence star

c)

Red giant

d)

Neutron star

18.

Why do most stars appear along the main sequence on the H–R diagram?

a)

They are all the same age

b)

They share a relationship between temperature and luminosity

c)

They are located the same distance from Earth

d)

They are all about to explode

19.

Which statement best explains why blue main-sequence stars have short lifespans?

a)

They rotate too slowly

b)

They reflect most of their light

c)

They burn fuel very quickly due to high mass and temperature

d)

They do not undergo nuclear fusion

20.

Why are space telescopes needed to study X-rays and ultraviolet light from space?

a)

Ground telescopes cannot detect any light at all

b)

The Moon blocks most high-energy light

c)

Earth’s atmosphere absorbs many high-energy wavelengths

d)

Stars do not emit these wavelengths

21.

In nuclear fusion, energy is released when:

a)

Heavy elements split into smaller ones

b)

Light elements combine to form heavier ones

c)

Atoms freeze into solids

d)

Electrons collide with planets

22.

Why is the breakeven point important in fusion research?

a)

It shows when fusion becomes self-sustaining and produces more energy than it consumes

b)

It marks the beginning of the experiment

23.

Which condition is necessary for nuclear fusion to occur?

a)

Very low temperatures and pressures

b)

Rapid spinning of the star

c)

Extremely high temperatures and pressures

d)

The presence of liquid water

24.

What happens to gravitational force when two objects move closer together?

a)

It stays the same

b)

It becomes weaker

c)

It increases significantly

d)

It disappears

25.

Why do planets near the Sun orbit faster than planets farther away?

a)

They have less mass

b)

The Sun pulls on them more strongly

c)

Their orbits are circular

d)

Their atmospheres slow them down

26.

According to Kepler’s First Law, planetary orbits are:

a)

Perfect circles

b)

Spirals

c)

Elliptical, with the Sun at one focus

d)

Random paths

27.

Kepler’s Second Law states that a planet moves fastest when it is:

a)

Farthest from the Sun

b)

Closest to the Sun

c)

Passing another planet

d)

Crossing the equator

28.

What does Kepler’s Third Law describe?

a)

Why planets rotate

b)

The relationship between orbital distance and orbital period

c)

The tilt of a planet’s axis

d)

Why eclipses occur

29.

A satellite in a low-Earth orbit travels faster than one farther away because:

a)

Low-orbit satellites have more fuel

b)

They are pulled by less gravity

c)

Stronger gravity requires higher orbital speed

d)

Their orbits are longer

30.

Which statement best describes white dwarfs?

a)

Cool and bright because they are huge

b)

Hot but dim because they are very small

c)

Cold and dark with no energy

d)

Bright because they are newly formed

31.

The Moon formed after Earth differentiated into layers because its rocks closely match Earth’s mantle material. Which hypothesis best explains this?

a)

The capture hypothesis

b)

The giant impact hypothesis

c)

The accretion hypothesis

d)

The tidal stripping hypothesis

32.

The Moon reflects sunlight rather than producing its own. What causes the different shapes we see during the month?

a)

Changes in the Sun’s brightness

b)

Portions of the Moon’s lit side becoming visible as it orbits Earth

c)

Earth blocking sunlight throughout the month

d)

The Moon rotating faster at some points in its orbit

33.

A full Moon occurs when:

a)

The Moon is between Earth and the Sun

b)

Earth is between the Sun and the Moon

c)

The Moon is at right angles to Earth and the Sun

d)

The Moon is positioned above Earth’s North Pole

34.

Why do eclipses not occur every month even though the Moon orbits Earth every 29.5 days?

a)

The Moon rotates too quickly

b)

The Moon’s orbit is tilted relative to Earth’s orbit

c)

Earth revolves too slowly

d)

The Sun’s gravity prevents alignment

35.

Which event can only occur during the new moon phase?

a)

Lunar eclipse

b)

Solar eclipse

c)

Spring tides

d)

Neap tides

36.

A lunar eclipse happens when:

a)

The Moon moves into Earth’s shadow

b)

The Sun moves between Earth and the Moon

c)

The Moon blocks sunlight from reaching Earth

d)

The Moon moves closer to the Sun

37.

What primarily causes Earth’s ocean tides?

a)

Winds moving surface water

b)

Differences in seawater density

c)

Gravitational pull of the Moon

d)

Energy from ocean currents

38.

Why are there usually two high tides each day at most coastal locations?

a)

Water flows faster at night

b)

The Moon rotates around Earth twice daily

c)

Earth’s rotation and gravitational bulges create two tide areas

d)

The Sun blocks one tide

39.

Spring tides occur when:

a)

The Sun and Moon pull at right angles

b)

The gravitational pull of the Sun is canceled out

c)

Earth is closest to the Moon

d)

The Sun, Moon, and Earth are aligned

40.

Neap tides occur when:

a)

The Moon is at full phase

b)

The Sun and Moon pull at right angles

c)

Earth is at perihelion

d)

The Moon is closest to Earth

41.

What is the main cause of seasons on Earth?

a)

Changing Earth–Sun distance

b)

Earth’s axial tilt affecting Sun angle and daylight length

c)

Changes in Earth’s spin speed

d)

Shifts in solar energy output

42.

When the Northern Hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun:

a)

It receives less direct sunlight and shorter days

b)

It experiences winter

c)

It receives more direct sunlight and longer days

d)

The Southern Hemisphere has summer

43.

If Earth’s axial tilt increased from 23.523.5^\circ to 2828^\circ , what would most likely happen?

a)

Seasons would weaken

b)

Seasons would disappear

c)

Summers and winters would become more extreme

d)

All places would receive equal daylight

44.

If Earth’s tilt decreased toward 00^\circ , which outcome is most accurate?

a)

Polar regions would become warm year-round

b)

Seasonal differences would weaken significantly

c)

Earth would rotate faster

d)

The Sun would always be overhead everywhere

45.

Which observation best supports that the Moon’s orbit is elliptical?

a)

The Moon changes color during the month

b)

The Moon sometimes rises at midnight

c)

The Moon’s distance from Earth varies over time

d)

The Moon has craters

46.

Alfred Wegener proposed that Earth’s continents were once connected as one large landmass called what?

a)

Gondwana

b)

Pangaea

c)

Eurasia

d)

Laurasia

47.

Fossils of Mesosaurus found on both Africa and South America supported continental drift because the reptile could not have:

a)

Survived in cold ocean water

b)

Walked across land bridges

c)

Swum across an ocean

d)

Lived in multiple climates

48.

Which observation best supports the idea that continents once fit together?

a)

Identical ocean currents

b)

Matching climate zones

c)

Similar languages

d)

Coastlines fitting like puzzle pieces

49.

Why was Wegener’s hypothesis initially rejected by many scientists?

a)

He had no fossil evidence

b)

He could not identify a mechanism that moved continents

c)

He believed continents moved only during earthquakes

d)

He ignored rock layer data

50.

At an oceanic-continental convergent boundary, what usually happens?

a)

Continental crust subducts beneath oceanic crust

b)

Plates move sideways without subducting

c)

Oceanic crust subducts and volcanoes form on land

d)

New crust forms at the boundary

51.

What major feature forms when two continental plates collide?

a)

Deep-sea trench

b)

Rift valley

c)

Folded mountain range

d)

Island arc

52.

At a mid-ocean ridge, which pattern do scientists observe?

a)

The oldest crust is at the ridge

b)

Crust is destroyed at the ridge

c)

The youngest crust is at the ridge and ages outward

d)

Crust thickness stays the same everywhere

53.

The mirrored magnetic stripes on both sides of mid-ocean ridges show that:

a)

Earth’s magnetic field never changes

b)

Continents do not move

c)

Seafloor spreading occurs symmetrically

d)

Volcanoes only occur at ridges

54.

Which statement best explains Iceland’s unique tectonic setting?

a)

It sits entirely on a transform fault

b)

It is where two continental plates collide

c)

It forms where a divergent boundary crosses a hotspot

d)

It is located on the oldest crust

55.

Hotspot chains such as Hawaii demonstrate plate motion because:

a)

The youngest volcano is found farthest from the hotspot

b)

The oldest volcano is directly above the hotspot

c)

All volcanoes form at subduction zones only

d)

Volcano ages increase with distance from the hotspot

56.

Why do glacial scratches found in Africa support continental drift?

a)

Africa has always had a cold climate

b)

They show glaciers once existed where climates are now warm

c)

Glaciers form only near plate boundaries

d)

Scratches can form only underwater

57.

What type of igneous rock makes up most of the oceanic crust at mid-ocean ridges?

a)

Granite

b)

Obsidian

c)

Basalt

d)

Rhyolite

58.

Which statement best describes the density of typical oceanic crust compared to continental crust?

a)

Oceanic crust is less dense than continental

b)

Both have the same density

c)

Oceanic crust is more dense than continental

d)

Density changes only during earthquakes

59.

Approximately how deep is the boundary between Earth’s mantle and outer core?

a)

100 km

b)

700 km

c)

2900 km

d)

6400 km

60.

What general relationship exists between a planet’s distance from the Sun and its period of revolution?

a)

Closer planets take longer to orbit

b)

Distance does not affect orbital period

c)

More distant planets take longer to orbit

d)

All planets orbit in the same amount of time

61.

Radiometric dating is based on the predictable decay of unstable atoms. What is the term for the time it takes for half of a radioactive sample to decay?

a)

Absolute age

b)

Half-life

c)

Decay constant

d)

Isotope ratio

62.

Radioactive dating is reliable because radioactive isotopes decay…

a)

faster in hot environments

b)

slower under high pressure

c)

at a constant and measurable rate

d)

only in sedimentary rocks

63.

Which isotope is most useful for dating very old volcanic rocks that are millions or billions of years old?

a)

Carbon-14

b)

Uranium-235

c)

Potassium-40

d)

Nitrogen-14

64.

Why is Carbon-14 NOT useful for dating rocks that formed billions of years ago?

a)

It only forms in volcanoes

b)

It has too short of a half-life

c)

It does not decay at all

d)

It only decays in space

65.

A rock sample contains 25 percent of its original parent isotope. How many half-lives have passed?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

66.

Earth is approximately how old according to radiometric dating?

a)

600 million years old

b)

1.2 billion years old

c)

4.6 billion years old

d)

10 billion years old

67.

Large asteroid impacts produce circular craters because…

a)

the asteroid always hits straight down

b)

Earth reshapes the crater afterward

c)

energy spreads outward in all directions

d)

craters form only in soft rock

68.

Which observation best links an impact crater to a mass extinction event?

a)

The crater is located near the equator

b)

A sudden loss of species occurs at the same age as the crater

c)

The crater contains volcanic ash

d)

Dinosaurs lived nearby

69.

Why do scientists need multiple lines of evidence to reconstruct Earth’s history?

a)

Much of the rock record has been destroyed or altered

b)

All fossils decay too quickly

c)

Radiometric dating is unreliable

d)

Crater evidence does not exist today

70.

Why are the Moon and Mars especially useful for studying early solar system history?

a)

They formed earlier than Earth

b)

They have stronger gravity

c)

They lack erosion and plate tectonics

d)

They contain more fossils

71.

Surfaces on the Moon that have many craters compared with nearby areas are…

a)

younger

b)

older

c)

recently resurfaced

d)

created by volcanoes

72.

Why do Moon rocks help scientists understand early Earth?

a)

Moon rocks are made from completely different materials

b)

The Moon has preserved ancient rocks that Earth destroyed

c)

Moon rocks cannot be dated

d)

The Moon formed billions of years after Earth

73.

Which statement best explains why impact evidence is powerful when reconstructing Earth’s past?

a)

Impacts leave physical, chemical, and fossil clues

b)

Impacts only affect small regions

c)

Impact craters form every year

d)

Impacts erase fossil records

74.

Why is there relatively little visible meteorite crater evidence on Earth?

a)

Earth has never experienced major impacts

b)

Impacts only occur in oceans

c)

Weathering, erosion, and plate tectonics remove craters

d)

Craters form only on other planets

75.

Iron meteorites come from the cores of early planetary bodies. What does this suggest about their composition?

a)

Mostly silicon and oxygen

b)

Mostly water and ice

c)

Mostly iron and nickel

d)

Mostly carbon and hydrogen

76.

Earth formed in the inner solar system where only dense materials condensed. What was the major result of this environment?

a)

Earth formed mostly from ice and gas

b)

Earth developed a large metallic core and rocky crust

c)

Earth became similar to Jupiter in composition

d)

Earth formed without any metals

77.

Which property increases with depth inside Earth and helps explain changes in material behavior?

a)

Volume

b)

Density

c)

Reflectivity

d)

Magnetism

78.

Why is Earth’s inner core solid even though it is hotter than the outer core?

a)

It contains different elements

b)

It loses heat faster

c)

Extreme pressure prevents melting

d)

It receives less radioactive heat

79.

What process in the outer core is most responsible for generating Earth’s magnetic field?

a)

Radiation from the mantle

b)

Seismic wave reflection

c)

Circulation of molten iron and nickel

d)

Rotation of the solid inner core

80.

Why can tectonic plates move instead of staying fixed?

a)

They float on liquid magma

b)

Gravity pulls them toward the equator

c)

They slide over the plastic-like asthenosphere

d)

Winds in the atmosphere push them

81.

How do convection currents in the mantle contribute to plate motion?

a)

They increase plate density

b)

They cool the lithosphere rapidly

c)

They drag plates as hot material rises and cool material sinks

d)

They create ocean tides

82.

Which surface feature is directly linked to convection-driven plate motion?

a)

River deltas

b)

Seafloor spreading ridges

c)

Sand dunes

d)

Glacial grooves

83.

What makes the rock cycle different from a simple, one-way sequence?

a)

Rocks only change at boundaries

b)

Rocks always change in the same order

c)

Rocks can change along many different pathways

d)

Sedimentary rocks never change type

84.

A rock breaks apart at the surface and fragments are carried downstream. Which processes occurred?

a)

Melting then crystallization

b)

Compaction then cementation

c)

Weathering then erosion

d)

Metamorphism then foliation

85.

Which condition produces metamorphic rock instead of igneous rock?

a)

Rapid cooling at the surface

b)

Burial and melting

c)

Deposition and cementation

d)

Heat and pressure without melting

86.

What is the name of the rigid outer layer made of crust plus the upper mantle?

a)

Asthenosphere

b)

Lithosphere

c)

Mesosphere

87.

Florian discovers a rock that is broken into pieces. Each piece has several bands. Which type of rock does Florian predict these pieces will change into when subjected to heat and pressure?

a)

igneous

b)

magma

c)

sedimentary

d)

metamorphic

88.

What happens when magma cools during the rock cycle?

a)

Igneous rock is formed.

b)

Metamorphic rock is melted.

c)

Sediments form sedimentary rock.

d)

Metamorphic rock forms sediments.

89.

This image shows a model of the rock cycle. At point R, rocks melt underground to form magma. Which is another process that contributes to the formation of rock at point R?

a)

compacting of sediments on the mountain

b)

cooling as the lava runs down the mountain

c)

weathering of the mountain from the environment

d)

eroding of different rocks at the base of the mountain

90.
Wind, water, and ice breaking down rock is called
a)
Erosion
b)
Deposition
c)
Compaction
d)
Weathering
91.
What is the MAIN way rocks are classified?
a)
Their color and shapes
b)
How they form
c)
Mineral bands
d)
Where they form
92.
This rock was formed by smaller pieces of rock that settled at the bottom of a lake millions of years ago. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
93.
This rock was found near the mouth of a volcano. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
94.

What is a fault?

a)

a place on Earth where earthquakes cannot occur

b)

a fracture in Earth where movement has occurred

c)

the place on Earth’s surface where structures move during an earthquake

d)

another name for an earthquake

95.

What is an earthquake’s epicenter?

a)

the place on the surface directly above the focus

b)

a spot halfway between the focus and the surface

c)

the spot below the focus

d)

any spot along the nearest fault

96.

A seismogram shows that P waves travel

a)

at the same speed as surface waves

b)

more slowly than S waves.

c)

at the same speed as S waves

d)

faster than S waves.

97.

An earthquake’s magnitude is a measure of the

a)

size of seismic waves it produces.

b)

amount of shaking it produces.

c)

size of surface waves it produces.

d)

damage it causes.

98.

A tsunami can occur when there is vertical movement at a fault under

a)

a mountain range.

b)

            the San Andreas Fault.

c)

the ocean floor.

d)

a small inland lake.

99.

Earth’s thin, rocky outer layer is its

a)

core

b)

mantle

c)

crust

d)

outer core

100.

Earth’s inner core is solid because of

a)

the composition of its rock.

b)

its great diameter.

c)

extreme cold.

d)

immense pressure.

101.

The continental crust is made largely of

a)

gneiss

b)

granite

c)

basalt

d)

limestone

102.

Which wave can travel through solids only?

a)

P - Primary

b)

S - Secondary

c)

Surface

103.

How do scientists know that the outer core is a liquid?

a)

P waves do not travel through the outer core but S waves do.

b)

S waves do not travel through the outer core but P waves do.

c)

P waves and S waves do not travel through the outer core.

d)

P waves and S waves travel through the outer core.

104.

If something that makes light is moving AWAY from you, it spreads the wavelengths of light out. This application of the Doppler effect is known as ___.

a)

blue shift

b)

green shift

c)

red shift

d)

black shift

105.

Galaxies that are REDSHIFTED are:

a)

actually BLUE

b)

really NEAR earth

c)

invisible or not visible

d)

moving AWAY from us.

106.

Most distant galaxies show a RED SHIFT. This is considered EVIDENCE that the universe is ___.

a)

getting cooler

b)

expanding

c)

condensing into a small point

d)

swirling around

107.
After the main sequence, a low mass star becomes a
a)
black dwarf
b)
protostar
c)
red giant
d)
supergiant
108.
After the main sequence, a high mass star becomes a
a)
black dwarf
b)
protostar
c)
red giant
d)
supergiant
109.
After a supergiant, a high mass star explodes and forms a
a)
supernova
b)
red giant
c)
black hole
d)
planetary nebula
110.
Do all stars make energy through fusion?
a)
Yes
b)
No
c)
Just our sun
d)
Only large stars
111.

When hydrogen is "fused" together on the Sun, what new element is created?

a)

Helium

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

Light

112.
An ellipse is drawn around two points called
a)
aphelion
b)
perihelion
c)
foci
d)
axis
113.
The place where a planet is closest to the Sun as it orbits the Sun is called the
a)
perihelion
b)
aphelion
114.
Where is the planet moving faster
a)
Position A to B
b)
Position B to C
c)
Position H to I
d)
Position I to J
115.
A planet moves __________ when it is farthest from the sun.
a)
faster
b)
slower
116.
Which orbit is most eccentric? 
a)
1
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
117.
During which month is the earth moving the slowest? 
a)
July 
b)
March
c)
January
d)
September
118.

The force that causes objects with mass to attract to one another:

a)

Weight

b)

Gravity

c)

Mass

d)

Magnetism

119.

The gravitational attraction between two objects would increase if both masses are –

a)

increased, and the distance between them is increased.

b)

increased, and the distance between them is decreased.

c)

decreased, and the distance between them is decreased.

d)

decreased, and the distance between them is increased.

120.

Which Planet is a Jovian Planet?

a)

Saturn

b)

Earth

c)

Mars

d)

Venus

121.

Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars are known as what type of planets?

a)

Terrestrial Planets

b)

Jovian Planets

c)

Alien

d)

Space

122.

Craters on the moon were mostly formed by

a)

earthquakes

b)

volcanic action inside the moon

c)

meteorite impact on the moon

d)

people shooting at the moon

123.

The revolution of the moon orbiting the Earth is ____________ days.

a)

27.3

b)

31

c)

7

d)

14

124.

4. Identify the phase of the moon that is shown

a)

new moon

b)

third quarter

c)

waxing crescent

d)

full moon

125.
a)

Astral eclipse

b)

Lunar eclipse

c)

Solar eclipse

d)

medial eclipse

126.
a)

Solar eclipse

b)

Lunar eclipse

c)

Transit eclipse

d)

Earth eclipse

127.

Determine the tide that each region would be experiencing:

128.

Determine the tide that each region would be experiencing:

129.

Most coastlines around the world experience ​ (a)   high tides a day on most days.

Choose from the below words
two (2)
one (1)
three (3)
four (4)
no
130.
If tides alternate from high to low and there are two of each type of tide a day, about how many hours will generally be between each different tide?
a)
2 hours
b)
6 hours
c)
12 hours
d)
24 hours
131.
What does the rotation of the earth cause us to experience?
a)
seasons
b)
year
c)
day & night
d)
eclipse
132.
How long does it take the earth to revolve once around the sun?
a)
12 hours
b)
24 hours
c)
30 days
d)
365.25 days
133.
Which change in seasons occurs in the Northern Hemisphere at position D?
a)
Winter is ending and spring is beginning.
b)
Spring is ending and summer is beginning.
c)
Summer is ending and fall is beginning.
d)
Fall is ending and winter is beginning.
134.

Which of the following best describes the tilt of the earth during the spring and fall equinoxes?

a)

The earth is tilted away from the sun (Northern hemisphere)

b)

The earth is tilted neither toward or away from the sun (tilt is side to side)

c)

The earth is tilted toward the sun (Northern hemisphere)

d)

The earth is not tilted during spring and fall

135.
Why is the Equator warmest?
a)
Because it is closest to the sun.
b)
Because it receives the most direct sunlight
c)
Because no clouds form here.
d)
Because it is far from the sun
136.

Which diagram represents the sun in summer (direct heat energy)?

a)

Diagram A

b)

Diagram B

c)

neither diagram

d)

both diagrams

137.

Which diagram best represents the tilt of Earth's axis that causes the Northern Hemisphere seasons shown? (Diagrams are not drawn to scale.)

a)
b)
c)
d)
138.

This type of Boundary results when plates separate

a)

Divergent

b)

Convergent

c)

Transform

139.

This types of boundary results when plates slide past each other

a)

Transform

b)

Divergent

c)

Convergent

140.
What kind of plate boundary is shown here?
a)
divergent
b)
convergent
c)
transform
d)
subducting
141.
What geologic feature/event you be most likely to find at a transform boundary?
a)
Earthquakes
b)
Volcanoes
c)
Mountains
d)
Rift Valleys
142.
Which of the following causes Earth's tectonic plates to move?
a)
Energy from the Sun
b)
Magnetic Pole Reversal
c)
Convection currents in the mantle
d)
Faults in Mountain Ranges
143.

Mid Ocean ridges are formed by ___________________________ plate boundaries

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

144.
What geologic feature/event would you most likely to find at a divergent boundary between two pieces of oceanic crust?
a)
Rift Valley
b)
Mid-Ocean Ridge
c)
Island Arc
d)
Flat land
145.

Type of plate boundary and crustal feature?

a)

divergent, rift valley

b)

convergent, ocean trench and volcanic mountains

c)

transform, fault lines

d)

convergent, trenches and volcanic islands

146.

What two crustal features occur near every subduction zone?

a)

Volcanoes and Trenches

b)

Rift Valleys and Mid Ocean Ridges

c)

Volcanoes and Rift Valleys

d)

Mid Ocean Ridges and Trenches

147.
Who is the person credited with developing the theory of continental drift?
a)
Harry Hess
b)
Galileo
c)
Alfred Wegener
d)
Newton
148.
What are the remains of organism noticed by Wegener that are found the same in two continents?
a)
Leaves and flowers
b)
Ice and mountains
c)
Plants and animals
d)
Dinosaurs and reptiles
149.
This is a picture of glacier scars found in Africa.  What are these evidence for?
a)
Africa has always been near the equator
b)
Africa was once in an area of the Earth that had a very cold climate
c)
The continents have not moved
d)
sea floor spreading
150.

How many grams of Carbon-14 will remain after 17,100 years?

a)

32 g

b)

16 g

c)

8 g

d)

4 g

151.

Which disintigration product is represented on the graph?

a)

206Pb

b)

87Sr

c)

40Ar

d)

14N

152.

How many half-lives have passed if 12.5% 14C remains?

a)

1 Half-life

b)

2 Half-lives

c)

3 Half-lives

d)

4 Half-lives

153.

What percentage of Rubidium-87 will remain after 4 half-lives?

a)

25%

b)

12.5%

c)

6.25%

d)

3.125%

154.

Based on the graph, we could conclude:

The larger the impactor, the ___________ the crater

a)

larger

b)

smaller

c)

more round

d)

messier

155.

The moon's gravity is much stronger than Earth's gravity.

a)

True

b)

False

156.

If an object is less dense it will.....

a)

sink

b)

float

157.
What happens to temperature as you move down through the layers?
a)
it remains the same
b)
it increases then decreases
c)
it increases
d)
it decreases
158.

Which layer is the thinnest?

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

outer core

d)

inner core

159.

Base your answer on the diagram of Earth shown. Letters B, C, and D represent layers of Earth. Letter Q represents a location on Earth's surface. Which letter best represents Earth's mantle?

a)

Q

b)

B

c)

D

d)

C

160.

The interior of Earth between a depth of 5200 kilometers and 6300 kilometers is inferred to be composed mostly of

a)

silicon and iron

b)

silicon and oxygen

c)

iron and lead

d)

iron and nickel

161.

The diagram shows the cutaway views of the inferred interior layers of the planets Mercury and Venus.

What is the reason for the development of the interior layers of these two planets?

a)

Impact events added the mantle rock above the cores.

b)

Heat from the Sun melted the surface rocks to form the mantles above the cores.

c)

Gravity separated the cores and mantles due to their density differences.

d)

Rapid heat loss caused the cores to solidify before the mantles

162.

As depth within the Earth's interior increases, the

a)

density, temperature, and pressure decrease

b)

density, temperature, and pressure increase

c)

density and temperature decrease, but pressure increases

d)

density decreases, but temperature and pressure increase

163.
Which type of wave arrives first during an earthquake?
a)
Primary (p-wave) waves
b)
Secondary (s-wave) waves
c)
Rayleigh Waves
d)
Love Waves
164.

Where do most earthquakes occur?

a)

At the Earth's poles

b)

In the middle of continents

c)

Along tectonic plate boundaries

d)

In the ocean depths

165.

What is the tool used to measure earthquakes?

a)

Seismograph

b)

Barometer

c)

Thermometer

d)

Anemometer

166.

What are Shadow zones?

a)

Areas where seismic waves are not detected

b)

Regions with high seismic activity

c)

Zones with constant daylight

d)

Areas with frequent volcanic eruptions

167.

Where will the most damage in an earthquake occur?

a)

At the epicenter

b)

Far from the epicenter

c)

In open fields

d)

In well-constructed buildings

168.

Which of the following is a characteristic of shadow zones?

a)

They are areas where seismic waves are not detected.

b)

They are regions with high seismic activity.

c)

They are zones with constant volcanic eruptions.

d)

They are areas with frequent earthquakes.

169.
What is the point on Earth's surface directly above the focus of an earthquake?
a)
earthquake
b)
epicenter
c)
fault
d)
focus