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Inhalational and venous anesthetics

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

Compared with thiopental, etomidate causes

a)

Less nausea

b)

Increased seizure threshold

c)

Greater myoclonic activity

d)

Greater histamine release

2.

Compared with propofol, ketamine causes

a)

More depression of respiratory drive

b)

More depression of airway reflexes

c)

More bronchodilation

d)

Less analgesia

3.

An inhaled anesthetic has blood/gas partition coefficient of 14.8. Recovery time primarily depends on

a)

Oil/gas solubility of the agent

b)

Cardiac output

c)

Duration of administration

d)

MAC of the drug

4.

Which of the following may help in mapping of a seizure focus under general anesthesia by enhancing the EEG activity or inducing the seizure?

a)

Thiopental

b)

Ketamine

c)

Diazepam

d)

Isoflurane

5.

Propofol has all of the following properties EXCEPT:

a)

Antiemetic

b)

Antipyretic

c)

Anticonvulsant

d)

Antipruritic

6.

Which of the following choices is correct regarding the blood gas partition coefficient?

a)

Nitrous oxide 0.47

b)

Desflurane 0.62

c)

Isoflurane 2.4

d)

Sevoflurane 0.85

7.

Which of the following statements about etomidate is most likely true?

a)

It is water soluble at an acidic pH and lipid soluble at physiologic pH

b)

It may be used as an infusion for sedation in the ICU

c)

It is related to propofol in its chemical structure

d)

Awakening from induction dose is secondary to very rapid liver metabolism

8.

A 28-year-old burn patient needs daily wound debridement. Which of the following

agents is not appropriate to provide a short duration of anesthesia?

a)

Nitrous oxide

b)

Ketamine

c)

Etomidate

d)

Midazolam

9.

Which of the following anesthetic agents is contraindicated for use in patients with

intermittent porphyria?

a)

Ketamine

b)

Etomidate

c)

Isoflurane

d)

Thiopental

10.

The minimum anesthesia concentration (MAC) of desflurane is decreased by

a)

Chronic alcohol use

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Chronic anemia with hemoglobin of 7.5 gm/dL

d)

Hypothermia to 34°C

11.

Ketamine administered in anesthetic doses

a)

Decreases intracranial pressure

b)

Causes respiratory depression

c)

Is metabolized by the liver

d)

Increases bronchomotor tone

12.

Which of the following statements about ketamine is true?

a)

Tolerance may develop after repeated administration

b)

It is extensively bound to plasma protein

c)

Primary site of action is GABA receptor

d)

Kidney is the primary route of elimination

13.

Which of the following statements about etomidate is most likely true?

a)

It causes significant dose-dependent respiratory depression

b)

It causes cerebral vasodilatation

c)

It increases frequency of excitatory spikes on the EEG more than thiopental

d)

Most of the administered dose is excreted unchanged by the kidney

14.

Which of the following statements about ketamine is most likely true?

a)

Analgesic efficacy of epidural ketamine is equivalent to epidural morphine

b)

Ketamine decreases the duration of action of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs

c)

Ketamine is a direct myocardial depressant

d)

Ketamine decreases the cortical amplitude of somatosensory-evoked potentials

15.

Which of the following statements about propofol infusion syndrome is most likely false?

a)

Mortality rate in an established case is very high

b)

Rhabdomyolysis is one of the diagnostic criteria

c)

Tachycardia is an early sign of this syndrome

d)

Cardiac dysfunction is very common in this condition

16.

A patient is undergoing resection of a supratentorial brain tumor. He is normocarbic, and his mean blood pressure is 70 mm Hg. Administration of which of the following is most likely to decrease cerebral blood volume?

a)

Nitrous oxide at 0.5 minimum alveolar concentration (MAC)

b)

Desflurane at 1 MAC

c)

Thiopental 2 mg/kg

d)

ketamine 2mg/kg

17.

All of the following decrease cerebral blood flow (CBF), except

a)

Etomidate

b)

Propofol

c)

Thiopental

d)

Ketamine

18.

All of the following have an antiemetic action, except

a)

dexamethasone

b)

Propofol

c)

Etomidate

d)

Haloperidol

19.

Which of the following anaesthetic agents act via potentiation of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)?

a)

Midazolam

b)

Ketamine

c)

Xenon

d)

Nitrous oxide

20.

Which property of desflurane accounts for its very rapid induction and emergence from anesthesia?

a)

Low solubility in blood

b)

High potency

c)

Strong analgesic effects at low concentrations

d)

High lipid solubility causing slow equilibration

21.

In which clinical scenario is sevoflurane highlighted as an excellent choice for smooth and rapid inhalation induction?

a)

Pediatric and adult patients due to nonpungency and rapid alveolar concentration increases

b)

Only adult patients because it is pungent and slow to equilibrate

c)

Patients with cardiovascular disease because of high cardiac output

d)

obese patients due to increased FRC

22.

Who is considered at increased risk for halothane hepatic toxicity ?

a)

Young healthy men with no prior exposure to anesthetics

b)

Old patients with multiple comorbidities like congested heart failure

c)

Middle-aged obese women and persons with a familial predisposition or personal history of toxicity

d)

young children with marfan syndrome

23.

Which route is identified as the most important for the elimination of inhalation anesthetics?

a)

Biotransformation in the liver

b)

Transcutaneous diffusion through the skin

c)

Exhalation across the alveolar membrane

d)

Renal excretion of unchanged anesthetic

24.

Many factors that speed induction also speed recovery. Which combination best reflects these recovery-promoting factors?

a)

High fresh gas flows, low circuit volume, decreased solubility, and increased ventilation

b)

Low fresh gas flows, high circuit volume, increased solubility, and decreased ventilation

c)

High fresh gas flows, high circuit volume, increased solubility, and decreased cerebral blood flow

d)

Low fresh gas flows, low circuit volume, decreased solubility, and reduced cerebral blood flow

25.

Nitrous oxide and xenon are believed to share which principal mechanism of action described?

a)

Enhancing GABA_A receptor chloride conductance

b)

Inhibiting NMDA receptors in the brain

c)

Activating alpha-2 adrenergic receptors in the locus coeruleus

d)

Blocking voltage-gated sodium channels in the cortex

26.

Which agent has been suggested to possess neuroprotective properties against anesthetic-induced neurotoxicity and is sometimes incorporated into pediatric anesthetic management?

a)

Ketamine

b)

Propofol

c)

Dexmedetomidine

d)

Nitrous oxide

27.

Which statement best characterizes the immunomodulatory impact of inhaled anesthetics ?

a)

They consistently enhance immune responses, making them preferred in cancer therapy.

b)

They have immunosuppressive effects that can be beneficial in inflammatory conditions but potentially deleterious in patients undergoing cancer therapy.

c)

They have no measurable immunologic effects in perioperative care.

d)

They are recommended over intravenous agents in patients with cancer due to immune stimulation.

28.

Approximately what multiple of MAC prevents movement to surgical incision in about 95% of patients when a volatile anesthetic is the sole agent?

a)

1.0 MAC

b)

1.3 MAC

c)

2.0 MAC

d)

2.5 MAC

29.

Hyperthermia affects MAC in what way?

a)

Consistently increases MAC at all temperatures

b)

Decreases MAC, but may increase MAC if temperature exceeds about 42°C

c)

Has no effect on MAC

d)

Increases MAC only in older adults

30.

How does thyroid status influence MAC ?

a)

Hyperthyroidism increases MAC; hypothyroidism decreases MAC

b)

Effect depends on age

c)

Hyperthyroidism decreases MAC; hypothyroidism increases MAC

d)

Both hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism cause no change in MAC

31.

what is the typical effect of nitrous oxide on systemic vascular resistance (SVR) in adults under anesthesia?

a)

Marked decrease in SVR

b)

Marked increase in SVR

c)

No change in SVR

d)

Biphasic: initial increase then decrease

32.

In adults, the use of nitrous oxide is associated with which gastrointestinal outcome postoperatively?

a)

Reduced risk of nausea due to suppression of the chemoreceptor trigger zone

b)

Increased risk of postoperative nausea and vomiting via activation of the chemoreceptor trigger zone and vomiting center

c)

No change in postoperative nausea but increased diarrhea

d)

Decreased vomiting with increased abdominal distention

33.

Which chemical feature most directly accounts for halothane’s nonflammable, nonexplosive nature?

a)

Presence of a halogenated alkane backbone

b)

Strong carbon–fluorine bonds within the molecule

c)

High vapor pressure at room temperature

d)

Extensive hepatic metabolism to inert products

34.

Compared with isoflurane, desflurane is considered a poor choice for inhalation induction primarily because of:

a)

Greater pungency causing airway irritation and laryngospasm

b)

Lower vapor pressure making titration difficult

c)

High blood solubility delaying onset

d)

Excessive myocardial depression during induction

35.

What minimum fresh gas flow is suggested by some clinicians to reduce Compound A accumulation during long-duration sevoflurane anesthesia?

a)

At least 2 L/min

b)

At least 0.5 L/min

c)

At least 5 L/min

d)

At least 1 L/min

36.

Which manufacturing or packaging modification has substantially reduced patient injury risk related to sevoflurane degradation?

a)

Adding water during manufacturing and using a special plastic container

b)

Switching to glass bottle packaging without added water

c)

Using metal-lined containers to prevent evaporation

d)

Increasing the sevoflurane concentration to reduce impurities

37.

Barbiturates primarily affect cerebral vasculature by causing which change?

a)

Vasodilation with increased cerebral blood flow

b)

Vasoconstriction with decreased blood flow

c)

No change in vascular tone or flow

d)

Vasodilation with decreased intracranial pressure

38.

Which drug is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that reverses central nervous system effects?

a)

Flumazenil

b)

Midazolam

c)

Diazepam

d)

Lorazepam

39.

A patient receives repeated ketamine doses over several days for burn dressing changes. Which pharmacokinetic change is most likely?

a)

Reduced hepatic extraction and longer half-life

b)

Tolerance due to hepatic enzyme induction

c)

Increased renal reabsorption of metabolites

d)

Decreased lipid solubility and brain uptake

40.

Which cardiovascular effect is most characteristic of etomidate given alone at induction doses?

a)

Minimal change in cardiac output

b)

Significant myocardial depression

c)

Marked vasodilation with tachycardia

d)

Histamine-mediated hypotension