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1. Congenital & Hereditary Diseases

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which genetic defect most directly explains the brittle bones seen in Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)?

a)

Mutation in COL1A1/COL1A2 causing abnormal type I collagen

b)

Mutation increasing osteoclast activity and bone resorption

c)

Defect in fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3) increasing bone length

d)

Mutation leading to excess bone marrow blood cell production

2.

A newborn presents with multiple fractures after minimal handling, blue sclera, and curved spine. Which condition best fits this presentation?

a)

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

b)

Achondroplasia

c)

Osteopetrosis

d)

Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip

3.

Which diagnostic test specifically measures bone density and helps confirm Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

a)

DEXA scan

b)

Bone marrow biopsy

c)

Arthroscopy

d)

Pulmonary function test

4.

Achondroplasia primarily results from a mutation in FGFR3. What is the typical consequence of this mutation on bone growth?

a)

Inhibition of endochondral ossification leading to shortened long bones

b)

Excess intramembranous ossification causing enlarged skull

c)

Overactive osteoclasts causing decreased bone mass

d)

Increased type I collagen resulting in hyperdense bone

5.

Which sign is most characteristic of Achondroplasia based on the section’s overview?

a)

Disproportionate short limbs with normal trunk

b)

Generalized brittle bones and frequent fractures

c)

Markedly increased bone density with marrow space loss

d)

Hip joint instability with asymmetric leg creases

6.

Osteopetrosis is best described as which pathophysiologic change?

a)

Defective osteoclast function leading to excessive bone density

b)

Reduced collagen production causing fragile bones

c)

Abnormal FGFR3 signaling inhibiting growth plate activity

d)

Laxity of hip joint capsule causing femoral head instability

7.

Which clinical consequence aligns with Osteopetrosis?

a)

Bone fractures despite increased bone density

b)

Tall stature due to accelerated long bone growth

c)

Blue sclera due to collagen defects

d)

Hip dislocation evident in Ortolani maneuver

8.

A screening infant hip exam reveals clicking during abduction and asymmetric thigh folds. Which condition should be suspected?

a)

Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH)

b)

Achondroplasia

c)

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

d)

Osteopetrosis

9.

Which imaging modality is emphasized for diagnosing DDH in infants?

a)

Ultrasound of the hip joint

b)

CT angiography

c)

DEXA scan

d)

Bone scintigraphy

10.

Which finding is most consistent with vertebral anomalies such as scoliosis?

a)

Lateral curvature of the spine visible on standing X-ray

b)

Blue sclera with recurrent fractures

c)

Macrocephaly with shortened limbs

d)

Hip dislocation detected by Barlow test

11.

Which cause category correctly pairs with the disease from this section?

a)

OI: mutations in collagen genes

b)

DDH: mutation in osteoclast proton pump

c)

Achondroplasia: autoimmune inflammation of joints

d)

Osteopetrosis: ligamentous laxity during infancy

12.

Which sign differentiates Achondroplasia from Osteogenesis Imperfecta according to the overview?

a)

Trident hand and macrocephaly

b)

Blue sclera and curved spine

c)

Markedly dense bones on X-ray

d)

Positive Ortolani maneuver

13.

What is a common diagnostic step shared across several conditions in this section to visualize bony changes?

a)

X-ray imaging of the affected region

b)

Spirometry assessing respiratory capacity

c)

EEG evaluating neural activity

d)

Colonoscopy inspecting mucosa

14.

Which statement best captures the pathophysiology of DDH?

a)

Instability or abnormal development of the hip joint leading to femoral head displacement

b)

Defective osteoclasts causing dense, brittle bones

c)

Reduced type I collagen synthesis causing bone fragility

d)

Overactivation of FGFR3 causing shortened long bones

15.

A child with vertebral anomalies is noted to have spinal cord tethering risk. Which associated condition from the section may present with this concern?

a)

Spina bifida

b)

Achondroplasia

c)

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

d)

DDH

16.

Which statement best describes craniosynostosis in the context of cranial anomalies?

a)

Premature fusion of one or more cranial sutures leading to abnormal skull shape

b)

Incomplete closure of the vertebral arches causing spinal cord herniation

c)

Defective ossification of long bones resulting in bowing of legs

d)

Inflammation of the meninges secondary to bacterial infection

17.

Which sign or symptom is most characteristic of craniosynostosis?

a)

Macrocephaly with open fontanelles

b)

Abnormal head shape due to early suture fusion

c)

Delayed closure of sutures with soft skull

d)

Normal skull shape but widened cranial sutures

18.

Osteomyelitis primarily involves which pathophysiological process?

a)

Autoimmune attack on joint synovium

b)

Bacterial infection of bone and bone marrow

c)

Malignant transformation of cartilage cap

d)

Premature fusion of vertebral endplates

19.

A common cause of osteomyelitis in adolescents is most likely due to:

a)

Hematogenous spread of Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Congenital mutation in collagen type I genes

c)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis in the lung

d)

Traumatic rupture of intervertebral disc

20.

Which diagnostic approach is emphasized for osteomyelitis?

a)

DEXA scan to assess bone density only

b)

X-ray showing bone destruction and periosteal reaction; may be supported by MRI and culture

c)

Ultrasound of soft tissues exclusively

d)

Skin biopsy to detect epithelial changes

21.

Bone tuberculosis differs from pyogenic osteomyelitis primarily because bone TB is:

a)

Caused by Staphylococcus aureus with acute onset

b)

A chronic mycobacterial infection often originating from pulmonary tuberculosis

c)

A neoplastic transformation of marrow cells

d)

An autoimmune arthropathy affecting synovial lining

22.

Which feature is typical of arthropathy as outlined in the section?

a)

Joint disease presenting with pain, swelling, and reduced range of motion

b)

Bone tumor with cartilage cap and stalk

c)

Congenital fusion of cranial sutures

d)

Fracture resulting from repetitive stress to long bones

23.

Which cause is most closely associated with arthropathy in this section’s context?

a)

Mechanical wear and tear, autoimmune processes, or infection affecting joints

b)

Congenital absence of cranial sutures

c)

Deficiency of vitamin D in childhood only

d)

Primary neoplasm arising from osteoblasts

24.

Which risk factor or cause is commonly linked to spondylolysis?

a)

Autoimmune-mediated synovitis

b)

Repetitive stress, especially in athletes, causing pars defects

c)

Congenital fusion of vertebral bodies

d)

Neoplastic invasion of the pedicle

25.

Spondylolisthesis refers to:

a)

Posterior displacement of the sacrum

b)

Forward slippage of a vertebra relative to the one beneath it

c)

Compression fracture of the vertebral body

d)

Lateral curvature of the thoracic spine

26.

Which sign or symptom most aligns with spondylolisthesis?

a)

Severe head shape abnormality at birth

b)

Low back pain and possible nerve compression symptoms

c)

Acute fever with localized bone tenderness only

d)

Restricted shoulder abduction with crepitus

27.

What is the typical diagnostic modality for confirming spondylolisthesis?

a)

Ultrasound of abdomen

b)

Lateral spine X-ray showing vertebral slippage; CT/MRI for severity and neural involvement

c)

DEXA scan exclusively

d)

Arthroscopy of the knee

28.

Osteochondroma is characterized by which key feature?

a)

A benign bone tumor with a cartilage cap projecting from the metaphysis

b)

A malignant osteoid-producing tumor in the diaphysis

c)

An inflammatory lesion within joint synovium

d)

A congenital absence of the patella

29.

Which location is classically associated with osteochondroma growth?

a)

Epiphysis of small bones of the hand

b)

Metaphyseal region of long bones near the growth plate

c)

Vertebral spinous processes exclusively

d)

Skull base near cranial sutures

30.

Which diagnostic approach is most appropriate for osteochondroma?

a)

X-ray demonstrating a bony outgrowth with a cartilage cap; MRI to assess cartilage thickness

b)

Bone marrow biopsy for hematologic analysis

c)

DEXA scan to determine tumor density

d)

Ultrasound to visualize synovial fluid

31.

Which benign bone tumor is described as a less frequent, slow-growing lesion that commonly affects craniofacial bones and may cause hearing or vision problems due to local mass effect?

a)

Osteoma

b)

Endochondroma

c)

Osteosarcoma

d)

Ewing sarcoma

32.

Endochondroma most typically arises in which anatomical context?

a)

Intramedullary cartilage tumor in small bones of the hands and feet

b)

Surface-based osteoid-forming tumor in long bone metaphyses

c)

Malignant bone tumor of osteoblastic origin in adolescents

d)

Round cell malignant tumor often in diaphysis of long bones

33.

Which finding best characterizes giant cell tumor (GCT) of bone?

a)

Epiphyseal location extending to subchondral bone

b)

Diaphyseal onion-skin periosteal reaction

c)

Cortical-based osteoid osteoma relieved by NSAIDs

d)

Metaphyseal cloud-like chondroid calcifications

34.

Which malignant bone tumor classically presents in adolescents with sunburst periosteal reaction and Codman triangle on imaging?

a)

Osteosarcoma

b)

Chondrosarcoma

c)

Ewing sarcoma

d)

Endochondroma

35.

Ewing sarcoma most commonly involves which bone region and characteristic radiographic pattern?

a)

Diaphysis with lamellated (onion-skin) periosteal reaction

b)

Epiphysis with soap-bubble lytic lesion

c)

Metaphysis with sunburst spicules

d)

Flat bones with punctate chondroid calcifications

36.

Which neoplasm is a malignant cartilage-forming tumor that often affects the pelvis and proximal femur in adults?

a)

Chondrosarcoma

b)

Osteosarcoma

c)

Osteoblastoma

d)

Giant cell tumor

37.

A patient with a small, cortical, osteoid-producing lesion causing nighttime pain relieved by NSAIDs most likely has which tumor?

a)

Osteoid osteoma

b)

Endochondroma

c)

Ewing sarcoma

d)

Chondrosarcoma

38.

Which tumor frequently presents around the knee with localized pain, swelling, and risk of pathologic fracture due to an expansile lytic lesion?

a)

Giant cell tumor

b)

Ewing sarcoma

c)

Endochondroma

d)

Osteoma

39.

Which benign tumor commonly affects the craniofacial bones and may appear as a dense, sclerotic lesion on X-ray?

a)

Osteoma

b)

Chondrosarcoma

c)

Osteosarcoma

d)

Ewing sarcoma

40.

Which imaging modality is most useful to identify characteristic chondroid calcifications (“rings and arcs”) in an intramedullary cartilage tumor of the hand?

a)

X-ray showing well-circumscribed lucent lesion with chondroid calcifications

b)

MRI demonstrating sunburst periosteal reaction

c)

Bone scan revealing hot spot in diaphysis

d)

Ultrasound showing hyperechoic cortical nidus

41.

Which statement best distinguishes osteoblastoma from osteoid osteoma?

a)

Osteoblastoma is larger, often in spine, pain not reliably relieved by NSAIDs

b)

Osteoblastoma is smaller cortical lesion with classic NSAID response

c)

Osteoblastoma presents with onion-skin periosteal reaction in diaphysis

d)

Osteoblastoma is a malignant osteoid-forming tumor of adolescents

42.

Which clinical feature is most consistent with osteosarcoma?

a)

Progressive bone pain and swelling in the metaphysis of long bones with aggressive periosteal reaction

b)

Slow-growing craniofacial mass causing sinus obstruction

c)

Asymptomatic hand lesion incidentally found with chondroid calcifications

d)

Back pain with neurological symptoms due to epidural extension

43.

Ewing sarcoma is associated with which systemic sign due to its small round cell nature?

a)

Fever and elevated inflammatory markers

b)

Night pain relieved by NSAIDs

c)

Hearing loss from skull base involvement

d)

Calcified cartilage matrix on X-ray

44.

Which tumor is known for producing cartilage matrix and often shows ring-and-arc calcifications on imaging?

a)

Chondrosarcoma

b)

Osteosarcoma

c)

Ewing sarcoma

d)

Giant cell tumor

45.

Which diagnosis fits an expansile lytic lesion in the epiphysis of the distal femur with ‘soap-bubble’ appearance and joint pain?

a)

Giant cell tumor

b)

Endochondroma

c)

Osteoblastoma

d)

Ewing sarcoma

46.

Which cause/risk factor pairing is most accurate for osteosarcoma as described?

a)

Linked to rapid bone growth in adolescents and prior radiation; arises in metaphysis

b)

Caused by chronic infection of the diaphysis; arises in epiphysis

c)

Due to degenerative cartilage; primarily affects hands and feet

d)

Results from nasal polyp obstruction; localized to craniofacial bones

47.

Which imaging hallmark supports the diagnosis of Ewing sarcoma?

a)

X-ray: diaphyseal permeative lesion with onion-skin periosteal reaction

b)

CT: dense sclerotic mass in craniofacial bone

c)

MRI: well-circumscribed intramedullary cartilage lesion

d)

X-ray: sunburst spicules from metaphyseal lesion

48.

In adults with deep, aching pain in the pelvis and proximal femur, which malignant tumor is most likely and what imaging feature is typical?

a)

Chondrosarcoma; ring-and-arc chondroid calcifications

b)

Osteosarcoma; Codman triangle

c)

Ewing sarcoma; onion-skin periosteal reaction

d)

Osteoma; dense craniofacial sclerosis

49.

Which benign tumor may present with sinus obstruction, headaches, and vision problems due to craniofacial involvement?

a)

Osteoma

b)

Osteoblastoma

c)

Endochondroma

d)

Ewing sarcoma

50.

Which tumor is classically located in the spinal posterior elements and can cause back pain with limited motion, sometimes mimicking radiculopathy?

a)

Osteoblastoma

b)

Endochondroma

c)

Chondrosarcoma

d)

Osteoid osteoma