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Imaging II: Beam Restriction Review

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Based on the objectives related to scatter radiation and beam restriction: Which change in X‑ray beam characteristics occurs when kVp is increased?

a)

Transmission decreases and photoelectric absorption increases.

b)

Transmission increases while photoelectric absorption decreases.

c)

Compton scatter decreases because photons have less energy.

d)

All interactions increase equally regardless of energy.

2.

Recall: What is the immediate effect on photon energy when kVp is increased during an exposure?

a)

Photon energy decreases, leading to more absorption

b)

Photon energy stays the same while quantity increases

c)

Each photon has more energy, enabling greater transmission

d)

Only low-energy photons are produced, reducing scatter

3.

Skill/Concept: Based on high kVp conditions, which statement best explains why more scatter reaches the image receptor (IR)?

a)

More interactions occur overall, so absorption dominates

b)

High-energy photons interact primarily via Compton scatter, and the scattered photons have enough energy to escape the body and reach the IR

c)

Photoelectric absorption increases with kVp, stopping scattered photons

d)

Pairing high kVp with higher mAs boosts absorption pathways

4.

Recall/Concept: When technologists increase kVp to maintain exposure, what typical adjustment and patient-dose outcome are expected?

a)

Increase mAs; patient dose rises due to more absorption

b)

Reduce mAs using the 15% rule; overall patient dose decreases because fewer photons are absorbed

c)

Keep mAs unchanged; patient dose stays constant

d)

Reduce SID; patient dose decreases by geometric divergence

5.

Recall: Which statement best describes how increasing kVp affects patient dose when mAs is appropriately adjusted to maintain image brightness?

a)

Patient dose generally decreases

b)

Patient dose generally increases

c)

Patient dose remains unchanged in all cases

d)

Patient dose fluctuates unpredictably

6.

Skill/Concept: In digital imaging, how does increasing kVp typically influence the appearance of contrast compared to film-screen imaging?

a)

It leads to a longer scale of contrast, but digital post-processing can further adjust contrast

b)

It causes a shorter scale of contrast that cannot be modified digitally

c)

It produces pure black-and-white images with no gray tones in digital systems

d)

It has no relationship to contrast in digital imaging

7.

Recall: Dense tissues like bone and muscle have which characteristic that increases both Compton scatter and photoelectric absorption?

a)

Lower electron density per cubic centimeter

b)

Higher electron density with more electrons packed into the same space

c)

Greater transparency to X‑rays

d)

Fewer outer‑shell electrons available for interactions

8.

Which statement best explains why increasing patient thickness typically raises the amount of Compton scatter in radiography?

a)

Thicker patients present more tissue volume that interactions can occur in, increasing scatter production.

b)

Thicker patients contain more high-atomic-number materials that favor photoelectric absorption over scatter.

c)

Thicker patients reduce beam energy, causing fewer interactions and less scatter.

d)

Thicker patients allow more primary photons to pass unaltered, decreasing scatter.

9.

A technologist images two regions: a fatty area and a dense glandular area. Which outcome aligns with how tissue density influences interaction type?

a)

The fatty area shows more photoelectric absorption because lower density favors absorption.

b)

The glandular area shows more Compton scatter because higher density increases electron availability.

c)

Both areas show identical proportions of scatter and absorption regardless of density.

d)

The glandular area shows less scatter due to lower electron density.

10.

A facility wants to reduce repeat mammograms due to motion blur and poor contrast. Which procedural adjustment directly applies the concept of compression to address both issues?

a)

Use no compression to avoid patient discomfort and rely on higher mAs.

b)

Apply firm, even compression to spread tissue, minimize motion, reduce scatter, and improve resolution.

c)

Switch to a lower kVp without changing compression to eliminate motion blur.

d)

Increase SID to reduce scatter while keeping the breast uncompressed.

11.

Recall: In radiographic imaging, what is penumbra as described in the lesson about collimators?

a)

The central area of maximum sharpness within the exposure field

b)

The blurry, fuzzy edge that appears around the outside of an image

c)

A pattern of quantum mottle produced by low mA

d)

The high-contrast border created by grid lines

12.

Refer to the described visual: a slide titled “Collimator and Off-Focus Radiation” shows two bullet lists comparing upper shutters (near the x-ray tube, reduce off-focus radiation, improve contrast, add slight inherent filtration) and bottom shutters (near the patient/output, shape the x-ray field to match the light field, control exposure field size/shape, reduce penumbra). Which statement best describes the primary function of the bottom shutters in a radiographic collimator?

a)

They primarily reduce off-focus (leakage) radiation inside the housing.

b)

They align the mirror to ensure the light field matches the X-ray field.

c)

They shape and control the exposure field to match the light field, helping reduce penumbra.

d)

They increase low-energy photon output to enhance detail.

13.

Recall how the collimator’s light-localizing field works. Inside the collimator, a mirror reflects light so the technologist can see where the X-ray beam will hit before exposure. What routine quality control check ensures the light field and X-ray beam align correctly?

a)

Verifying they match within ±2% of the source-to-image distance (SID).

b)

Ensuring the light field area equals the detector’s full active area at any SID.

c)

Confirming the mirror removes all low-energy photons from the beam.

d)

Checking that the central ray is offset to compensate for penumbra.

14.

Recall: Which component primarily reduces off-focus and leakage radiation before it reaches the patient by providing inherent filtration at the tube exit?

a)

Upper shutters of the collimator

b)

Bottom shutters closest to the patient

c)

Automatic exposure control sensors

d)

Image receptor grid

15.

Which component creates the collimator light field used to outline the projected X-ray field on the patient or receptor?

a)

A mirror reflecting a lamp inside the collimator

b)

The X-ray tube filament glowing during exposure

c)

An external laser pointer mounted on the housing

d)

Fluorescent panels on the image receptor

16.

Why must the collimator light field be accurately aligned with the actual X-ray field?

a)

To ensure exposure time is shortened

b)

To avoid motion blur caused by the lamp

c)

To guarantee that the irradiated area matches the visualized area

d)

To comply with battery requirements for the collimator lamp

17.

Quality control checks on collimator alignment primarily assess which relationship?

a)

Light field to X-ray field congruence

b)

Tube warm-up procedure compliance

c)

Grid ratio to focal distance matching

d)

AEC chamber sensitivity

18.

What does central ray marking on the collimator help the radiographer do?

a)

Align the beam to anatomy and receptor center

b)

Measure mAs during exposure

c)

Determine grid cutoff direction

d)

Verify focal spot size

19.

Which statement best distinguishes inherent filtration from added filtration in the context of collimator housing?

a)

Inherent filtration arises from tube/housing components; added filtration is intentionally placed materials

b)

Inherent filtration is adjustable by the technologist; added filtration is fixed

c)

Inherent filtration increases patient dose; added filtration decreases dose

d)

Inherent filtration is part of the AEC circuit; added filtration is part of the grid

20.

During QC, how can a radiographer verify light field–X-ray field congruence?

a)

Expose a test phantom using the light field boundaries and compare to the irradiated area

b)

Warm the tube for 5 minutes and check mA stability

c)

Measure focal spot size using a pinhole camera

d)

Inspect grid lines on a high-frequency image

21.

What is the stated purpose of ancillary devices like lead masks and blockers for exams such as the lateral T‑spine?

a)

Restrict the beam to a specific shape and help absorb scatter when scatter can be significant

b)

Increase the image receptor sensitivity to low kVp exposures

c)

Provide patient immobilization for long procedures

d)

Automatically select the correct grid ratio

22.

Which feature on the collimator guides accurate centering of the X-ray beam over the receptor?

a)

Central ray crosshair or marking

b)

AEC indicator light

c)

Anode rotation speed display

d)

Grid alignment arrow on the bucky

23.

Which component contributes to filtering out low-energy photons without being an added filter?

a)

Inherent filtration from the collimator housing and tube components

b)

Lead blockers placed on the receptor

c)

AEC sensor cover plates

d)

Image receptor scintillator

24.

What is the main safety reason to perform routine QC on collimator light field alignment?

a)

To prevent unintended tissue irradiation outside the intended field

b)

To maintain tube warm-up protocols

c)

To ensure anode rotation is within limits

d)

To reduce the need for grids

25.

Which scenario most clearly indicates misalignment between the light field and X-ray field?

a)

The exposed area on the image extends beyond the illuminated boundaries

b)

The collimator lamp is dim but exposure is correct

c)

The grid lines are visible at low kVp

d)

The AEC terminates the exposure too early

26.

Central ray marking is crucial because it:

a)

Provides a reference point for aligning anatomy and receptor center

b)

Defines the grid ratio used for the exam

c)

Indicates the selected mA station

d)

Marks the focal spot size on the control panel

27.

Which statement about the relationship between collimation and scatter is most accurate?

a)

Tighter collimation reduces scatter reaching the receptor

b)

Wider collimation always improves contrast

c)

Collimation does not affect scatter levels

d)

Scatter depends only on grid ratio

28.

Which device from the ancillary list is placed on the image receptor to block parts of the beam?

a)

Lead blocker or lead shield

b)

AEC chamber

c)

Mirror assembly

d)

Filter wheel

29.

Before using a custom lead mask on a digital system, the radiographer should:

a)

Verify with the vendor that the system supports its use

b)

Increase kVp by 10% to compensate

c)

Disable AEC in all cases

d)

Switch to a lower grid ratio

30.

For exams with high scatter such as lateral thoracic spine, ancillary devices are recommended to:

a)

Restrict the beam shape and absorb scatter

b)

Increase SID to reduce magnification

c)

Open collimation to include all anatomy

d)

Replace the grid entirely