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Hesi 1

Total questions: 88

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The client reports getting up 5–6 times nightly to urinate but can hold it until reaching the bathroom. What urinary pattern is this?

a)

Stress incontinence

b)

Urge incontinence

c)

Nocturia

d)

Overflow incontinence

2.

The client now voids spontaneously without recognizing the urge to void. How should this be documented?

a)

Functional incontinence

b)

Reflex incontinence

c)

Incontinence

d)

Stress incontinence

3.

For bladder training, which instruction should be given to the UAP?

a)

Measure urine output every hour

b)

Remind the client to void every 2 hours while awake

c)

Restrict fluids after lunch

d)

Encourage nighttime voiding

4.

The client is frustrated about persistent incontinence. Which intervention is appropriate?

a)

Limit fluid intake

b)

Apply restraints

c)

Discuss coping strategies

d)

Discontinue bladder training

5.

After an incontinence episode, which spouse statement indicates correct skin care understanding?

a)

Use hot water after each episode

b)

Apply powder to keep the area dry

c)

Wash with mild soap and water, then apply ointment

d)

Avoid cleansing the area unless irritated

6.

Bladder training continues with little improvement. What should the nurse assess for?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Skin breakdown

c)

Hyperthermia

d)

Blood in urine

7.

For an external catheter, which intervention is most important?

a)

Apply snugly around the shaft

b)

Remove every 24 hours

c)

Assess skin integrity frequently

d)

Keep the tubing dependent

8.

First step in inserting a male indwelling urinary catheter?

a)

Inflate the balloon first

b)

Wash perineal area with soap and water

c)

Apply sterile gloves immediately

d)

Advance catheter until urine returns

9.

What physiologic change in adult males may affect catheter insertion?

a)

Decreased bladder elasticity

b)

Prostate enlargement

c)

Reduced urethral length

d)

Increased urinary pH

10.

During insertion, the student inflates the balloon at 4 inches and client cries out. What happened?

a)

Balloon inflated in urethra

b)

Balloon ruptured

c)

Catheter too small

d)

Catheter contaminated

11.

A client with immobility is at immediate risk for which complications?

a)

Deconditioning

b)

Constipation

c)

Venous thromboembolism

d)

Osteoporosis

12.

Orders that prevent VTE in immobile clients include: (Select all)

a)

Ambulate 3x/day

b)

Restrict fluids

c)

Sequential compression devices

d)

Daily enoxaparin

e)

Compression stockings

13.

The UAP reports client chewing slowly and spitting food out. What likely explains this?

a)

Dysphagia from stroke

b)

Edentulism

c)

Dehydration

d)

Medication side effect

14.

Post-op constipation risk: which medication is most likely responsible?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Promethazine

c)

Cefazolin

d)

Morphine

15.

A 1000 mL/day fluid intake causes what bowel effect?

a)

Prevents constipation

b)

Causes diarrhea

c)

Contributes to constipation

d)

Has no effect

16.

Priority postop constipation assessment question:

a)

How often do you walk?

b)

Do you use the incentive spirometer?

c)

When was dressing last changed?

d)

Are compression devices on?

17.

In ulcerative colitis, diarrhea is typically:

a)

Bloody

b)

Green frothy

c)

Clay colored

d)

Fatty gray

18.

Ongoing rectal bleeding causes what symptom?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Fatigue/light-headedness

c)

Joint stiffness only

d)

Urinary retention

19.

After a barium enema, what should the client be instructed to do?

a)

Avoid fluids for 24 hours

b)

Limit fluids

c)

Resume normal fluids

d)

Drink extra fluids

20.

In pancreatitis, which diet is expected on admission?

a)

Regular diet

b)

Low fat

c)

Clear liquids

d)

NPO

21.

During bladder training, the nurse obtains a prescription for an external catheter. What is the MOST important part of care?

a)

Keep the drainage bag above the bladder

b)

Use alcohol wipes to cleanse the skin

c)

Frequently assess for skin breakdown

d)

Remove and replace every 3 days

22.

Which complication of immobility is the nurse MOST concerned about due to risk of obstructed venous return?

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Venous thromboembolism

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Hypertension

23.

An immobile client is ordered SCDs. What is the purpose?

a)

Reduce edema

b)

Prevent skin breakdown

c)

Promote venous blood flow to prevent clots

d)

Strengthen leg muscles

24.

A client with Parkinson-related shuffling gait needs safety teaching. Which instruction is correct?

a)

Encourage the client to take small steps and keep feet apart when walking.

b)

Advise the client to walk quickly to avoid freezing.

c)

Suggest the client to walk with hands in pockets.

d)

Tell the client to look down at their feet while walking.

25.

Which instruction is correct for a client with Parkinson's when walking?

a)

Look down at your feet when walking

b)

Keep arms stiff at sides

c)

Walk with a wide-based stance

d)

Take long steps to increase stride length

26.

A client with Parkinson’s tends to lean forward while ambulating. Which instruction improves safety?

a)

Take rapid steps

b)

Increase arm swing

c)

Use a toe-heel gait pattern

d)

Walk backward first to gain balance

27.

A Parkinson’s client has difficulty starting movement from a chair. This is best described as:

a)

Hemiparesis

b)

Bradykinesia

c)

Hyperreflexia

d)

Spasticity

28.

The nurse observes a Parkinson’s client with slow speech and difficulty communicating. Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate?

a)

Risk for infection

b)

Impaired verbal communication

c)

Unilateral neglect

d)

Altered sensory perception

29.

A client shows difficulty swallowing associated with Parkinson’s disease. What diet adjustment is appropriate?

a)

Thin liquids only

b)

High-fiber raw vegetables

c)

Soft foods and thickened liquids

d)

Dry crackers and nuts

30.

After abdominal surgery, the client develops absent bowel sounds and abdominal distention. What is the likely condition?

a)

Liver failure

b)

Paralytic ileus

c)

Cholecystitis

d)

Bowel perforation

31.

Priority management for paralytic ileus includes:

a)

Increase oral intake

b)

Administer antidiarrheals

c)

Keep NPO and insert NG tube

d)

Give stimulant laxatives early

32.

A client with pancreatitis reports severe LUQ pain radiating to the back. Which assessment supports this diagnosis?

a)

Pain relieved with eating

b)

Pain worsens with eating

c)

Pain relieved by lying flat

d)

Pain only at night

33.

For acute pancreatitis, which intervention reduces pancreatic stimulation?

a)

Encourage small frequent meals

b)

Provide low-fat snacks

c)

Keep the client NPO

d)

Increase oral hydration

34.

NG tube to low intermittent suction is used in pancreatitis to:

a)

Increase bowel motility

b)

Reduce HCl and pancreatic stimulation

c)

Reduce urine output

d)

Treat hyperkalemia

35.

Which finding indicates improvement in pancreatitis?

a)

Increasing abdominal distention

b)

Diminished bowel sounds

c)

Decreased pain and nausea

d)

Persistent vomiting

36.

In ulcerative colitis, what complication can occur due to inability to absorb water and electrolytes?

a)

Metabolic alkalosis

b)

Fluid and electrolyte imbalance

c)

Hypervolemia

d)

Kidney stones

37.

Which dietary recommendation is appropriate during a UC flare?

a)

High-fiber diet

b)

Raw vegetables and fruits

c)

High-calorie, high-protein, low-fiber diet

d)

High-fat diet

38.

A client with UC reports joint pain and eye sensitivity to light. The nurse explains:

a)

These are unrelated symptoms

b)

These are expected extraintestinal manifestations

c)

These indicate kidney involvement only

d)

These occur only with Crohn’s disease

39.

For a stool guaiac test, which instruction is correct?

a)

Avoid red meat for 3 days before testing

b)

Increase Vitamin C intake

c)

Eat citrus fruits before the test

d)

Restrict fluids for 24 hours

40.

After a barium enema, which statement indicates correct teaching?

a)

I should avoid liquids today.

b)

I should expect white stools and drink extra fluids.

c)

I will remain NPO for 12 hours.

d)

I should avoid all movement to prevent cramping.

41.

A client with malabsorption from IBD has low albumin. This indicates:

a)

Adequate protein stores

b)

Excessive protein intake

c)

Poor nutritional status

d)

Normal metabolism

42.

A client with immobility is at risk for constipation. What is the BEST prevention strategy?

a)

Decrease fluid intake

b)

Increase fiber and fluids

c)

Provide antidiarrheals

d)

Encourage bed rest

43.

Which factor MOST contributes to postoperative constipation?

a)

Hypothermia

b)

Opioid analgesics (correct)

44.

A nurse notes a distended abdomen, nausea, and absent bowel sounds in a postop client. What is the priority?

a)

Encourage the client to ambulate

b)

Give ice chips

c)

Keep NPO and notify the provider

d)

Provide a high-fiber meal

45.

A client with Parkinson’s disease demonstrates shuffling gait. Which nursing instruction improves safety?

a)

Take large steps

b)

Walk at a faster pace

c)

Use a wide-based stance

d)

Lean forward when walking

46.

Which characteristic of Parkinson’s disease directly contributes to fall risk?

a)

Increased blinking

b)

Muscle rigidity

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Fine motor tremors only

47.

A Parkinson’s client struggles with initiation of movement. The nurse recognizes this as:

(a)  

48.

What is the MOST effective intervention to prevent skin breakdown in an incontinent client?

a)

Apply talcum powder

b)

Clean with harsh soap

c)

Clean with mild soap and water, then apply barrier ointment

d)

Keep the area open to air only

49.

During bladder training, which finding indicates improvement?

a)

Increased frequency at night

b)

Decreased episodes of incontinence

c)

Dark, concentrated urine

d)

Needing to void every hour

50.

A client is unable to reach the toilet in time due to weakness after surgery. This type of incontinence is:

a)

Stress

b)

Urge

c)

Overflow

d)

Functional

51.

Which instruction should be provided to the UAP assisting with bladder training?

4 lines
52.

A client with a UTI asks why hydration is important. The nurse explains that fluids:

a)

Decrease urine pH

b)

Dilute urine and help flush bacteria

c)

Eliminate the need for antibiotics

d)

Reduce kidney function

53.

Which manifestation of pyelonephritis differentiates it from a lower UTI?

a)

Dysuria

b)

Frequency

c)

Flank pain and fever

d)

Cloudy urine

54.

The nurse teaches prevention of recurrent UTIs. Which instruction is correct?

a)

Take bubble baths regularly

b)

Void every 3–4 hours

c)

Avoid drinking water at night only

d)

Restrict all caffeine permanently

55.

Which manifestation is common in older adults with UTIs?

a)

Confusion

b)

Hematuria

c)

Rash

d)

Chest pain

56.

A client shows weak urine stream and lower abdominal fullness. This indicates:

a)

Urge incontinence

b)

Stress incontinence

c)

Urinary retention

d)

Polyuria

57.

In urinary retention, which finding requires immediate intervention?

a)

Frequent small voids

b)

Palpable bladder distention

c)

Clear yellow urine

d)

Decreased postvoid residual

58.

When preparing to insert a male catheter, the nurse first:

a)

Advance the catheter 6 inches

b)

Put on sterile gloves

c)

Clean perineal area with soap and water

d)

Inflate the balloon to test it

59.

Which complication is associated with indwelling catheters?

(a)  

60.

Cognitive changes

a)

Cognitive changes

b)

Severe flank pain always

c)

Pain-free urination

61.

Which of the following is a common complication associated with urinary catheters?

a)

Diabetes

b)

CAUTI

c)

Hypertension

d)

Polycythemia

62.

A client with UC is ordered to increase caloric intake. Which diet is appropriate?

a)

High fat, high fiber

b)

High protein, high calorie, low fiber

c)

High dairy

d)

High raw vegetables

63.

A client with pancreatitis is NPO. The purpose of NPO status is to:

a)

Reduce liver workload

b)

Prevent aspiration

c)

Reduce pancreatic enzyme secretion

d)

Prevent electrolyte loss

64.

Which finding requires the nurse to stop bladder training and reassess the client?

a)

Sudden onset of severe lower abdominal pain

b)

Gradual increase in urine output

c)

Mild discomfort during voiding

d)

Slightly cloudy urine

65.

Select the correct answer.

a)

Client reports mild urgency

b)

Client voids small amounts frequently

c)

Client develops skin redness or irritation

d)

Client needs help to reach toilet

66.

A client experiencing nocturia asks why it occurs. The nurse explains:

a)

It is caused by diabetes

b)

It is only seen in urinary retention

c)

It is defined as frequent urination at night

d)

It is caused by dehydration

67.

A client with stress incontinence leaks urine when coughing. What is the cause?

a)

Bladder overdistention

b)

Sudden increase in intraabdominal pressure

c)

Neurologic injury

d)

Complete loss of sphincter control

68.

Which client statement indicates understanding of functional incontinence?

a)

My bladder contracts without warning.

b)

I leak urine because I can’t reach the toilet in time.

c)

I leak only with coughing.

d)

My bladder is always full.

69.

A client is placed on anticholinergic therapy for urge incontinence. Which side effect is expected?

a)

Dry mouth

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Increased sweating

d)

Insomnia

70.

Which of the following is a common side effect?

a)

Frequent urination

b)

Dry mouth

c)

Increased diarrhea

d)

Wet skin

71.

During assessment, the nurse notes cloudy urine, frequency, and dysuria. These findings indicate:

a)

Pyelonephritis

b)

Lower urinary tract infection

c)

Stress incontinence

d)

Overflow retention

72.

Which nursing intervention prevents UTI in a female client?

a)

Wipe back to front

b)

Limit fluids to prevent frequency

c)

Avoid voiding after intercourse

d)

Wipe from front to back (correct)

73.

A client with urinary retention may experience which finding?

a)

Constant dribbling of urine

b)

Dysuria only

c)

Dark green urine

d)

Frequent large voids

74.

The nurse palpates a full bladder after the client reports inability to void. What is the priority?

a)

Notify the healthcare provider immediately

b)

Encourage the client to drink more fluids

c)

Assist the client to the bathroom

d)

Perform a bladder scan and prepare for catheterization

75.

Which intervention is appropriate for a client with suspected urinary retention?

a)

Encourage oral fluids

b)

Apply heat to the abdomen

c)

Obtain a bladder scan

d)

Give diuretics

76.

A client receiving an indwelling catheter asks how to prevent infection. The best response is:

a)

Disconnect the tubing daily.

b)

Keep the drainage bag below the bladder.

c)

Apply powder around the catheter.

d)

Clamp the tubing at night.

77.

The nurse observes fever, costovertebral angle tenderness, and chills. These are signs of:

a)

Lower UTI

b)

Pyelonephritis

c)

Bladder cancer

d)

Kidney stones only

78.

Which finding is most concerning in pancreatitis?

a)

Pain relieved by food

b)

LUQ pain radiating to the back

c)

Normal bowel sounds

d)

Increased appetite

79.

A client with pancreatitis has nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distention. Which intervention is appropriate?

a)

Encourage oral fluids

b)

Apply heat to the abdomen

c)

Obtain a bladder scan

d)

Give diuretics

80.

Which intervention is appropriate for a client with acute pancreatitis?

a)

Encourage high-fiber diet

b)

Keep NPO with NG suction

c)

Promote early ambulation

d)

Encourage carbonated beverages

81.

Which complication of acute pancreatitis can impair lung function?

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Cataracts

c)

Hypertension

d)

Enlarged liver only

82.

A UC client reports 8–10 bloody stools per day. Which complication is a priority?

a)

COPD

b)

Anemia

c)

Kidney stones

d)

Hepatic encephalopathy

83.

Which statement shows understanding of UC diet education?

a)

I will eat high-fiber raw vegetables.

b)

I will increase spicy foods.

c)

I will follow a high-calorie, high-protein, low-fiber diet during flares.

d)

I will drink alcohol with meals.

84.

A client with Crohn’s disease has weight loss and malabsorption. Which assessment finding supports this?

a)

Steatorrhea

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Hypertension

d)

Jaundice

85.

Which of the following is a common finding in a client with ulcerative colitis (UC)?

a)

Elevated albumin

b)

Normal appetite

c)

Low albumin

d)

Decreased bowel movements

86.

Which intervention helps reduce inflammation during an acute UC flare?

a)

Encourage raw fruits

b)

Provide high-fat meals

c)

Administer prescribed corticosteroids

d)

Avoid all protein sources

87.

A nurse teaches a client with UC collecting stool samples. Which instruction is correct?

a)

Avoid Vitamin C before testing

b)

Avoid fluids

c)

Increase red meat intake

d)

Avoid all carbohydrates

88.

After a barium enema, the client reports white stools. How should the nurse respond?

a)

This is abnormal—return immediately.

b)

This is expected; drink extra fluids.

c)

You must avoid fluids today.

d)

You should expect black, tarry stools.