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test 1

Total questions: 84

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Therapeutic communication: What types of questions or statements are therapeutic?

a)

Statements that focus on improving the health of the client

b)

Closed-ended questions that limit patient responses

c)

Directions that tell the patient what to do

d)

Judgmental statements that evaluate the patient

2.

Therapeutic communication: What type of questions do we ask starting the interview to learn the patient's concern?

a)

Open-ended questions

b)

Yes/no questions

c)

Leading questions

d)

Multiple-choice questions

3.

Therapeutic communication: What types of questions or statements are nontherapeutic?

a)

Asking personal questions or giving personal opinions

b)

Advising or telling the patient what to do

c)

Defending a person, place, or idea from verbal attack

d)

Disagreeing, opposing the patient’s expressed idea, or interpreting what they mean

4.

Therapeutic communication: What types of nonverbal communication are therapeutic?

a)

Silence

b)

Active listening

c)

Eye contact

d)

Exploring and confronting

5.

Therapeutic communication: What types of nonverbal communication are nontherapeutic?

a)

Looking at one’s watch during the interaction

b)

Crossing arms across one’s chest

c)

Not actively listening

d)

Turning away while the patient speaks

6.

Patient rights and ethic: What does autonomy mean?

a)

Freedom to provide input and apply professional knowledge to patient care and clinical decision-making

b)

Making decisions solely based on provider preferences

c)

Obeying all instructions without question

d)

Prioritizing organizational policy over patient wishes

7.

Patient rights and ethic: How do we promote veracity?

a)

Telling the truth and providing patients with the truth even when it may lead to patient distress

b)

Avoiding difficult information to protect the patient

c)

Delegating disclosure to non-clinical staff

d)

Waiting until discharge to discuss critical information

8.

Patient rights and ethic: How do we provide advocacy as nurses?

a)

Preserving human dignity

b)

Speaking on behalf of patients

c)

Promoting human rights and equality

d)

Following only physician orders

9.

Delegation: What’s the first thing you should do if the UAP reports abnormal vital signs or blood glucose?

a)

Validate and reassess

b)

Document immediately without verification

c)

Notify the family first

d)

Order new medications

10.

Delegation: Which tasks can safely be delegated to the UAP or LPN?

a)

Vital signs

b)

Pain reports

c)

Fingerstick blood glucose

d)

Initial nursing assessment

11.

Delegation: Which tasks cannot be delegated?

a)

Any intervention that requires independent, specialized nursing knowledge, skill, or judgment

b)

Routine bathing and feeding

c)

Transporting stable patients

d)

Recording intake and output

12.

Delegation: What document can help guide delegation by outlining scope of practice?

a)

Nurse Practice Act (NPA)

b)

Hospital visitor policy

c)

Shift assignment sheet

d)

Medication administration record

13.

Interprofessional team: What is the biggest strategy to promote interprofessional collaboration?

a)

Communicate effectively and respectfully with interprofessional team members

b)

Hold separate meetings without other disciplines

c)

Use discipline-specific jargon exclusively

d)

Limit communication to written notes

14.

Interprofessional team: What strategies promote effective communication among the multidisciplinary team?

a)

Ensure the strategies you usually use are culturally appropriate for the individual

b)

Assume all patients prefer the same communication style

c)

Avoid adapting to cultural preferences

d)

Communicate only through electronic messages

15.

Interprofessional team: What is the role of each inter-professional team member?

a)

Seek common understanding when communicating across roles and professions

b)

Focus only on discipline-specific goals

c)

Rely on one leader to speak for all members

d)

Avoid clarifying roles during care

16.

HIPAA: What is our role and responsibility in the protection of HIPAA rights?

a)

Put safeguards in place to protect health information and ensure it is not used or disclosed improperly

b)

Share patient information with any staff who request it

c)

Store patient information on personal devices for convenience

d)

Release information to family without verification

17.

HIPAA: What must we get before divulging patient information over the phone?

a)

Patient information such as name and date of birth and confirmation of the authorized third party

b)

Verbal permission from any caller

c)

The patient’s room number only

d)

A general consent signed at admission without further checks

18.

HIPAA: When do we notify patients of HIPAA rights?

a)

Before treatment

b)

At discharge only

c)

Only if the patient requests it

d)

After the first follow-up visit

19.

HIPAA: Do patients need to sign something after we notify them of HIPAA rights, or can a patient refuse to sign the form and still receive treatment?

a)

Patients may refuse to sign and still receive treatment

b)

Patients must sign or treatment is withheld

c)

Only emergency care can be given without a signature

d)

Signatures are unnecessary for any care

20.

Professional boundaries: In the interest of maintaining professional boundaries with our patients, what should we limit?

a)

Sharing personal business and pursuing sexual or close emotional relationships with patients or those close to them

b)

Discussing evidence-based care plans

c)

Clarifying medication instructions

d)

Educating on discharge needs

21.

Professional boundaries: In the interest of maintaining professional boundaries with our patients, what should we encourage our patients to do (which ethical concept)?

a)

Autonomy

b)

Paternalism

c)

Secrecy

d)

Dependency

22.

Nursing process: Which step of the nursing process provides the tools necessary to develop an individualized care plan?

a)

Assessment

b)

Diagnosis

c)

Planning

d)

Implementation

23.

Nursing process: What does client-centered care mean?

a)

Focuses on the patient and their particular health care needs; encourages patient participation in care to achieve nursing standards

b)

Focuses primarily on organizational efficiency and staffing needs

c)

Centers on provider preferences and clinical routines

d)

Relies on standardized protocols without patient input

24.

Nursing process: What tasks or processes are involved in each step of the nursing process?

a)

Assessment: collect, categorize, record data and interview; Diagnosis: identify health problems and risk factors; Planning: select standardized plans, set outcomes/goals and individualized interventions; Implementation: do, delegate, record; Evaluation: evaluate outcomes and care plan

b)

Assessment: write orders; Diagnosis: choose medications; Planning: schedule staff; Implementation: transfer patients; Evaluation: audit billing

c)

Assessment: interpret labs only; Diagnosis: physician-only task; Planning: no goals; Implementation: documentation only; Evaluation: optional

d)

Assessment: visual inspection only; Diagnosis: patient self-labeling; Planning: remove goals; Implementation: avoid delegation; Evaluation: discontinue care regardless of outcomes

25.

Nursing process: What is the order of the nursing process?

a)

Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation

b)

Diagnosis, Assessment, Planning, Evaluation, Implementation

c)

Planning, Implementation, Assessment, Diagnosis, Evaluation

d)

Assessment, Planning, Diagnosis, Implementation, Evaluation

26.

Documentation: In addition to accuracy and completeness, what is important to ensure in our documentation?

a)

Write the patient’s own words when possible and record only the most important patient words using concrete, specific information

b)

Paraphrase extensively and avoid patient quotes

c)

Document every detail regardless of relevance

d)

Use vague general statements to save time

27.

Documentation: If we get behind in a nursing task (such as q4h vitals), should we document the vitals when they were taken or when they were due to be checked?

a)

Document when they were taken

b)

Document when they were due

c)

Do not document late vitals

d)

Estimate times based on unit schedule

28.

Documentation: What is the difference between subjective and objective data?

a)

Subjective data is what the patient says; objective data is what can be observed or measured

b)

Subjective data comes from lab tests; objective data comes from patient report

c)

Subjective data is always unreliable; objective data is always accurate

d)

Subjective data is identical to the review of systems; objective data is identical to diagnoses

29.

Documentation: Why is it important to make sure use of herbal supplements is documented?

a)

Herbal products are unregulated, often mislabeled, may contain undisclosed additives or contaminants, can interact with conventional drugs, and may be toxic if used improperly or at high doses

b)

Herbal products are always safe and require no documentation

c)

Documentation of supplements is optional and rarely clinically relevant

d)

Herbal products cannot cause allergic reactions

30.

Standards of practice and code of ethics: Is the ANA code of ethics legally enforced?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Only in federal facilities

d)

Only for advanced practice nurses

31.

Standards of practice and code of ethics: What does the code of ethics provide?

a)

Behavior and integrity guidance

b)

Billing and reimbursement rules

c)

Medication dosing standards

d)

Unit staffing ratios

32.

Standards of practice and code of ethics: What is practical knowledge vs theoretical knowledge?

a)

Practical knowledge involves exercising a skill; theoretical knowledge focuses on understanding concepts and guiding actions and steps to follow

b)

Practical knowledge is memorizing facts; theoretical knowledge is performing tasks

c)

Practical knowledge is optional; theoretical knowledge is mandatory

d)

Practical knowledge applies only to procedures; theoretical knowledge applies only to ethics

33.

Standards of practice and code of ethics: What are standards of practice and what do they encourage?

a)

They direct and maintain safe and clinically competent nursing practice and promote and guide clinical practice, encouraging safety and competence

b)

They primarily regulate hospital finances

c)

They serve only as historical documents

d)

They discourage clinical judgment

34.

Standards of practice and code of ethics: Which regulatory agency is affiliated with the nurse practice act?

a)

The Board of Nursing

b)

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

c)

Food and Drug Administration

d)

Department of Labor

35.

Standards of practice and code of ethics: What is the difference between standards of practice and the nurse practice act?

a)

Standards of practice provide guidelines for nursing practice; the nurse practice act is a set of state statutes defining scope of practice, education standards, licensure requirements, and grounds for disciplinary actions

b)

Both are identical and interchangeable

c)

Standards of practice are legal statutes; the nurse practice act is voluntary guidance

d)

The nurse practice act applies only to hospitals, while standards apply only to clinics

36.

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs and prioritization: Which needs are typically prominent for patients during end-of-life?

a)

Love and belonging

b)

Physical comfort

c)

Mental and emotional needs

d)

Spiritual needs and practical tasks

37.

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs and prioritization: What does the ABC acronym stand for in the ABC prioritization method?

a)

Airway, Breathing, Circulation

b)

Airway, Blood pressure, Consciousness

c)

Assessment, Basics, Care plan

d)

Alertness, Breathing, Compression

38.

What are safety and security needs? Select all that apply.

a)

Protection

b)

Emotional and physical support

c)

Order and law

d)

Stability

e)

Shelter

39.

Which list correctly shows the order of needs from bottom to top?

a)

Physiological; Safety and security; Love and belonging; Self-esteem; Cognitive; Aesthetic; Self-actualization; Transcendence

b)

Physiological; Love and belonging; Safety and security; Self-esteem; Aesthetic; Cognitive; Self-actualization; Transcendence

c)

Safety and security; Physiological; Love and belonging; Self-esteem; Cognitive; Aesthetic; Self-actualization; Transcendence

d)

Physiological; Safety and security; Self-esteem; Love and belonging; Cognitive; Aesthetic; Transcendence; Self-actualization

40.

What does the medical abbreviation BID mean?

a)

Twice a day

b)

Three times a day

c)

Four times a day

d)

As needed

41.

What does the medical abbreviation TID mean?

a)

Three times a day

b)

Twice a day

c)

Four times a day

d)

By mouth

42.

What does the medical abbreviation QID mean?

a)

Four times a day

b)

Three times a day

c)

Every

d)

As needed

43.

What does the medical abbreviation PO mean?

a)

By mouth

b)

As needed

c)

Every

d)

Twice a day

44.

What does the medical abbreviation Q mean?

a)

Every

b)

By mouth

c)

As needed

d)

Four times a day

45.

What does the medical abbreviation PRN mean?

a)

As needed

b)

By mouth

c)

Every

d)

Three times a day

46.

Convert the dose: 1 oz equals how many milliliters?

a)

30 ml

b)

15 ml

c)

5 ml

d)

60 ml

47.

Convert the mass: 1 kg equals how many pounds?

a)

2.2 lbs

b)

1.0 lb

c)

3.3 lbs

d)

0.45 lb

48.

Convert the volume: 1 tbs equals how many milliliters?

a)

5 ml

b)

10 ml

c)

15 ml

d)

30 ml

49.

When do we discontinue use of restraints?

a)

After 4 hours for adults and after 2 hours for children, as prescribed

b)

Only when the patient requests removal

c)

After 8 hours for adults and 4 hours for children

d)

At the end of the nurse’s shift

50.

What is a priority nursing task to minimize risks for restrained patients?

a)

Ensure restraint movement is allowed a little, fit properly and discreetly, and are easy to remove or change

b)

Immobilize the patient completely to prevent any movement

c)

Place restraints loosely so they can be slipped off if uncomfortable

d)

Hide restraints under blankets so they are not visible

51.

How do we safely identify a patient?

a)

Verify name and date of birth using the wristband

b)

Ask the roommate to confirm the patient’s identity

c)

Use the patient’s room number

d)

Check the patient’s diagnosis

52.

What should you do if you have two patients with the same name?

a)

Verify with date of birth

b)

Assign a temporary nickname

c)

Use the bed number to distinguish them

d)

Proceed without further checks

53.

Where do we place identification bands?

a)

On the wrist

b)

On the ankle

c)

On the IV line

d)

In the chart pocket

54.

What’s the second-best place to place identification bands in the event of multiple injuries?

a)

On the bed

b)

On the neck

c)

On the wheelchair

d)

On the door

55.

What can increase the risk of falls? Select all that apply.

a)

Slippery floors

b)

Stairs

c)

Low toilet seats

d)

High bed

56.

Which step of the nursing process helps identify risk factors for safety concerns?

a)

Diagnosis

b)

Planning

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

57.

How can we prevent falling hazards in a patient’s room? Select all that apply.

a)

Use of call light

b)

Fall risk alerts

c)

Hourly rounds

58.

How else can we prevent falling hazards in a patient’s room? Select all that apply.

a)

Place the bedside near the nursing station when appropriate

b)

Keep the floor clean and dry

c)

Use adequate light

59.

If a patient is a very high fall risk, what can we do as a precaution?

a)

Activate a bed alarm

b)

Apply wrist restraints

c)

Lower room temperature

d)

Restrict fluids

60.

What precautions do we take for a patient at risk for seizures? Select all that apply.

a)

Rails up and padded

b)

Bed low

c)

Dim the lights at all times

d)

Keep the door locked

61.

What precautions can we take to promote fire safety at home? Select all that apply.

a)

Smoke detectors

b)

Caution with cigarette use

c)

Do not leave candles unattended

d)

Use holiday lights safely

e)

Take care with electric cords

62.

What is the first thing you should do if you experience a fire at home?

a)

Call 911

b)

Search the house for valuables

c)

Take a shower

d)

Open all windows

63.

How do we minimize smoke inhalation during fire evacuation? Select all that apply.

a)

Stay calm

b)

Have a window open if possible

c)

Keep mouth and nose covered

64.

What is the first thing you should do if you get a needlestick injury? Select all that apply.

a)

Wash the area

b)

Complete an incident report

c)

Ignore if there is no bleeding

d)

Wait until the end of the shift to report

65.

What is the best way to provide culturally competent care? Select all that apply.

a)

Provide interpreter services

b)

Recruit and retain minority staff

c)

Provide training to increase cultural awareness, knowledge, and skills

66.

How do we practice cultural awareness? Select all that apply.

a)

Promote cultural literacy and awareness through learning opportunities

b)

Educate on cultural norms, customs, and etiquette

c)

Provide language training and cross-cultural communication skills

67.

How do we communicate with a patient using an interpreter? Select all that apply.

a)

Speak directly to the patient, not to the interpreter

b)

Speak more slowly rather than more loudly and use short segments at an even pace

c)

Pause so the interpreter can interpret

68.

How do we respond to patients’ beliefs about alternative medicine? Select all that apply.

a)

Ask; patients will tell

b)

Explain the science

c)

Be respectful and nonjudgmental

69.

How else should we respond to patients’ beliefs about alternative medicine? Select all that apply.

a)

Collaborate

b)

Compromise and negotiate

c)

Engage the individual in conversation about their practices using open-ended questions

70.

Can we allow patients to utilize alternative medicine instead of conventional (“Western”) medicine?

a)

Yes

b)

No

71.

What type of questions assess learning needs and start conversations?

a)

Open-ended questions

b)

Yes/no questions

c)

Leading questions

d)

Rhetorical questions

72.

What is the best way to ensure our teaching is adequate? Select all that apply.

a)

Communicate clearly

b)

Involve family members

c)

Address strengths and limitations

73.

What should we teach patients about obtaining information from the internet?

a)

Some of the information could be misleading

b)

All online sources are reliable

c)

Only government websites are misleading

d)

Information online is always better than what clinicians provide

74.

How do we accommodate patients with sensory impairments? Select all that apply.

a)

Turn your face toward the person and ensure it is well-lit so lip movements can be seen

b)

Do not shout or over-exaggerate words or lip movements

c)

Speak clearly and slightly slower while keeping natural rhythms

75.

Which screenings are recommended for children? Select all that apply.

a)

Annual examinations

b)

Growth

c)

Development

d)

Cognitive skills

e)

Abuse

76.

Which screenings are recommended for adolescents? Select all that apply.

a)

Annual exams

b)

Growth and development

c)

Mental health, stress, alcohol, and drug

77.

Which screenings are recommended for young adults? Select all that apply.

a)

Comprehensive exam at least every 3 years

b)

Pap smear

c)

STI screenings

78.

Which screenings are recommended for older adults? Select all that apply.

a)

Functional skills

b)

Hearing

c)

Fall risk

79.

Which additional screenings are recommended for older adults? Select all that apply.

a)

Eye exam

b)

BP

c)

Blood glucose

80.

Which level of prevention involves screening for early detection and treatment?

a)

Secondary

b)

Primary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

81.

Which level of prevention aims to prevent disease before it develops?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

82.

Which level of prevention minimizes further complications or restores health?

a)

Tertiary (Rehab)

b)

Primary

c)

Secondary

d)

Preventive counseling

83.

What must be documented upon admission? Select all that apply.

a)

Vital signs

b)

Labs

c)

Medical history

d)

Present illness

e)

Findings

84.

What needs should we address before safely discharging a patient? Select all that apply.

a)

Written instructions

b)

Step-by-step instructions for procedures at home

c)

Names and numbers of providers and community services

d)

Plans for follow-up