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Anatomy and Physiology Worksheet Questions (Grade 13)

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient is lying on their back during a surgical procedure. In anatomical terminology, this position is called:

a)

Prone

b)

Supine

c)

Lateral decubitus

d)

Trendelenburg

e)

Lithotomy

2.

An MRI technician is asked to provide a view that divides the body into equal right and left halves. Which plane should be used?

a)

Coronal plane

b)

Horizontal plane

c)

Median (Midsagittal) plane

d)

Paramedian plane

e)

Transverse plane

3.

A surgeon making an appendectomy incision cuts through the skin and then the fatty layer of superficial fascia. This fatty layer is also known as:

a)

Camper’s fascia

b)

Scarpa’s fascia

c)

Deep fascia

d)

Investing fascia

e)

Epimysium

4.

A 25-year-old female presents with a "sebaceous cyst" on her back. This cyst is caused by the obstruction of a duct in which gland?

a)

Eccrine sweat gland

b)

Apocrine sweat gland

c)

Sebaceous gland

d)

Mammary gland

e)

Ceruminous gland

5.

A surgeon plans an abdominal incision and chooses to cut parallel to the "Lines of Cleavage" to ensure minimal scarring. These lines are determined by the orientation of:

a)

Elastic fibers in the epidermis

b)

Collagen fibers in the dermis

c)

Muscle fibers in the deep fascia

d)

Fat cells in the superficial fascia

e)

Keratinocytes in the stratum basale

6.

A patient has a deep laceration on the thigh. The physician notes that the "Deep Fascia" is intact. What is a primary function of deep fascia?

a)

Storage of fat

b)

Thermal insulation

c)

Enclosing muscles and forming intermuscular septa

d)

Providing a pathway for cutaneous nerves

e)

Producing Vitamin D

7.

In a 3rd-degree burn, which of the following is true?

a)

Only the epidermis is involved

b)

Sensation is increased due to nerve irritation

c)

The entire thickness of the skin (epidermis and dermis) is destroyed

d)

It heals without scarring

e)

It is also called a superficial burn

8.

A medical student is asked to identify the "Anatomical Position." Which of the following is a feature of this position?

a)

Feet together, palms facing the thighs

b)

Standing erect, palms facing anteriorly

c)

Lying supine, arms at sides

d)

Head turned to the side

e)

Arms abducted 90 degrees

9.

A patient has a "Paronychia." Where is this infection located?

a)

Hair follicle

b)

Sweat gland

c)

Nail fold

d)

Sebaceous gland

e)

Deep fascia

10.

A "Carbuncle" is a skin infection that typically involves:

a)

Only the epidermis

b)

A single hair follicle

c)

Multiple hair follicles and the superficial fascia

d)

The underlying bone

e)

The nail bed

11.

A 10-year-old boy has an infection in the metaphysis of his tibia. Why is this site most prone to osteomyelitis in children?

a)

Lack of periosteum

b)

Sluggish blood flow in hair-pin capillary loops

c)

Presence of yellow marrow

d)

Thinner cortex

e)

Lack of nutrient foramen

12.

A radiograph of a child shows a separate piece of bone at the end of a long bone. This is the:

a)

Diaphysis

b)

Metaphysis

c)

Epiphysis

d)

Medullary cavity

e)

Periosteum

13.

Which bone is classified as a "Sesamoid bone"?

a)

Scapula

b)

Patella

c)

Parietal bone

d)

Humerus

e)

Vertebra

14.

A "Pneumatic bone" is characterized by:

a)

Being very heavy

b)

Containing air-filled sinus cavities

c)

Being found only in the limbs

d)

Forming within a tendon

e)

Having no blood supply

15.

A fracture occurs at the "growing end" of the humerus. In the upper limb, the growing ends are:

a)

Elbow ends

b)

Away from the elbow (Upper humerus, Lower radius/ulna)

c)

Only at the proximal ends

d)

Only at the distal ends

e)

In the mid-shaft

16.

The nutrient artery of a long bone generally:

a)

Points toward the growing end

b)

Points away from the growing end

c)

Enters through the articular cartilage

d)

Supplies only the epiphysis

e)

Is the only blood supply to the bone

17.

A patient has a fracture. During healing, the specialized connective tissue that bridges the gap between bone ends is called:

a)

Periosteum

b)

Callus

c)

Osteon

d)

Epiphyseal plate

e)

Chondrocyte

18.

Which of the following is an example of a "Flat bone"?

a)

Femur

b)

Carpals

c)

Scapula

d)

Patella

e)

Maxilla

19.

"Heterotopic bones" are bones that:

a)

Are found in the skull sutures

b)

Contain air sinuses

c)

Form in soft tissues where they don't belong (e.g., following chronic trauma)

d)

Are part of the axial skeleton

e)

Ossify from a single center

20.

The "Epiphyseal Plate" is responsible for:

a)

Bone girth increase

b)

Longitudinal growth of bone

c)

Protection of the marrow cavity

d)

Healing of fractures in adults

e)

Mineral storage only

21.

Which type of cartilage is found on the articular surfaces of most synovial joints?

a)

Elastic cartilage

b)

Fibrocartilage

c)

Hyaline cartilage

d)

Calcified cartilage

e)

Yellow cartilage

22.

The "Intervertebral Discs" are primarily composed of:

a)

Hyaline cartilage

b)

Elastic cartilage

c)

Fibrocartilage

d)

Articular cartilage

e)

Spongy bone

23.

The pinna of the ear can be folded and returns to its shape because it contains:

a)

Hyaline cartilage

b)

Fibrocartilage

c)

Elastic cartilage

d)

Compact bone

e)

Deep fascia

24.

Cartilage is generally characterized by being:

a)

Highly vascular

b)

Rich in nerve endings

c)

Avascular and receiving nutrients by diffusion

d)

Capable of rapid regeneration

e)

Made of osteocytes

25.

"Costal cartilages" (connecting ribs to the sternum) are made of:

a)

Fibrocartilage

b)

Elastic cartilage

c)

Hyaline cartilage

d)

Calcified bone

e)

Dense irregular tissue

26.

The "Sutures" of the skull are examples of which type of joint?

a)

Synovial joint

b)

Cartilaginous joint

c)

Fibrous joint

d)

Gomphosis

e)

Secondary cartilaginous

27.

A "Symphysis" (like the pubic symphysis) is classified as a:

a)

Primary cartilaginous joint

b)

Secondary cartilaginous joint

c)

Fibrous joint

d)

Synchondrosis

e)

Ball and socket joint

28.

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of all "Synovial joints"?

a)

Bones are joined by a disc of fibrocartilage

b)

Presence of a joint cavity containing synovial fluid

c)

No movement is possible

d)

Found only in the skull

e)

Absence of a capsule

29.

The "Hip Joint" is an example of which type of synovial joint?

a)

Hinge joint

b)

Pivot joint

c)

Ball and socket joint

d)

Saddle joint

e)

Plane joint

30.

What is the name of the law stating that the nerve supplying a joint also supplies the muscles moving the joint and the skin over it?

a)

Wolff’s Law

b)

Hilton’s Law

c)

Davis’s Law

d)

Bell-Magendie Law

e)

Sherrington’s Law

31.

The "Temporomandibular Joint" contains an intra-articular disc. This joint is:

a)

Fibrous

b)

Synovial

c)

Primary cartilaginous

d)

Syndesmosis

e)

Gomphosis

32.

Factors that stabilize a synovial joint include all EXCEPT:

a)

The shape of articular surfaces

b)

Strength of ligaments

c)

Tone of surrounding muscles

d)

Amount of synovial fluid

e)

Atmospheric pressure

33.

A "Gomphosis" is a specialized joint found between:

a)

Vertebrae

b)

Teeth and their sockets

c)

Radius and Ulna

d)

Ribs and Sternum

e)

Tibia and Fibula

34.

"Osteoarthritis" primarily involves the degeneration of:

a)

The fibrous capsule

b)

Articular hyaline cartilage

c)

The nutrient artery

d)

The yellow marrow

e)

The skin over the joint

35.

The elbow joint (humeroulnar) allows flexion and extension only. It is a:

a)

Pivot joint

b)

Hinge joint

c)

Plane joint

d)

Condyloid joint

e)

Saddle joint

36.

Which muscle type is characterized by being "Striated and Involuntary"?

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Smooth muscle

c)

Cardiac muscle

d)

Somatic muscle

e)

Multi-unit smooth muscle

37.

A muscle that acts to stabilize the origin of the prime mover so it can act efficiently is called a:

a)

Antagonist

b)

Synergist

c)

Fixator

d)

Agonist

e)

Neutralizer

38.

"Red muscle fibers" (Type I) are characterized by:

a)

Rapid contraction and quick fatigue

b)

High myoglobin content and resistance to fatigue

c)

Few mitochondria

d)

Being anaerobic

e)

Predominance in the hand muscles

39.

A "Multipennate" muscle, where fibers approach the tendon from many directions (like the deltoid), is designed for:

a)

Maximum range of motion

b)

Maximum strength/power

c)

High speed of contraction

d)

Minimal fatigue

e)

Stretching

40.

"Hypertrophy" of a muscle refers to:

a)

An increase in the number of muscle cells

b)

An increase in the size of existing muscle fibers

c)

Replacement of muscle by fat

d)

Loss of muscle tone

e)

Spontaneous twitching

41.

A patient has "Hemiplegia." This means they have:

a)

Paralysis of all four limbs

b)

Paralysis of one half of the body (left or right)

c)

Paralysis of both lower limbs

d)

Weakness of one limb

e)

Loss of sensation only

42.

The "Biceps Brachii" is named based on its:

a)

Shape

b)

Number of heads/origins

c)

Location

d)

Action

e)

Direction of fibers

43.

Smooth muscle is found in the:

a)

Heart

b)

Walls of the stomach and blood vessels

c)

Skeletal muscles of the leg

d)

Diaphragm

e)

Tongue

44.

Which structure acts as a friction-reducing cushion between a tendon and a bone?

a)

Deep fascia

b)

Synovial bursa

c)

Epimysium

d)

Ligament

e)

Aponeurosis

45.

"Quadriplegia" refers to paralysis of:

a)

Both legs

b)

One arm

c)

All four limbs

d)

The face

e)

The trunk only

46.

"End Arteries" are clinically important because their occlusion leads to:

a)

Increased blood flow to the area

b)

Development of collateral circulation

c)

Tissue death (Infarction)

d)

Venous congestion

e)

Lymphatic obstruction

47.

The "Portal Circulation" is a system where blood passes through:

a)

Two sets of capillaries before returning to the heart

b)

Only the lungs

c)

Valves in the arteries

d)

The lymphatic system

e)

The brain only

48.

An "Anastomosis" is:

a)

A blockage in a blood vessel

b)

A communication between two arteries or two veins

c)

A valve in a vein

d)

The wall of a capillary

e)

A type of lymphoid tissue

49.

"Lymphangitis" is defined as:

a)

Inflammation of the lymph nodes

b)

Inflammation of the lymphatic vessels

c)

Swelling due to lymph blockage

d)

Cancer of the lymph system

e)

Infection of lymphatics

50.

Large veins usually have valves to:

a)

Speed up blood flow

b)

Prevent backflow of blood

c)

Filter out bacteria

d)

Oxygenate the blood

e)

Protect the heart

51.

The "Thoracic Duct" is the largest:

a)

Artery

b)

Vein

c)

Lymphatic vessel

d)

Nerve

e)

Muscle

52.

A patient has swollen, painful lymph nodes in the neck. This condition is called:

a)

Lymphangitis

b)

Lymphedema

c)

Lymphadenitis

d)

Lymphoma

e)

Lymphocytosis

53.

Capillaries are the site of:

a)

High-pressure blood flow

b)

Gas and nutrient exchange

c)

Blood storage

d)

Pulse generation

e)

Valve action

54.

Which of the following is an "Elastic Artery"?

a)

Radial artery

b)

Femoral artery

c)

Aorta

d)

Brachial artery

e)

Popliteal artery

55.

The term "Tissue Fluid" refers to:

a)

Blood within the heart

b)

Fluid found in the interstitial spaces between cells

c)

Synovial fluid

d)

Cerebrospinal fluid

e)

Cytoplasm

56.

The functional unit of the nervous system is the:

a)

Nephron

b)

Neuron

c)

Neuroglia

d)

Axon

e)

Synapse

57.

Which cells produce the myelin sheath in the Central Nervous System (CNS)?

a)

Schwann cells

b)

Oligodendrocytes

c)

Astrocytes

d)

Microglia

e)

Ependymal cells

58.

The "Phrenic Nerve" arises from the cervical plexus. This plexus is formed by:

a)

Ventral rami of spinal nerves

b)

Dorsal rami of spinal nerves

c)

Cranial nerves

d)

Sympathetic ganglia

e)

Dorsal root ganglia

59.

Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell?

a)

CN I (Olfactory)

b)

CN II (Optic)

c)

CN V (Trigeminal)

d)

CN X (Vagus)

e)

CN VIII (Vestibulocochlear)

60.

A "Dermatome" is:

a)

A group of muscles supplied by one spinal nerve

b)

An area of skin supplied by one spinal nerve segment

c)

A type of skin cancer

d)

A surgical instrument for bone

e)

A layer of the heart

61.

The "Autonomic Nervous System" controls:

a)

Skeletal muscle contraction

b)

Conscious thought

c)

Involuntary functions (heart rate, digestion)

d)

Touch sensation

e)

Joint position sense

62.

There are ____ pairs of spinal nerves.

a)

12

b)

31

c)

24

d)

8

e)

10

63.

Which neuroglial cell acts as the "macrophage" (immune cell) of the CNS?

a)

Astrocyte

b)

Microglia

c)

Ependymal cell

d)

Oligodendrocyte

e)

Schwann cell

64.

A patient has damage to the "Ventral Root" of a spinal nerve. What will be the primary deficit?

a)

Loss of sensation

b)

Loss of motor function

c)

Loss of both motor and sensation

d)

Loss of coordination

e)

Loss of reflexes only

65.

The "Vagus Nerve" is Cranial Nerve number:

a)

VII

b)

IX

c)

X

d)

XI

e)

XII

66.

A "Myotome" refers to:

a)

The skin supplied by a spinal nerve

b)

The group of muscles supplied by a single spinal nerve

c)

The bone supplied by a spinal nerve

d)

The blood vessel supplied by a nerve

e)

A tumor of the muscle

67.

Which cells line the ventricles of the brain and produce CSF?

a)

Astrocytes

b)

Oligodendrocytes

c)

Ependymal cells

d)

Schwann cells

e)

Satellite cells

68.

Cranial nerve VII is the:

a)

Trigeminal nerve

b)

Facial nerve

c)

Glossopharyngeal nerve

d)

Hypoglossal nerve

e)

Abducent nerve

69.

The "Gray Matter" of the spinal cord primarily contains:

a)

Myelinated axons

b)

Nerve cell bodies

c)

Only Schwann cells

d)

Blood vessels only

e)

CSF

70.

Which part of a neuron carries impulses away from the cell body?

a)

Dendrite

b)

Axon

c)

Soma

d)

Nucleus

e)

Myelin

71.

A patient cannot "Evert" their foot. This movement occurs at which joint?

a)

Ankle joint (talocrural)

b)

Subtalar and transverse tarsal joints

c)

Knee joint

d)

Hip joint

e)

Metatarsophalangeal joint

72.

A surgeon performs "Skin Grafting." A graft that includes the epidermis and only a portion of the dermis is called:

a)

Full-thickness graft

b)

Split-thickness graft

c)

Pedicle graft

d)

Autograft

e)

Xenograft

73.

Following a heavy lift, a man feels pain in his back. A "Herniated Disc" involves the protrusion of the:

a)

Annulus fibrosus

b)

Nucleus pulposus

c)

Articular cartilage

d)

Yellow ligament

e)

Vertebral body

74.

Which cranial nerve moves the tongue?

a)

CN IX

b)

CN X

c)

CN XI

d)

CN XII (Hypoglossal)

e)

CN V

75.

A "Unipennate" muscle has fibers that:

a)

Run parallel to the long axis

b)

Attach to one side of the tendon

c)

Attach to both sides of the tendon (feather-like)

d)

Radiate from a broad origin to a narrow insertion

e)

Circularly surround an orifice

76.

The term "Ipsilateral" means:

a)

On the opposite side

b)

On the same side

c)

Toward the midline

d)

Away from the midline

e)

Below a structure

77.

A "Bursa" that communicates with a joint cavity is most likely found in the:

a)

Knee

b)

Elbow

c)

Shoulder

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

78.

"Avascular Necrosis" of a bone head (like the femur) is usually due to the loss of:

a)

Venous drainage

b)

Nerve supply

c)

Arterial blood supply

d)

Synovial fluid

e)

Periosteum

79.

"Circumduction" is a combination of:

a)

Flexion and Extension only

b)

Abduction and Adduction only

c)

Flexion, Extension, Abduction, and Adduction

d)

Internal and External rotation

e)

Pronation and Supination

80.

The "PNS" (Peripheral Nervous System) consists of:

a)

Brain and Spinal cord

b)

Cranial and Spinal nerves

c)

Only the Autonomic system

d)

Only the Somatic system

e)

Cerebellum and Medulla

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