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Aspirin Administration and Contraindications Quiz

Total questions: 84

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the standard dose of aspirin per tablet as indicated in the material?

a)

300mg per tablet

b)

100mg per tablet

c)

500mg per tablet

d)

50mg per tablet

2.

Which of the following is an indication for administering aspirin?

a)

Adults with ECG evidence suggesting suspicion of MI or Ischaemia

b)

Children under 16 years with fever

c)

Patients with known aspirin allergy

d)

Patients with active GI bleed

3.

According to the material, which patient group should NOT be given aspirin?

a)

Children under 16 years

b)

Adults with suspected TIA

c)

Patients with moderate hepatic disease without jaundice

d)

Patients with asthma

4.

A patient with a history of asthma and moderate hepatic disease without jaundice requires aspirin. According to the cautions listed, what should be considered before administration?

a)

Aspirin may be given if the benefits outweigh the potential risks

b)

Aspirin is absolutely contraindicated in all asthma patients

c)

Aspirin should never be given to anyone with hepatic disease

d)

Aspirin is only safe for patients with no medical history

5.

A patient presents with a suspected TIA, and all symptoms have fully resolved. The patient is not being conveyed to the hospital but has been referred to the local TIA pathway. According to the material, what is the appropriate action regarding aspirin?

a)

Aspirin should be administered

b)

Aspirin is contraindicated

c)

Aspirin should only be given to children under 16

d)

Aspirin should be avoided in all cases of TIA

6.

Which of the following is a contraindication for aspirin use?

a)

Active GI bleed

b)

Pregnancy

c)

Renal failure

d)

Current treatment with anticoagulant

7.

A patient is currently being treated with an anticoagulant and requires aspirin. What does the material suggest?

a)

Aspirin may be given if the benefits outweigh the risks

b)

Aspirin is absolutely contraindicated

c)

Aspirin is only safe for children under 16

d)

Aspirin should be given without consideration

8.

Which of the following conditions is listed as a caution rather than a contraindication for aspirin administration?

a)

Pregnancy

b)

Known aspirin allergy

c)

Active GI bleed

d)

Children under 16 years

9.

Which of the following is an indication for administering Adrenaline 1:10,000?

a)

Cardiac arrest

b)

Hypertension

c)

Asthma attack

d)

Hyperglycemia

10.

What is the recommended dose of Adrenaline 1:10,000 for an 8-year-old after the third shock?

a)

260 mcg

b)

320 mcg

c)

210 mcg

d)

140 mcg

11.

Which of the following is a caution when administering Adrenaline 1:10,000?

a)

Severe hypertension may occur in patients on non-cardioselective beta blockers

b)

It should be given to all patients with bradycardia

c)

It is safe for use in all temperatures

d)

It should be administered before the first shock

12.

In which situation should Adrenaline 1:10,000 NOT be administered?

a)

When the patient's core temperature is less than 30 degrees Celsius

b)

When the patient is in cardiac arrest

c)

When the patient is on cardioselective beta blockers

d)

When the patient has a mild fever

13.

If a patient’s core temperature is between 30 and 35 degrees Celsius and hypothermia is thought to be the main cause of arrest, what should be done regarding the administration of Adrenaline 1:10,000?

a)

Double the time period between doses to 6-10 minutes

b)

Administer the usual dose at the usual interval

c)

Do not administer Adrenaline at all

d)

Triple the dose

14.

A 6-year-old child requires Adrenaline 1:10,000 after the third shock. What is the correct dose?

a)

210 mcg

b)

140 mcg

c)

320 mcg

d)

350 mcg

15.

Why should caution be used when administering Adrenaline 1:10,000 to patients on non-cardioselective beta blockers such as propranolol?

a)

Severe hypertension may occur

b)

It may cause hypoglycemia

c)

It may induce bradycardia

d)

It is completely ineffective

16.

Which of the following is NOT an indication for Adrenaline 1:10,000?

a)

Asthma attack

b)

Cardiac arrest

c)

Post ROSC circulatory system support

d)

Bradycardia not responsive to atropine sulphate

17.

What should be done if a patient is hypothermic with a core temperature less than 30 degrees Celsius?

a)

Do NOT administer Adrenaline 1:10,000

b)

Administer double the usual dose

c)

Administer at half the usual interval

d)

Administer only after the first shock

18.

Which of the following best describes the main contraindication for Adrenaline 1:10,000 administration?

a)

Core temperature less than 30 degrees Celsius

b)

Mild hypertension

c)

Use of cardioselective beta blockers

d)

Age over 12 years

19.

What is the recommended initial dose of Amiodarone for cardiac arrest after the 3rd shock?

a)

300mg

b)

150mg

c)

450mg

d)

100mg

20.

Which of the following is a contraindication for administering Amiodarone?

a)

Patient's core temperature is less than 30 degrees

b)

Patient has bradycardia

c)

Patient is unresponsive to defibrillator

d)

Patient has hypertension

21.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a caution when administering Amiodarone?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Vasodilation

d)

Bronchospasm

22.

A patient in cardiac arrest with a shockable rhythm is unresponsive to a defibrillator after the 3rd shock. According to the guidelines, what should be the next step regarding Amiodarone administration?

a)

Administer 300mg of Amiodarone

b)

Wait until after the 5th shock to administer Amiodarone

c)

Do not administer Amiodarone

d)

Administer 450mg of Amiodarone immediately

23.

If a patient remains unresponsive to VT or VF following the 5th shock, what is the recommended action regarding Amiodarone?

a)

Add an additional dose as a bonus

b)

Stop Amiodarone administration

c)

Increase the dose to 600mg

d)

Administer only saline

24.

Which of the following is a possible side effect (caution) when administering Amiodarone?

a)

Flushing

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Hypertension

25.

What is the maximum total dose of Amiodarone recommended during cardiac arrest management?

a)

450mg

b)

600mg

c)

300mg

d)

150mg

26.

A patient with cardiac arrest is unresponsive to VT or VF after the 5th shock. What is the rationale for administering an additional dose of Amiodarone at this stage?

a)

To increase the likelihood of restoring a normal heart rhythm when initial interventions have failed.

b)

To prevent bradycardia from occurring.

c)

To reduce the patient's blood pressure.

d)

To induce flushing and vasodilation.

27.

What is the initial recommended dose of Atropine for treating symptomatic bradycardia?

a)

600 mcg

b)

300 mcg

c)

3 mg

d)

100 mcg

28.

Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of Atropine?

a)

Suspected hypothermia

b)

Dry mouth

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Pupil dilation

29.

Which of the following is NOT a caution associated with Atropine administration?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Dry mouth

c)

Visual blurring

d)

Pupil dilation

30.

A patient with a cardiac transplant is experiencing bradycardia. Why should Atropine NOT be administered?

a)

It does not respond to vagal blocking

b)

It causes hypertension

c)

It increases the risk of seizures

d)

It leads to severe dehydration

31.

Which of the following is an indication for administering Atropine?

a)

Symptomatic bradycardia with absolute bradycardia <40 bpm

b)

Hypertension with tachycardia

c)

Severe allergic reaction

d)

Acute myocardial infarction without bradycardia

32.

If a patient is given a small dose of Atropine less than 100 mcg, what is a possible effect?

a)

It may cause bradycardia

b)

It may cause hypertension

c)

It may cause hypothermia

d)

It may cause hyperglycemia

33.

What is the maximum total dose of Atropine that can be administered?

a)

3 mg

b)

600 mcg

c)

1 mg

d)

10 mg

34.

Which of the following is a possible side effect of Atropine?

a)

Confusion and occasional hallucinations

b)

Severe hypoglycemia

c)

Muscle rigidity

d)

Excessive sweating

35.

A patient presents with systolic blood pressure below the expected value for their age and bradycardia. What medication is indicated according to the provided information?

a)

Atropine

b)

Adrenaline

c)

Amiodarone

d)

Lidocaine

36.

What is the recommended oral spray dose range for GTN?

a)

400mcg - 800mcg

b)

100mcg - 200mcg

c)

1000mcg - 2000mcg

d)

50mcg - 100mcg

37.

Which of the following is an indication for administering GTN?

a)

Cardiac chest pain due to angina or MI when systolic BP is greater than 90mmHg

b)

Severe asthma attack

c)

Acute kidney failure

d)

Chronic back pain

38.

Which patient should be treated with caution when considering GTN administration?

a)

Patients with suspected posterior MI or right ventricular infarction

b)

Patients with mild headache

c)

Patients with stable diabetes

d)

Patients with a history of allergies

39.

Which of the following is a contraindication for GTN use?

a)

Systolic BP less than 110 in acute heart failure

b)

Mild hypertension

c)

Stable angina with normal BP

d)

Controlled diabetes

40.

A patient presents with chest pain and a history of cocaine use. Their systolic BP is 120mmHg. According to the guidelines, should GTN be considered for this patient? Justify your answer.

a)

Yes, because suspected cocaine toxicity presenting with chest pain is an indication for GTN.

b)

No, because cocaine use is a contraindication for GTN.

c)

No, because GTN is only for patients with hypertension.

d)

Yes, but only if the patient is unconscious.

41.

Why should GTN not be administered to unconscious patients or those with severe aortic or mitral stenosis?

a)

Because these are listed as contraindications due to the risk of worsening their condition.

b)

Because GTN is ineffective in unconscious patients.

c)

Because GTN causes severe headaches in these patients.

d)

Because GTN is only for use in children.

42.

What is the maximum recommended dose of Furosemide that should be administered slowly over 2 minutes?

a)

20mg

b)

40mg

c)

80mg

d)

10mg

43.

Which of the following is an indication for intravenous Furosemide administration?

a)

Hypertension in pregnancy

b)

Pulmonary oedema

c)

Chronic kidney disease

d)

Diabetes mellitus

44.

Which condition is listed as a contraindication for Furosemide use?

a)

Pregnancy

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Cardiogenic shock

d)

Respiratory distress

45.

Why should caution be exercised when administering Furosemide to patients with hypokalemia?

a)

It could cause liver cirrhosis

b)

It could induce arrhythmias

c)

It could cause respiratory distress

d)

It could increase blood pressure

46.

A 25-year-old pregnant woman presents with acute heart failure. What should be considered before administering Furosemide?

a)

Furosemide is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy

b)

Furosemide should be administered without caution

c)

Pregnancy is a caution for Furosemide use

d)

Furosemide is only indicated for children under 18

47.

Which of the following patients should NOT receive Furosemide?

a)

A 30-year-old with pulmonary oedema

b)

A 17-year-old with severe renal failure and anuria

c)

A 45-year-old with mild hypokalemia

d)

A 60-year-old with acute heart failure

48.

If a patient is hypotensive, what is the appropriate action regarding Furosemide administration?

a)

Administer without concern

b)

Use with caution

c)

Contraindicated

d)

Increase the dose

49.

Calculate the volume required to administer a 40mg dose of Furosemide if 20mg = 2ml.

a)

1ml

b)

2ml

c)

4ml

d)

8ml

50.

Which of the following is an indication for the use of heparin?

a)

STEMI where heparin is required as adjunct therapy to reduce the risk of re-infarction

b)

Recent cerebral haemorrhage

c)

Severe hypertension

d)

Thrombocytopenia

51.

What is a major caution to consider before administering heparin?

a)

Haemorrhage: major or minor

b)

Diabetes mellitus

c)

Asthma

d)

Renal failure

52.

Which of the following is a contraindication for heparin administration?

a)

Recent cerebral haemorrhage

b)

Mild headache

c)

Controlled asthma

d)

Mild dehydration

53.

What is the initial dose of heparin for an adult greater than 67 kg?

a)

4000 ml

b)

1000 ml

c)

500 ml

d)

0.8 ml

54.

A patient with recent surgery to the nervous system is being considered for heparin therapy. What should you do?

a)

Do not administer heparin due to contraindication

b)

Administer heparin as usual

c)

Double the dose of heparin

d)

Only administer if the patient has hypertension

55.

Why is it important that the initial dose of heparin is given at the earliest stage prior to administration of a thrombolytic agent?

a)

To reduce the risk of re-infarction

b)

To increase blood pressure

c)

To prevent dehydration

d)

To treat liver disease

56.

What is the maximum dose of Tenecteplase for a bolus IV injection?

a)

6000 units

b)

5000 units

c)

7000 units

d)

8000 units

57.

Which of the following is an indication for administering Tenecteplase?

a)

Acute STEMI within 6 hours of symptom onset where PPCI is not available

b)

Chronic hypertension

c)

Stable angina

d)

Diabetes mellitus

58.

When administering Tenecteplase, what precaution should be taken regarding patient monitoring?

a)

Monitor conscious levels, pulse, blood pressure, and cardiac rhythm during and after injection

b)

Monitor only blood pressure

c)

Monitor only pulse

d)

No monitoring is required

59.

For patients over 75 years old, what adjustment should be considered when administering Tenecteplase?

a)

Consider half dose to reduce risks of haemorrhaging

b)

Double the dose for effectiveness

c)

No dose adjustment needed

d)

Administer dose only if patient is under 60kg

60.

Which checklist should be consulted for contraindications before administering Tenecteplase?

a)

JRCALC

b)

WHO guidelines

c)

NICE guidelines

d)

BNF checklist

61.

Why is it important to ensure a defibrillator is immediately available when administering Tenecteplase?

a)

To manage potential cardiac arrhythmias during injection

b)

To monitor blood glucose levels

c)

To administer oxygen therapy

d)

To check for allergies

62.

Which of the following is an example of an anticoagulant that is administered as an injection?

a)

Warfarin

b)

Apixiban

c)

Edoxaban

d)

Heparin

63.

What is the primary function of anticoagulant medications?

a)

Increase the formation of blood clots

b)

Stop/prevent the formation of blood clots

c)

Lower blood pressure

d)

Increase red blood cell production

64.

Which medical condition is NOT typically treated with anticoagulants?

a)

Pulmonary embolism

b)

Deep vein thrombosis

c)

Diabetes mellitus

d)

Mechanical valve replacement

65.

How do anticoagulants help in the management of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

a)

By dissolving existing clots instantly

b)

By interrupting the clotting process and preventing existing clots from growing

c)

By increasing platelet production

d)

By lowering cholesterol levels

66.

Which of the following statements best explains the mechanism of action of anticoagulants?

a)

They increase the production of fibrin to promote clotting.

b)

They interrupt the process involved in blood clot formation, making clotting harder.

c)

They stimulate white blood cell production.

d)

They reduce inflammation in blood vessels.

67.

A patient with a history of thrombophilia is prescribed an anticoagulant. What is the most likely reason for this prescription?

a)

To increase the tendency to clot

b)

To decrease the risk of abnormal blood clot formation

c)

To treat bacterial infections

d)

To lower blood sugar levels

68.

Which of the following anticoagulants is only available in tablet form?

a)

Heparin

b)

Warfarin

c)

Both Warfarin and Heparin

d)

None of the above

69.

Why are anticoagulants mainly used in venous clots such as DVT or heart-related clots?

a)

Because they dissolve clots instantly

b)

Because they interrupt fibrin formation, preventing clot growth

c)

Because they increase blood pressure

d)

Because they stimulate heart rate

70.

What is the primary use of ACE inhibitors?

a)

To lower blood pressure and treat heart and kidney problems

b)

To increase blood sugar levels

c)

To treat bacterial infections

d)

To improve vision

71.

How do ACE inhibitors help relax and widen blood vessels?

a)

By blocking enzymes that make angiotensin 2

b)

By increasing cholesterol levels

c)

By stimulating nerve endings

d)

By producing more red blood cells

72.

Which of the following is NOT an example of an ACE inhibitor?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Benzepril

c)

Captopril

d)

Ramipril

73.

Which ACE inhibitor is available in tablet, capsule, and liquid forms?

a)

Ramipril

b)

Benzepril

c)

Foisonpril

d)

Lisinopril

74.

A patient is prescribed an ACE inhibitor to manage their high blood pressure. Explain the mechanism by which this medication helps lower blood pressure.

a)

It blocks enzymes that produce angiotensin 2, preventing blood vessels from narrowing and thus lowering blood pressure.

b)

It increases the production of insulin, reducing blood sugar levels.

c)

It stimulates the immune system to fight infections.

d)

It enhances the absorption of calcium in the bones.

75.

Which of the following best describes how beta blockers work in the body?

a)

They increase the force of the heart's contractions.

b)

They slow down the heart by blocking the action of hormones like adrenaline.

c)

They increase blood pressure by stimulating hormone release.

d)

They speed up the heart by increasing adrenaline levels.

76.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a beta blocker?

a)

Atenolol

b)

Bisoprolol

c)

Labetalol

d)

Paracetamol

77.

What is one of the main effects of beta blockers on the heart?

a)

They cause the heart to use more force to beat.

b)

They lower blood pressure.

c)

They increase the heart rate.

d)

They raise blood sugar levels.

78.

A patient is prescribed propranolol in liquid form. Based on your knowledge of beta blockers, what is a likely reason for this prescription?

a)

The patient needs a medication to increase their heart rate.

b)

The patient requires a medication to lower blood pressure or manage heart problems.

c)

The patient is being treated for a bacterial infection.

d)

The patient needs a medication to increase adrenaline levels.

79.

Explain why beta blockers are effective in treating heart problems, using your understanding of their mechanism of action.

a)

They stimulate the heart to beat faster, increasing oxygen supply.

b)

They block adrenaline, causing the heart to use less force and beat slower, which helps manage heart problems.

c)

They increase the production of hormones that raise blood pressure.

d)

They directly increase the size of the heart muscle.

80.

Which of the following conditions is Digoxin commonly used to treat?

a)

Diabetes mellitus

b)

Congestive heart failure

c)

Asthma

d)

Hypertension

81.

Digoxin is often used in combination with which types of medications for treating congestive heart failure?

a)

Antibiotics and beta blockers

b)

Diuretics and ACE inhibitors

c)

Antivirals and statins

d)

Calcium channel blockers and insulin

82.

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of Digoxin?

a)

It decreases intracellular sodium and potassium levels

b)

It increases intracellular sodium, leading to an influx of calcium into the heart, enhancing contractility

c)

It blocks calcium channels, reducing heart contractility

d)

It increases the breakdown of acetylcholine in the heart

83.

A patient with atrial fibrillation (AF) is prescribed Digoxin. What is the primary reason for this prescription?

a)

To lower blood glucose levels

b)

To treat heart arrhythmia problems

c)

To reduce cholesterol

d)

To prevent blood clots in the lungs

84.

Explain how Digoxin increases cardiac output and decreases the ventricular filling process. Use your understanding of its mechanism of action.

a)

By blocking sodium channels and reducing heart rate

b)

By increasing intracellular sodium, which drives calcium influx, enhancing contractility and cardiac output, and decreasing ventricular filling time

c)

By dilating blood vessels and reducing afterload

d)

By increasing potassium excretion in the kidneys