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Forensic Chemistry and Toxicology: Multiple Choice Test

Total questions: 137

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Choose the letter of the correct answer (1 point each). The earliest known explosive mixture discovered was what is now commonly referred to as _________.

a)

Explosive

b)

Black Powder

c)

White Powder

d)

Gun Powder

2.

Choose the letter of the correct answer (1 point each). It was first prepared and its explosive properties described. It was first used as an explosive by Alfred Nobel in 1864.

a)

Glycerine

b)

Ammonium nitrate

c)

Glycol

d)

Nitroglycerine

3.

Choose the letter of the correct answer (1 point each). An explosive is defined as a chemical material that, under the influence of thermal or mechanical shock, decomposes rapidly with the evolution of large amounts of heat and gas.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Choose the letter of the correct answer (1 point each). Which of the following is not a High Explosive?

a)

lead azide

b)

mercury fulminate

c)

Black Powder

d)

diazodinitrophenol

5.

Choose the letter of the correct answer (1 point each). Are neither high nor low explosives but are any flammable materials used as fillers for the purpose of destroying a target by fire, such as red or white phosphorus, napalm, thermite, magnesium, and zirconium.

a)

Incendiaries

b)

Mercury Fulminate

c)

RDX

d)

TNT

6.

Choose the letter of the correct answer (1 point each). Are explosives that can be used to provide controlled propulsion for a projectile. Projectiles include bullets, mortar rounds, artillery rounds, rockets, and missiles.

a)

RDX

b)

Propellants

c)

Black Powder

d)

Amatol

7.

Choose the letter of the correct answer (1 point each). Are complex mixtures of colorants, vehicles, and additives, which are adjusted in composition to produce the desired writing characteristics.

a)

Dye

b)

Crayons

c)

Paints

d)

Inks

8.

Choose the letter of the correct answer (1 point each). It is a writing instrument which dispenses a viscous ink from an internal reservoir through the rolling action of a metal ball at its point.

a)

Roller Pen

b)

Pencil

c)

Fountain Pen

d)

Gel Pen

9.

Choose the letter of the correct answer (1 point each). Uses ink in which pigment is suspended in a water-based gel.

a)

Gel Pen

b)

Ballpoint Pen

c)

Fountain Pen

d)

Roller Ball Pens

10.

Choose the letter of the correct answer (1 point each). Use ball point writing mechanisms with water-based liquid or gelled ink, as opposed to the oil-based viscous inks found in ballpoint pens. These less viscous inks, which tend to saturate more deeply and more widely into paper than other types of ink, give roller ball pens their distinctive writing qualities.

a)

Fountain Pen

b)

Ball Point Pen

c)

Gel Pens

d)

Roller Ball Pens

11.

Choose the letter of the correct answer (1 point each). It is a pen which has its own ink-source, and usually a tip made of a porous, pressed fibers such as felt.

a)

Felt Pen

b)

Ceramic Tip Pens

c)

Fountain Pen

d)

Gel Pens

12.

Choose the letter of the correct answer (1 point each). It is the collective term for a family of laboratory techniques for the separation of mixtures. It involves passing a mixture which contains the analyte through a stationary phase, which separates it from other molecules in the mixture and allows it to be isolated.

a)

Liquid Isolation

b)

Spectrophotometry

c)

Color Test Examination

d)

Chromatography

13.

Choose the letter of the correct answer (1 point each). Investigations often present complex and difficult circumstances to study due to the fact that the perpetrator has thoroughly planned the act, is not present during the act, and the destruction is so extensive.

a)

Post Blast

b)

Arson

c)

Crime Scene

d)

Medico-Legal

14.

Choose the letter of the correct answer (1 point each). Is an appendage of the skin that grows out of an organ.

a)

Hair

b)

Skin

c)

DNA

d)

Nail

15.

Choose the letter of the correct answer (1 point each). The length of the hair extends from its root or bulb embedded in the follicle, continues into a shaft, and terminates at a tip end.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Choose the letter of the correct answer (1 point each). It is the scale structure covering the exterior of the hair.

a)

Cuticle

b)

Cortex

c)

Medulla

d)

Layers

17.

Choose the letter of the correct answer (1 point each). Is the main body of the hair shaft.

a)

Cuticle

b)

Cortex

c)

Medulla

d)

Layers

18.

Choose the letter of the correct answer (1 point each). Is a cellular column running through the center of the hair.

a)

Cuticle

b)

Cortex

c)

Medulla

19.

Choose the letter of the correct answer (1 point each). Which one is not a scale pattern of cuticle.

a)

Continuous

b)

Spinous

c)

Evidence

d)

Chain of Custody

20.

Choose the letter of the correct answer (1 point each). What is the meaning of D.N.A.?

a)

Deoxyribonucleic acid

b)

Dioxyribonucleic acid

c)

Deoxynucleic acid

d)

Deoxy acid

21.

Choose the letter of the correct answer (1 point each). Smallest component of life capable of independent reproduction.

a)

DNA

b)

Tissue

c)

Cell

d)

Chromosome

22.

Choose the letter of the correct answer (1 point each). The biological structure by which hereditary information is physically transmitted from one generation to the next.

a)

DNA

b)

Tissue

c)

Cell

d)

Chromosome

23.

Choose the letter of the correct answer (1 point each). DNA is unique for all individuals except identical twins.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Choose the letter of the correct answer (1 point each). DNA is formed by combination of DNA from his or her parents with half coming from the mother and half from the father.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Choose the letter of the correct answer (1 point each). Your DNA does changes through your life.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Choose the letter of the correct answer (1 point each). DNA is a physical; biological; transfer and trace evidence.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

The growth of bacteria on the DNA evidence is caused by:

a)

Moisture and heat

b)

Low temperature

c)

Disinfectant

d)

Heat alone

28.

Which of these do not contribute to the probative value of DNA?

a)

Chain of custody

b)

DNA Testing Methodology

c)

The forensic laboratory

d)

Request letter

29.

Which of these do not tell the limitations of DNA Testing?

a)

Tell how long the suspect was at the crime scene

b)

Tell how long the suspect handled an object

c)

DNA is the golden standard for paternity/maternity testing

d)

Determine how long ago the cells were deposited on the item

30.

True or False: If items have been stored properly, DNA can last decades (30+ years).

a)

True

b)

False

31.

True or False: In the laboratory: we can’t tell in advance whether or not an item will yield any DNA.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

The pressure, exceeding the ambient pressure, manifested in the shock wave of an explosion.

a)

Blast overpressure

b)

Deflagration

c)

Blow in Place

d)

Atmospheric pressure

33.

A device designed to perform the electrical and/or mechanical alignment necessary to initiate an explosive train.

a)

SPICEE

b)

Arming device

c)

Initiator

d)

Enhancement

34.

A device designed to perform the electrical and/or mechanical alignment necessary to initiate an explosive train.

a)

Casing

b)

Calibre

c)

Caliber

d)

Enhancement

35.

A rapid chemical reaction occurring at a rate of less than 3,300 feet per second in which the output of heat is enough to enable the reaction to proceed and be accelerated without input of heat from another source. The effect of a true deflagration under confinement is an explosion.

a)

Deflagration

b)

Blast pressure

c)

Explosion

d)

Explosive Train

36.

CERCLA Means?

a)

Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act

b)

Comprehensive Environmental Response, Consolidation, and Liability Act

c)

Comprehensive Explosive Response, Compensation, and Liability Act

d)

Comprehensive Explosion Response, Compensation, and Liability Act

37.

Discovered by Indian Physicist Chandrashekhara Raman in 1928.

a)

Gas Chromatography

b)

Raman spectroscopy

c)

Infrared spectroscopy

d)

Chromatography

38.

Among these three explosives which is the most brissant, powerful and sensitive. Ammonium nitrate- +10% TNT - -28% PETN- 2%

a)

TNT

b)

Ammonium nitrate

c)

PETN

d)

All are powerful explosive

39.

This can be made by combining acetone and peroxide in the presence of acid.

a)

TNT

b)

Ammonium nitrate

c)

PETN

d)

TATP

40.

The “P” in S.P.I.C.E.E means?

a)

Powerful

b)

Power

c)

Powder

d)

Posible

41.

It is applied to study of solide and crystalline materials.

a)

Gas Chromatography

b)

Infrared spectroscopy

c)

X-ray diffraction

d)

Thin Layer Chromatography

42.

A forensic chemist can assist in the identification of unknown materials found at a ________ scene.

a)

Police

b)

Forensic

c)

Criminalistics

d)

Crime

43.

He is the founding father of forensic.

a)

Proffesor Mattheiu Orfilla

b)

Sherlock Holmes

c)

Dean C. Worcester

d)

Dr. Edmund Loccard

44.

It is the application of chemistry and its subfield, forensic toxicology, in a legal setting.

a)

Forensic Biochemistry

b)

Forensic Chemistry

c)

Forensic Medicine

d)

Forensic Photography

45.

The father of Modern Forensic Toxicology

a)

Proffesor Mattheiu Orfilla

b)

Sherlock Holmes

c)

Dean C. Worcester

d)

Dr. Edmund Loccard

46.

The practice of forensic started in the Philippines with the passage of ____________.

a)

Royal Decree #143

b)

Royal Decree # 178

c)

Royal Decree # 188

d)

Royal Decree # 214

47.

Forensic came from a Latin word __________ meaning forum.

a)

Foransics

b)

Foransis

c)

Forensis

d)

Forensics

48.

By virtue of __________ approved by the Civil Commission on July 1, 1901, the Bureau of the Government Laboratories was created for the purpose of performing biological and chemical examinations as well as for the production of vaccines and sera.

a)

Act #143

b)

Act #156

c)

Act #160

d)

Act #150

49.

It was created under the dependency of the judicial branch of the government and the laboratory functioning under the direction of a physician and assisted by a pharmacist-chemist.

a)

Laboratorio Kimiko

b)

Laboratorio Scientific

c)

Laboratorio Medico-Legal

d)

Laboratorio Legal

50.

October 14, 1924, through the passage of __________ by the Philippine Legislature, the same Department of Legal Medicine became a branch of Department of Justice at the same time, an integral part of the University of the Philippines.

a)

Act no. 2043

b)

Act no. 3043

c)

Act no. 3443

d)

Act no. 3221

51.

It is simply which senses perceive. Any fact to which a witness testified based on what he saw, heard, smell, touched or tasted, is direct evidence.

a)

Circumstantial Evidence

b)

Direct evidence

c)

Hearsay

d)

Conclusive Evidence

52.

It is proof of allegation. It is a means, sanctioned by law, of ascertaining in judicial proceedings, the truth respecting a matter of a fact.

a)

Chain of Custody

b)

Testimony

c)

Document

53.

He/She is a fact finder, but he must know the laws concerning the nature of his activities. He should procure evidence in such a way that the findings admitted in court can remain impregnable to any attack by the opposing counsel.

a)

Investigator

b)

Forensic Chemist

c)

Doctor

d)

Evidence Collector

54.

It is a statement made by a witness on the authority of another and not from his own personal knowledge or observation. Hearsay evidence is inadmissible except with certain well-defined exceptions.

a)

Direct evidence

b)

Circumstantial Evidence

c)

Hearsay

d)

Conclusive evidence

55.

It means the duly recorded authorized movements and custody of seized drugs or controlled chemicals or plant sources of dangerous drugs or laboratory equipment of each stage, from the time of seizure/confiscation to receipt in the forensic laboratory to safekeeping to presentation in court for destruction.

a)

Chain of Custody

b)

Evidence

c)

Direct evidence

d)

Testimonial Evidence

56.

Is the excessive, maladaptive, or addictive use of drugs for non-medical purposes despite social, psychological, and physical problems that may arise from such use.

a)

Drug Abuse

b)

Drug medication

c)

Drug Transfusion

d)

Drug use

57.

Many drug addicts quit using drugs for brief spells, only to return to using drugs even though they have faced serious consequences as a result of drug use.

a)

Collapse

b)

Return

c)

Relapse

d)

Reuse

58.

It contains gases (oxygen, carbon dioxide) and molecules such as proteins, fats and carbohydrates (sugars).

a)

Red Blood Cells

b)

White blood cells

c)

Red bone marrow

d)

Plasma

59.

It is a natural or synthetic substance used to alter consciousness, affect the structure or function of the body, and may or may not be used in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease.

a)

Cola

b)

Drug

c)

Food

d)

Preservative

60.

An urge to repeatedly use drugs for their euphoric effects even though undesirable effects may occur.

a)

Physical Dependence

b)

Medical Dependence

c)

People Dependence

d)

Psychological Dependence

61.

The body becomes physiologically adapted to the presence of a drug in the system; when the drug is not taken, withdrawal symptoms occur, including profuse sweating, agitation, diarrhea, insomnia.

a)

Physical Dependence

b)

People Dependence

c)

Medical Dependence

d)

Psychological Dependence

62.

Drugs created by chemists to be similar to controlled substances, but which are legal because the chemists alter their molecular structure so they are somewhat different than the illegal drugs they are modeled after.

a)

Over the counter drugs

b)

Designer Drugs

c)

Medical Drugs

63.

A monoamine C8H11NO2 that is a decarboxylated form of dopa and that occurs especially as a neurotransmitter in the brain.

a)

Atropine

b)

Vassopresin

c)

Dopamine

d)

Somastatin

64.

Many drugs may also be inhaled, rather than injected. The drug is snorted and quickly enters the bloodstream via the mucous membranes.

a)

Injection

b)

Inhalation

c)

Ingestion

d)

Smoking

65.

Depress the central nervous system and reduce pain.

a)

Depressants

b)

Hallucinogens

c)

Tranquilizers

d)

Stimulants

66.

A chemical messenger between nerve cells in the mammalian brain.

a)

Neurotransmitter

b)

Hormone transmitter

c)

Electrotransmitter

d)

Neurotransmiter

67.

A disabling sleep disorder; patients report having excessive daytime sleepiness, brief spells of paralysis while sleeping or awake, and dream-like images when first going to sleep.

a)

Narcolepsy

b)

Sleep paralysis

c)

Epilepsy

d)

Seizures

68.

Maintenance of a Den, Dive or Resort.

a)

Section 6

b)

Section 4

c)

Section 7

d)

Section 3

69.

Mood elevators that stimulate the central nervous system.

a)

Depressants

b)

Stimulants

c)

Tranquilizers

d)

Hallucinogens

70.

Importation of Dangerous Drugs and/or Controlled Precursors and Essential Chemicals.

a)

Section 5

b)

Section 4

c)

Section 5

d)

Section 6

71.

Any facility used for the illegal manufacture of any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical.

a)

Chemistry Laboratory

b)

Clandestine Laboratory

c)

Biological Laboratory

d)

Forensic Laboratory

72.

The penalty of imprisonment ranging from six months and one day to four years and a fine ranging from Ten thousand pesos ( P10,000.00P10{,}000.00 ) to Fifty thousand pesos ( P50,000.00P50{,}000.00 ) shall be imposed upon any person who, unless authorized by law, shall possess or have under his/her control any equipment, instrument, apparatus and other paraphernalia fit or intended for smoking, consuming, administering, injecting, ingesting, or introducing any dangerous drug into the body. Identify the Section referenced.

a)

Section 12: Possession of Equipment, Instrument, Apparatus and Other Paraphernalia for Dangerous Drugs

b)

Section 10: Manufacture or Delivery of Equipment, Instrument, Apparatus, and Other Paraphernalia for Dangerous Drugs and/or Controlled Precursors and Essential Chemicals

c)

Section 11: Possession of Dangerous Drugs

d)

Section 8: Manufacture of Dangerous Drugs and/or Controlled Precursors and Essential Chemicals

73.

Choose the Wrong Statement on Section 8. Manufacture of Dangerous Drugs and/or Controlled Precursors and Essential Chemicals: (a) Any phase of the manufacturing process was conducted in the presence or with the help of minor/s; (b) Any phase or manufacturing process was established or undertaken within one hundred (500) meters of a residential, business, church or school premises; (c) Any clandestine laboratory was secured or protected with booby traps; (d) Any clandestine laboratory was concealed with legitimate business operations.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

74.

The maximum penalty provided for under this Section shall be imposed upon any person who uses a minor or a mentally incapacitated individual to deliver such equipment, instrument, apparatus and other paraphernalia for dangerous drugs. Identify the Section referenced.

a)

Section 9. Illegal Chemical Diversion of Controlled Precursors and Essential Chemicals

b)

Section 10. Manufacture or Delivery of Equipment, Instrument, Apparatus, and Other Paraphernalia for Dangerous Drugs and/or Controlled Precursors and Essential Chemicals

c)

Section 11. Possession of Dangerous Drugs

d)

Section 8. Manufacture of Dangerous Drugs and/or Controlled Precursors and Essential Chemicals

75.

Possession of Dangerous Drugs.

a)

Section 11

b)

Section 8

c)

Section 10

d)

Section 12

76.

The sale, distribution, supply or transport of legitimately imported, in-transit, manufactured or procured controlled precursors and essential chemicals, in diluted, mixtures or in concentrated form, to any person or entity engaged in the manufacture of any dangerous drug, and shall include packaging, repackaging, labeling, relabeling or concealment of such transaction through fraud, destruction of documents, fraudulent use of permits, misdeclaration, use of front companies or mail fraud.

a)

Chemical Manufacturing

b)

Chemical Distribution

c)

Chemical Diversion

d)

Chemical Storing

77.

A place where any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical is administered, delivered, stored for illegal purposes, distributed, sold or used in any form.

a)

Den

b)

School

c)

Community

d)

Church

78.

Trace evidence is physical evidence that is often difficult to detect by the naked eye, therefore some type of magnification or sensitive analytical technique is often required to detect or view.

a)

Trace Evidence

b)

Scientific Evidence

c)

Circumstantial Evidence

d)

Corroborative evidence

79.

When a crime involves the discharge of a firearm. The first thing that must be determined by investigator is.

a)

Who fired the gun

b)

Where was the gun was fired

c)

What time the gun was fired

d)

Who held the gun

80.

When properly obtained and analyzed, gunshot residue can connect the criminal to the proverbial.

a)

Sooting gun

b)

Shooting gun

c)

Smoking gun

81.

The face of a suspected shooter can also be sampled. This may prove especially useful when a glock or cal 38 has been used in a shooting.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Gunshot residue is best preserved on articles of clothing, even if a longer period of time has passed from the time of shooting.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

Gunshot residue should be collected as soon as possible, but particles may remain at a crime scene indefinitely.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Particles found on gunshot residue are extremely durable because they are composed of heavy metals: lead, barium, and antimony.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

What is the test used to estimate the distance of the fired gun to the victim.

a)

Paraffin Examination

b)

Modified Griess Test

c)

Diphenylamine

d)

Sodium rhodizonate test

86.

Test to confirm the presence of lead, the Sodium.

a)

Paraffin Examination

b)

Modified Griess Test

c)

Diphenylamine

d)

Janowski test

87.

It is used to recover residues for analysis using scanning electron microscopy and energy-dispersive X-ray spectroscopy (EDAX).

a)

Water extraction

b)

Modified Griess Test

c)

Adhesive material

d)

Solvent extraction

88.

The quantity and distribution of the three metals can be described as consistent or not consistent with gunshot residue and with firing a weapon.

a)

An assessment of consistency or inconsistency with gunshot residue and weapon firing

b)

A definitive identification of the individual shooter

c)

A determination of the exact time a gun was fired

d)

A precise measurement of the firing distance

89.

The finding of gunshot residue can certainly implicate an individual that might be involved in a crime with a firearm.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

This evidence may assign guilt but may be a tool to explaining a guilty action, the events of the crime, and/or placing an individual at the scene of the crime.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Glands that excretes largely water with both inorganic (ammonia, chlorides, metal ions, phosphates) and organic compounds (amino acids, lactic acids, urea, sugars). Most important for fingerprints.

a)

Eccrine

b)

Apocrine

c)

Sebaceous

d)

Sweat glands

92.

Secrete pheromones and other organic materials.

a)

Eccrine

b)

Apocrine

c)

Sebaceous

d)

Sweat glands

93.

Secrete fatty or greasy substances.

a)

Eccrine

b)

Apocrine

c)

Sebaceous

d)

Sweat glands

94.

Fumes react with oils and fats to produce a temporary yellow brown reaction.

a)

Iodine

b)

Powders

c)

Ninhydrin

d)

Cyanoacrylate

95.

Fumes react with chloride to form silver chloride, a material which turns gray when exposed to light.

a)

Iodine

b)

Silver nitrate

c)

Ninhydrin

d)

Cyanoacrylate

96.

Fumes react with with amino acids to produce a purple color.

a)

Iodine

b)

Silver nitrate

c)

Ninhydrin

d)

Cyanoacrylate

97.

Used in glass, metal, plastic and hard non-porous surfaces.

a)

Iodine

b)

Powders

c)

Ninhydrin

d)

Cyanoacrylate

98.

Used in household item, plastic, glass, metal and skin.

a)

Iodine

b)

Powders

c)

Ninhydrin

d)

Cyanoacrylate

99.

Used in Wood, Styrofoam and cardstock.

a)

Iodine

b)

Silver nitrate

c)

Ninhydrin

d)

Cyanoacrylate

100.

Used in paper, cardboard and unpainted surfaces.

a)

Iodine

b)

Silver nitrate

c)

Ninhydrin

d)

Cyanoacrylate

101.

Best used in paper.

a)

Iodine

b)

Silver nitrate

c)

Ninhydrin

d)

Cyanoacrylate

102.

Bite marks are unique and can be used to identify suspects. These imprints were placed in gum and could be matched to crime scene evidence.

a)

Teeth marks

b)

Foot prints

c)

Fingerprints

d)

Lip prints

103.

The blood vessel patterns in the eye may be unique to individuals. They are used today for various security purposes.

a)

Teeth marks

b)

Foot prints

c)

Fingerprints

d)

Iris scan/print

104.

What is the meaning of AFIS?

a)

Automated Fingerprint Identification System

b)

Automatic Fingerprint Identification System

c)

Automatic Fingerprint Isolation System

d)

Automatic Fingerprint Irrigation System

105.

What is the meaning of AFIS?

a)

Automated Fingerprint Identification System

b)

Automatic Fingerprint Identification System

c)

Automatic Fingerprint Isolation System

d)

Automatic Fingerprint Irrigation System

106.

This is a type of radiation with shorter wavelength (100–400 nm) but higher in frequency than commonly recognized visible light.

a)

Ultraviolet

b)

Infrared

c)

Visible light

d)

X-rays

107.

An elementary particle, the quantum of the electromagnetic field and the basic unit of light and all other forms of electromagnetic radiation.

a)

Electron

b)

Protons

c)

Photon

d)

Neutrons

108.

An optical phenomenon wherein a material emits light in response to some external stimulus.

a)

Fluorescence

b)

Chemiluminescence

c)

Phosphorescence

d)

Luminiscence

109.

Which of these are examples of fluorescent minerals?

a)

Sodium

b)

Calcium

c)

Fluorite

d)

Fluoride

110.

Any substance that emits visible light (400–700 nm) when stimulated by radiation. A phosphor converts the energy in UV radiation from a black light into visible light.

a)

Phosphor

b)

Calcite

c)

Fluorite

d)

Chemiluminiscent

111.

Most physiological fluids show some fluorescence (semen, blood, urine and saliva) which are phosphor rich.

a)

True

b)

False

112.

Materials don’t absorb ultraviolet light and re-emit the energy in the form of visible light of various characteristic wavelengths.

a)

True

b)

False

113.

The wavelength is directly proportional to energy produced by the radiation: the shorter the wavelength, the higher the corresponding energy.

a)

True

b)

False

114.

Referred to as shortwave (SW), far ultraviolet, or germicidal UV, between 180 and 280 nm, also previously known as high frequency (HF).

a)

UVC

b)

UVB

c)

UVA

d)

Infrared

115.

Commonly known as long wave UV (LW), near ultraviolet, black light, or Wood’s light, between 320 and 400 nm, also previously known as low frequency (LF).

a)

UVC

b)

UVB

c)

UVA

d)

Infrared

116.

Radiates at wavelength between 400 and 700 nanometers (nm) and refers to the only portion of the electromagnetic spectrum that can be seen by the human eye.

a)

UVC

b)

UVB

c)

Visible light

d)

Infrared

117.

They are charged with the responsibility for detecting and identifying the presence of drugs and poisons in body fluids, tissues, and organs.

a)

Criminologist

b)

Toxicologist

c)

Medico-Legal Officer

d)

Chemist

118.

Alcohol appears in the blood within minutes after it has been taken by mouth and slowly increases in concentration while it is being absorbed from the stomach and the small intestine into the bloodstream.

a)

True

b)

False

119.

When all the alcohol has been absorbed, a maximum alcohol level is reached in the blood; and the post-absorption period begins.

a)

True

b)

False

120.

Which of the following do not determine the rate at which alcohol is absorbed?

a)

Factors such as time taken to consume the drink

b)

The alcohol content

c)

The amount consumed

d)

Amount of vitamin intake

121.

Elimination of alcohol throughout the body is accomplished through _________ and excretion.

a)

Oxidation

b)

Carboxylation

c)

Reduction

d)

Electrolysis

122.

Oxidation takes place almost entirely in the _____, while alcohol is excreted unchanged in the breath, urine, and perspiration.

a)

Intestine

b)

Liver

c)

Gall Bladder

d)

Kidney

123.

The extent to which an individual may be under the influence of alcohol is usually determined by either measuring the quantity of alcohol present in the blood system or by measuring the alcohol content in the urine.

a)

True

b)

False

124.

Alcohol is absorbed from the _______ and small intestines into the bloodstream.

a)

Intestine

b)

Liver

c)

Gall Bladder

d)

Kidney

125.

In the lungs, carbon dioxide and alcohol leave the blood and oxygen enters the blood in the air sacs known as _______.

a)

Larynx

b)

Alveoli

c)

Nose

d)

Trachea

126.

The _______, walk and turn, and the one-leg stand are all considered reliable and effective psychophysical tests.

a)

Walking gaze test

b)

Vertical gaze nystagmus test

c)

One line gaze test

d)

Horizontal gaze nystagmus test

127.

This offers the toxicologist the most widely used approach for determining alcohol levels in blood.

a)

Mass Spectroscopy

b)

Spectrometer

128.

Blood must always be drawn under medically accepted conditions by a qualified individual.

a)

True

b)

False

129.

The Gas Chromatography separates the sample into its components, while the ____ represents a unique “fingerprint” pattern that can be used for identification.

a)

Liquid Chromatography

b)

Mass Spectrometer

c)

Spectrometer

d)

Infrared Spectroscopy

130.

Method used to destroy UXO, by use of explosives, in the location the item is encountered.

a)

Blow-in-place

b)

Blast Overpressure

c)

Clearance

d)

Conceptual Site Model

131.

An explosive is defined as a chemical material that, under the influence of thermal or mechanical shock, decomposes rapidly with the evolution of large amounts of heat and gas.

a)

True

b)

False

132.

An explosive is defined as a chemical material that, under the influence of thermal or mechanical shock, decomposes rapidly with the evolution of large amounts of heat and gas.

a)

High Explosives

b)

Low explosives

c)

Incindiaries

133.

Investigations often present complex and difficult circumstances to study due to the fact that the perpetrator has thoroughly planned the act, is not present during the act, and the destruction is so extensive.

a)

Post Blast

b)

Arson

c)

Crime Scene

134.

Is a type of oxidation, which is the combination of oxygen with other substances to produce new substances.

a)

Arson

b)

Fire

c)

Explosion

d)

Combustion

135.

To start a fire, the minimum temperature needed to ignite fuel spontaneously, known as the __________, must be reached.

a)

Ignition Temperature

b)

Heat of Combustion

c)

Glowing Combustion

d)

Arson

136.

is burning at the fuel-air interface, such as that of a cigarette.

a)

Flash point

b)

Pyrolysis

c)

Glowing Combustion

d)

Combustion

137.

Is the result of a natural heat producing process in poorly ventilated container or areas

a)

Pyrolysis

b)

Spontaneous Combustion

c)

Glowing Combustion

d)

Combustion