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CC101 Review

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best describes “privacy”?

a)

Freedom from unauthorized access to personal information

b)

Protection from computer viruses

c)

Ethical behavior online

d)

Backup of important files

2.

Which of the following is considered a privacy concern?

a)

Data encryption

b)

Tracking user activity without consent

c)

Installation of antivirus software

d)

Regular updates

3.

Which refers to protecting systems against unauthorized access?

a)

Privacy

b)

Security

c)

Ethics

d)

People

4.

Which group plays the most important role in information security?

a)

Software

b)

Hardware

c)

People

d)

Networks

5.

Which of the following is an ethical principle?

a)

Plagiarism

b)

Transparency

c)

Hacking

d)

Data theft

6.

Which practice supports ethical use of technology?

a)

Using licensed software

b)

Pirating videos

c)

Sharing others’ passwords

d)

Installing malware

7.

Which of the following is an example of a security measure?

a)

Data breach

b)

Phishing scam

c)

Two-factor authentication

d)

Social engineering

8.

Which is a situation where privacy is violated?

a)

Using a strong password

b)

Posting someone’s data without permission

c)

Updating your OS

d)

Encrypting files

9.

Ethics in computing focuses on:

a)

Writing code

b)

Choosing hardware

c)

What is right and wrong in the digital environment

d)

Network design

10.

What is the main threat to privacy?

a)

Encryption

b)

Unauthorized data collection

c)

Strong passwords

d)

Antivirus software

11.

Which is an example of unethical behavior?

a)

Reporting vulnerabilities

b)

Using proper citations

c)

Spreading malware

d)

Respecting copyright

12.

Social engineering attacks target:

a)

Databases

b)

People

c)

Hardware

d)

Software

13.

Which of the following helps ensure data privacy?

a)

Sharing passwords

b)

Firewalls

c)

Data exposure

d)

Insider attacks

14.

Ethics help guide:

a)

System storage

b)

System upgrades

c)

Proper digital behavior

d)

System design only

15.

Which is NOT a security threat?

a)

Spyware

b)

Updates

c)

Ransomware

d)

Keyloggers

16.

A data breach refers to:

a)

Successful data backup

b)

Unauthorized release of information

c)

Encryption of files

d)

Access restrictions

17.

Which of the following best describes confidentiality?

a)

Ensuring data is accurate

b)

Ensuring data is accessible

c)

Ensuring only authorized users can access data

d)

Ensuring data is backed up

18.

Ethics in IT promotes:

a)

Fair use

b)

Data theft

c)

Hacking

d)

Malware creation

19.

Privacy policies exist to:

a)

Publish user data

b)

Delete system files

c)

Inform users how their data is collected

d)

Encrypt passwords automatically

20.

A strong security culture begins with:

a)

Password sharing

b)

Employee awareness

c)

Malware installation

d)

Ignoring updates

21.

Netiquette refers to:

a)

Internet threats

b)

Proper online behavior

c)

Hacking techniques

d)

Cyber laws

22.

Which is an example of good netiquette?

a)

Using all caps

b)

Respecting others’ opinions

c)

Cyberbullying

d)

Sharing fake news

23.

Which online threat attempts to trick users into giving information?

a)

DDoS

b)

Phishing

c)

Worm

d)

Firewall

24.

Malware is defined as:

a)

Software used for productivity

b)

Software intended to harm devices

c)

Hardware malfunction

d)

Ethical software

25.

What is a common sign of phishing?

a)

Personalized greetings

b)

Suspicious links

c)

Direct contact numbers

d)

Secure websites

26.

Two-factor authentication increases:

a)

Battery life

b)

Processing speed

c)

Account security

d)

Email storage

27.

Ransomware attacks:

a)

Encrypt files and demand payment

b)

Fix system errors

c)

Delete malware

d)

Protect data

28.

A good password is:

a)

Your birthday

b)

“123456”

c)

Complex and unique

d)

Short and simple

29.

Ethical online behavior includes:

a)

Plagiarizing posts

b)

Respecting copyright

c)

Spamming comments

d)

Fake identity creation

30.

Cyberbullying is:

a)

Online kindness

b)

Online harassment

c)

Data encryption

d)

Network improvement

31.

A digital footprint is:

a)

Hardware component

b)

Permanent online record of activities

c)

Temporary RAM file

d)

Network speed

32.

A common online scam where attackers impersonate someone:

a)

Spoofing

b)

Defragging

c)

Uploading

d)

Debugging

33.

Antivirus software helps:

a)

Create malware

b)

Detect and remove threats

c)

Slow down systems

d)

Break passwords

34.

Ethical online communication avoids:

a)

Trolling

b)

Respectful language

c)

Constructive feedback

d)

Proper grammar

35.

Which is a personal cybersecurity measure?

a)

Ignoring warnings

b)

Avoiding suspicious downloads

c)

Disabling firewalls

d)

Using weak passwords

36.

Digital risks refer to:

a)

Only hardware issues

b)

Potential dangers when using technology

c)

Wi‑Fi signals

d)

Data storage features

37.

Netiquette discourages:

a)

Courtesy

b)

Flaming

c)

Clarity

d)

Respect

38.

A worm differs from a virus because it:

a)

Requires user action

b)

Self-replicates automatically

c)

Cannot spread

d)

Is harmless

39.

Ethical behavior requires:

a)

Respecting privacy

b)

Hacking systems

c)

Sharing private files

d)

Plagiarizing content

40.

A secure website begins with:

a)

http

b)

https

c)

ftp

d)

mailto

41.

Information systems primarily support:

a)

Random activities

b)

Organizational operations

c)

Virus creation

d)

Hardware sales

42.

Information flows in an organization from:

a)

Only top to bottom

b)

Only bottom to top

c)

Multiple directions

d)

Nowhere

43.

Which is NOT a component of a computer-based information system?

a)

Software

b)

People

c)

Hardware

d)

Furniture

44.

The main purpose of a Transaction Processing System (TPS) is to:

a)

Support routine transactions

b)

Make top-level decisions

c)

Predict market trends

d)

Create documents

45.

An MIS provides:

a)

Operational reports

b)

Executive summaries only

c)

Encryption tools

d)

Database recovery

46.

Which system helps in analyzing large amounts of data for decision-making?

a)

TPS

b)

DSS

c)

Printer

d)

Router

47.

Executive Support Systems are designed for:

a)

Clerical staff

b)

Middle managers

c)

Top executives

d)

Students

48.

Organizational information flow that starts from the top is called:

a)

Horizontal

b)

Upward

c)

Downward

d)

Diagonal

49.

A DSS provides:

a)

Routine data only

b)

Analytical tools

c)

Receipts

d)

Passwords

50.

TPS examples include:

a)

Payroll processing

b)

Project planning

c)

Board meetings

d)

Strategy development

51.

Information is considered useful when it is:

a)

Late

b)

Accurate

c)

Incomplete

d)

Outdated

52.

Middle managers primarily use:

a)

ESS

b)

MIS

c)

HTML

d)

CSS

53.

An ESS provides:

a)

Detailed reports

b)

Long-term strategic information

c)

Sales receipts

d)

Program code

54.

Computer-based systems rely heavily on:

a)

Random inputs

b)

Data processing

c)

Furniture

d)

Weather

55.

MIS stands for:

a)

Management Information System

b)

Managed Input System

c)

Main Information Storage

d)

Machine Internal Setup

56.

Vertical information flow usually refers to:

a)

Across departments

b)

From top to bottom

c)

Between competitors

d)

To customers only

57.

TPS is MOST essential for:

a)

Real-time transactions

b)

Strategic planning

c)

HTML formatting

d)

Web design

58.

DSS often includes:

a)

Mathematical models

b)

Chairs

c)

Printers

d)

Keyboards only

59.

What does an IS convert into information?

a)

Programs

b)

Data

c)

Furniture

d)

Images only

60.

MIS reports are usually:

a)

Unstructured

b)

Scheduled

c)

Random

d)

Unreliable

61.

Executive Support Systems emphasize:

a)

Highly detailed data

b)

Soft drink preferences

c)

Long-term decisions

d)

Routine tasks

62.

Computer-based systems include:

a)

Hardware and software

b)

Tables and chairs

c)

Walls and floors

d)

Cabinets

63.

The purpose of IS is to support:

a)

Business processes

b)

Cyberattacks

c)

System errors

d)

Hardware breakdowns

64.

Data becomes information when it is:

a)

Printed

b)

Processed and meaningful

c)

Stored only

d)

Colorful

65.

Which system helps top-level decision makers?

a)

TPS

b)

MIS

c)

ESS

d)

HTML

66.

Horizontal information flow occurs:

a)

Between departments

b)

From managers to employees

c)

From users to servers

d)

Only in databases

67.

A system is considered effective when it:

a)

Fails often

b)

Meets organizational goals

c)

Has no users

d)

Uses outdated technology

68.

Which is a type of computer-based information system?

a)

MIS

b)

Desk

c)

Chair

d)

Wall clock

69.

Information systems exist to:

a)

Process data

b)

Store viruses

c)

Delete passwords

d)

Block users

70.

Which system provides long-term business trends?

a)

TPS

b)

MIS

c)

ESS

d)

HTML

71.

Data refers to:

a)

Raw facts

b)

Processed information

c)

Images only

d)

Hardware tools

72.

Information is:

a)

Raw data

b)

Processed data

c)

Unorganized text

d)

Deleted files

73.

A database is a collection of:

a)

Random files

b)

Organized information

c)

Hardware parts

d)

Software errors

74.

DBMS stands for:

a)

Data Base Maintenance System

b)

Database Management System

c)

Data Backup Monitoring System

d)

Digital Base Model System

75.

The main purpose of a DBMS is to:

a)

Provide entertainment

b)

Manage databases

c)

Format documents

d)

Create viruses

76.

The smallest unit of data is:

a)

File

b)

Field

c)

Bit

d)

Table

77.

A record is a collection of:

a)

Bits

b)

Fields

c)

Tables

d)

Programs

78.

A table consists of:

a)

Software

b)

Columns and rows

c)

Only rows

d)

Only columns

79.

A primary key must be:

a)

Duplicated

b)

Unique

c)

Optional

d)

Random

80.

A foreign key is used to:

a)

Delete tables

b)

Link tables

c)

Print records

d)

Backup data

81.

Which is a type of database?

a)

Relational

b)

Furniture

c)

Computer mouse

d)

Monitor

82.

Data integrity refers to:

a)

Data damage

b)

Data accuracy

c)

Data deletion

d)

Data loss

83.

A data warehouse stores:

a)

Temporary files

b)

Large historical data

c)

Software drivers

d)

Game data

84.

A distributed database is:

a)

Stored in one place

b)

Spread across multiple sites

c)

Only on flash drives

d)

Offline only

85.

Data redundancy means:

a)

Organized data

b)

Duplicate data

c)

Encrypted data

d)

Normalized data

86.

SQL is used for:

a)

Hardware installation

b)

Data manipulation

c)

Graphic design

d)

Web hosting

87.

A DBMS provides:

a)

Security features

b)

Data breaches

c)

Malware

d)

Viruses

88.

Which is a DBMS issue?

a)

High cost

b)

Fast processing

c)

Data retrieval

d)

Security controls

89.

A schema describes:

a)

Hardware specs

b)

Database structure

c)

User password

d)

Network signal

90.

The process of structuring data to reduce redundancy is:

a)

Uploading

b)

Normalization

c)

Execution

d)

Debugging

91.

A field is also known as:

a)

Attribute

b)

Table

c)

DBMS

d)

Query

92.

A query retrieves:

a)

Data

b)

Furniture

c)

Hardware

d)

Colors

93.

A hierarchical database organizes data in:

a)

A tree structure

b)

Tables

c)

Grids

d)

Random form

94.

A relational database organizes data in:

a)

Tables

b)

Chains

c)

Graphs

d)

Audio form

95.

A database administrator is responsible for:

a)

Cleaning desks

b)

Maintaining databases

c)

Making videos

d)

Coding games

96.

A backup ensures:

a)

Data recovery after failure

b)

Data loss

c)

Virus removal

d)

Malware creation

97.

Which is NOT a database issue?

a)

Complexity

b)

Cost

c)

Data security

d)

Orderliness

98.

Metadata refers to:

a)

Data about data

b)

Random data

c)

Hardware data

d)

Online threats

99.

A flat-file database stores data in:

a)

Multiple tables

b)

A single table

c)

A tree

d)

A graph

100.

Which best describes a DBMS?

a)

Software for managing databases

b)

Hardware device

c)

Antivirus program

d)

Operating system

101.

Which database type handles images, audio, and video?

a)

Multimedia database

b)

Flat-file

c)

Hierarchical

d)

Relational

102.

A database transaction must be:

a)

ACID-compliant

b)

Optional

c)

Random

d)

Uncontrolled

103.

A view in a database is:

a)

Physical copy

b)

Virtual table

c)

Hardware component

d)

Data loss

104.

A database index improves:

a)

File deletion

b)

Query performance

c)

Virus detection

d)

Network speed

105.

A redundant database is one that:

a)

Has duplicate data

b)

Has no data

c)

Is always offline

d)

Only stores images

106.

Normal forms are used to:

a)

Style webpages

b)

Organize database structure

c)

Build hardware

d)

Reduce battery usage

107.

The DBMS component that authorizes users is the:

a)

Security manager

b)

Query engine

c)

Index manager

d)

Virus scan

108.

A data dictionary stores:

a)

Program code

b)

Definitions of data

c)

User passwords

d)

Website designs

109.

Which is a common database language?

a)

SQL

b)

HTML

c)

CSS

d)

JS

110.

Data anomalies occur due to:

a)

Redundancy

b)

Normalization

c)

Accurate records

d)

Encryption

111.

A database application software is used to:

a)

Play music

b)

Create and manage database solutions

c)

Design posters

d)

Browse the internet

112.

MS Access is an example of:

a)

Programming language

b)

Database application

c)

Operating system

d)

Malware

113.

Forms in DB applications are used for:

a)

Visual data input

b)

Gaming

c)

Formatting images

d)

Recording audio

114.

A report is used to:

a)

Delete data

b)

Present formatted output

c)

Create viruses

d)

Build web pages

115.

A query enables users to:

a)

Search and retrieve data

b)

Draw images

c)

Encrypt emails

d)

Format slides

116.

A macro in MS Access is used to:

a)

Automate tasks

b)

Install hardware

c)

Convert video

d)

Edit images

117.

A DB application supports:

a)

Data entry

b)

Data manipulation

c)

Data reporting

d)

All of the above

118.

Which file format typically stores Access databases?

a)

.txt

b)

.xlsx

c)

.accdb

d)

.exe

119.

Forms ensure:

a)

Unstructured input

b)

Accurate data entry

c)

Hardware upgrade

d)

File deletion

120.

DB application software is important because:

a)

It improves data accuracy and efficiency

b)

It slows processing

c)

It hides information

d)

It creates malware

121.

The preliminary investigation identifies:

a)

Software colors

b)

System problems and feasibility

c)

Employee tasks

d)

Printer errors

122.

Systems analysis focuses on:

a)

Understanding current system requirements

b)

Designing buildings

c)

Installing hardware only

d)

Creating viruses

123.

Systems design involves:

a)

Defining system architecture

b)

Playing games

c)

Permanent shutdown

d)

Formatting drives

124.

System development phase refers to:

a)

Coding and building the system

b)

System disposal

c)

System crashing

d)

Breakdowns

125.

System implementation includes:

a)

Converting users

b)

Installing and testing the system

c)

Destroying old data

d)

Random typing

126.

Systems maintenance ensures:

a)

System stops working

b)

System remains updated

c)

Data deletion

d)

Hardware failure

127.

A feasibility study includes:

a)

Operational feasibility

b)

Technical feasibility

c)

Economic feasibility

d)

All of the above

128.

A prototype is:

a)

Finished product

b)

Early working model

c)

Deleted program

d)

Virus scanner

129.

Rapid Application Development (RAD) emphasizes:

a)

Speed in system creation

b)

Slow planning

c)

Long coding hours

d)

Manual processing

130.

User requirements are gathered during:

a)

Systems analysis

b)

Systems design

c)

Systems testing

d)

Systems disposal

131.

Implementation strategies include:

a)

Direct conversion

b)

Parallel conversion

c)

Phased conversion

d)

All of the above

132.

Systems documentation includes:

a)

System design details

b)

Hardware pricing

c)

Personal emails

d)

Viruses

133.

System testing ensures:

a)

The system works correctly

b)

The network is always offline

c)

Data is deleted

d)

Users are replaced

134.

A data flow diagram (DFD) shows:

a)

Movement of data

b)

Movement of furniture

c)

Colors

d)

Images

135.

A Gantt chart is used for:

a)

Scheduling projects

b)

Creating images

c)

Testing code

d)

Running servers

136.

Maintenance includes:

a)

Updating the system

b)

Ignoring errors

c)

Stopping operations

d)

Causing failures

137.

The end-user is:

a)

System creator

b)

System analyst

c)

Person who uses the system

d)

Programmer only

138.

The coding phase comes after:

a)

System design

b)

System disposal

c)

System testing

d)

Feasibility study

139.

System documentation helps:

a)

Future maintenance

b)

Virus spread

c)

Hacking

d)

Data loss

140.

System analysis identifies:

a)

User needs

b)

Game rules

c)

Hardware pricing

d)

Web design colors

141.

Programming is the process of:

a)

Writing instructions for a computer

b)

Cleaning hardware

c)

Designing posters

d)

Playing games

142.

Program specification defines:

a)

Problem requirements

b)

Logo design

c)

Network structure

d)

HTML syntax

143.

Program design includes:

a)

Flowcharts and algorithms

b)

Social media posting

c)

File deletion

d)

Reducing RAM

144.

Program code refers to:

a)

Written instructions in a language

b)

Hardware components

c)

Operating system

d)

Internet speed

145.

Testing identifies:

a)

Program errors

b)

Sound quality

c)

Storage capacity

d)

Color themes

146.

Documentation helps:

a)

Users and developers understand the program

b)

Delete files

c)

Turn off computers

d)

Distract developers

147.

Program maintenance includes:

a)

Updating programs after deployment

b)

Breaking the program

c)

Corrupting files

d)

Printing data

148.

OOP stands for:

a)

Object-Oriented Programming

b)

Online Office Program

c)

Operating Output Panel

d)

One-On Processing

149.

1st generation languages are:

a)

Machine languages

b)

High-level languages

c)

SQL languages

d)

Web languages

150.

CASE tools support:

a)

Automated software development

b)

Gaming

c)

Virus creation

d)

File deletion

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