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U6 Summative ASSESSMENT

Total questions: 33

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which pharmacokinetic stage is MOST associated with predictable medication side effects?

a)

Absorption

b)

Distribution

c)

Metabolism

d)

Excretion

2.

Side effects occur mainly because:

a)

The body metabolizes all drugs too quickly

b)

Drugs bind to non-target receptors

c)

All medications are toxic at normal doses

d)

The patient takes the medication incorrectly

3.

Which best describes a predictable side effect?

a)

Sudden anaphylaxis

b)

Dry mouth from antihistamines

c)

Opposite effect from expected

d)

Reaction due to genetics

4.

A local side effect occurs:

a)

Everywhere in the body

b)

At the site of administration

c)

Only with oral drugs

d)

Only with IV medications

5.

Which is a systemic side effect?

a)

Throat irritation from inhaler

b)

Itching at injection site

c)

Hyperglycemia from oral steroids

d)

Tongue numbness from lozenges

6.

Which drug/receptor pairing is correct for an antagonist?

a)

Albuterol activating receptors

b)

Morphine stimulating opioid receptors

c)

Naloxone blocking opioid receptors

d)

Serotonin increasing receptor activity

7.

A medication that mimics a natural substance is called a:

a)

Blocker

b)

Agonist

c)

Enzyme

d)

Channel inhibitor

8.

Which statement describes an ADR?

a)

Always expected and mild

b)

Harmful, unintended, occurs at normal doses

c)

Only caused by allergies

d)

Only caused by overdoses

9.

Which is an example of an idiosyncratic reaction?

a)

Rash after penicillin

b)

Drowsiness from diphenhydramine

c)

Genetic inability to metabolize a drug leading to toxicity

d)

Nausea from antibiotics

10.

A paradoxical reaction is when the patient:

a)

Doesn’t respond at all

b)

Has the opposite effect of what’s expected

c)

Breaks out in hives

d)

Experiences sedation

11.

A child becomes hyper after taking diphenhydramine, which tends to have a sedative effect. This is a:

a)

Side effect

b)

Allergic reaction

c)

Paradoxical reaction

d)

Drug-food interaction

12.

Which condition indicates anaphylaxis?

a)

Mild rash

b)

Sneezing and watery eyes

c)

Swelling of tongue and difficulty breathing

d)

Nausea

13.

What is the FIRST response in a healthcare setting for anaphylaxis?

a)

Give oxygen

b)

Document the event

c)

Stop the medication immediately

d)

Provide fluids

14.

Which is a characteristic of a mild allergic reaction?

a)

Rash or hives

b)

Wheezing

c)

Low blood pressure

d)

Loss of consciousness

15.

A patient becomes confused, sweaty, and tachycardic while taking sertraline + tramadol. This is most likely an example of:

a)

Drug-Food Interaction

b)

Drug-Drug Interaction

c)

Drug-Disease Interaction

d)

Adverse Drug Reaction

16.

A drug interaction occurs when:

a)

Two drugs taste bad together

b)

One substance changes the effect of another medication

c)

A drug is expired

d)

A drug is taken without food

17.

Warfarin + NSAIDs both have indications that patients could have increased bleeding risk. This is an example of:

a)

Drug-Food Interaction

b)

Drug-Drug Interaction

c)

Drug-Disease Interaction

d)

Adverse Drug Reaction

18.

Which is an example of antagonism?

a)

Alcohol + sleep aids → increased sedation

b)

Two antihistamines → double sedation

c)

SMZ + TMP → greater effect together

d)

Albuterol (B2 agonist) blocked by propranolol (B-antagonist)

19.

Grapefruit juice affects certain drugs because it:

a)

Blocks absorption

b)

Neutralizes stomach acid

c)

Inhibits metabolism → increases drug levels

d)

Speeds up excretion

20.

A patient taking propranolol cannot respond well to albuterol (B2-agonist) because:

a)

Albuterol is expired

b)

Propranolol blocks beta-receptors needed for albuterol to work

c)

Calcium blocked the absorption

d)

Both drugs are antihistamines

21.

Probenecid increases penicillin levels in the blood and causes severe side effects. This is a:

a)

Drug-Food Interaction

b)

Drug-Drug Interaction

c)

Drug-Disease Interaction

d)

Adverse Drug Reaction

22.

Which is a drug-disease interaction?

a)

Penicillin + probenecid

b)

Pseudoephedrine worsening hypertension

c)

Calcium + antibiotics

d)

Naloxone reversing opioids

23.

Metformin is contraindicated in patients with Chronic Kidney Disease. This is an example of:

a)

Drug-Food Interaction

b)

Drug-Drug Interaction

c)

Drug-Disease Interaction

d)

Adverse Drug Reaction

24.

NSAIDs are often contraindicated in patients with gastrointestinal ulcers. This is an example of:

a)

Drug-Food Interaction

b)

Drug-Drug Interaction

c)

Drug-Disease Interaction

d)

Adverse Drug Reaction

25.

Which of the following best describes drug tolerance?

a)

The drug causes an immediate allergic reaction

b)

The drug's effectiveness decreases with repeated use

c)

The drug is always toxic to the body

d)

The patient experiences overdose symptoms

26.

Which of the following drugs is most likely to lead to the development of tolerance with repeated use?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Metformin

c)

Benzodiazepines

d)

Levothyroxine

27.

A patient who has been taking morphine for several weeks finds that the usual dose no longer provides adequate pain relief. This is an example of:

a)

Dependence

b)

Tolerance

c)

Idiosyncrasy

d)

Synergism

28.

Which of the following best describes cross tolerance?

a)

Two drugs produce the same effect

b)

Resistance to one drug increases sensitivity to another

c)

Tolerance to one drug leads to reduced response to another similar drug

d)

Allergic reaction to unrelated drugs

29.

Which class of drugs may exhibit cross-tolerance with chronic alcohol use?

a)

Opioids

b)

Benzodiazepines

c)

Beta blockers

d)

Antidepressants

30.

A patient is prescribed MAOIs for severe depression. They go out to dinner with their family and have a charcuterie board appetizer that includes primarily aged cheeses and meats. When they arrive home, they have a raging headache that sends them to the emergency room. Their blood pressure is 212/110 (hypertensive crisis). This is an example of:

a)

Drug-Food Interaction

b)

Drug-Drug Interaction

c)

Drug-Disease Interaction

d)

Adverse Drug Reaction

31.

Mr. Young has been prescribed levothyroxine for his recently diagnosed hypothyroidism. He hates taking medicine on an empty stomach, so drinks a very large glass of milk. After an hour, he still feels extremely fatigued. This is an example of:

a)

Drug-Food Interaction

b)

Drug-Drug Interaction

c)

Drug-Disease Interaction

d)

Adverse Drug Reaction

32-35.

During a regeneration, the Doctor detects signs of heart failure in a UNIT commander. Another physician prescribed diltiazem for tachycardia.

Using the clues provided, answer the questions:

Diltiazem

  • Class: Non-DHP calcium channel blocker

  • Indication: arrhythmias, hypertension

  • Common Side Effects: swelling, dizziness

  • ADRs: bradycardia, heart block

  • CI: pts with heart failure

  • BBWs: none

32.

What is the class of the drug diltiazem?

a)

Non-DHP calcium channel blocker

b)

Beta blocker

c)

ACE inhibitor

d)

Diuretic

33.

Why is diltiazem contraindicated in patients with heart failure?

a)

It can cause bradycardia and heart block

b)

It has a black box warning for heart failure

c)

It increases blood pressure

d)

It causes severe dizziness

34.

Which of the following is a common side effect of diltiazem?

a)

Swelling

b)

Heart block

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Hypertension

35.

This is an example of a drug- (a)   interaction.

36-40.

On a rescue mission in a mining colony, a worker with anemia (taking iron supplements) is given ciprofloxacin for an infection. Days later, they’re still feverish. The Doctor investigates. Using the clues below, answer the questions.

Ciprofloxacin

  • Class: fluoroquinolone antibiotic

  • Indication: UTI, skin infections

  • Common Side Effects: GI upset

  • ADRs: tendon rupture, neuropathy

  • BBWs: tendon rupture, CNS effects, neuropathy

Ferrous Sulfate

  • Class: iron nutrition supplement

  • Indication: anemia

  • Common Side Effects: constipation

  • Warning: may cause decreased absorption of -floxacin antibiotics

  • ADRs: iron overload (rare)

36.

What is the class of ciprofloxacin?

a)

Fluoroquinolone antibiotic

b)

Iron supplement

c)

Antiviral

d)

Antifungal

37.

Which of the following is a black box warning (BBW) for ciprofloxacin?

a)

Tendon rupture

b)

Constipation

c)

Iron overload

d)

GI upset

38.

What is a warning associated with ferrous sulfate?

a)

May cause decreased absorption of -floxacin antibiotics

b)

May cause tendon rupture

c)

May cause neuropathy

d)

May cause CNS effects

39.

Which of the following is a common side effect of ferrous sulfate?

a)

Constipation

b)

GI upset

c)

Tendon rupture

d)

Neuropathy

40.

This is an example of a drug- (a)   . (be so careful)