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Osteoporosis, obesity, culture and diversity

Total questions: 108

Worksheet time: 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Chronic, progressive metabolic bone disease characterized by low bone mass and structural deterioration of bone tissue

-increased bone fragility

(a)  

2.

Which of the following describes the bone pathophysiology of osteoporosis?

a)
Excessive bone formation leading to increased bone strength.
b)
Normal bone density with no changes in structure.
c)
Increased calcium absorption resulting in thicker bones.
d)

Remodeling-balance between osteoblast and osteoclast.

3.

Bone pathophysiology of osteoporosis is described as:

Osteoclasts ________ _______ too much.

Osteoblasts can't _______ ____ quick enough.

a)
Osteoclasts absorb calcium too much. Osteoblasts can't repair bone quick enough.
b)
Osteoclasts build bone too much. Osteoblasts can't break down bone quick enough.
c)
Osteoclasts resorb tissue too much. Osteoblasts can't create new cells quick enough.
d)
Osteoclasts resorb bone too much. Osteoblasts can't form new bone quick enough.
4.

What is the action of osteoblasts?

a)
The action of osteoblasts is to produce cartilage.
b)
The action of osteoblasts is to store fat.
c)
The action of osteoblasts is to form new bone.
d)
The action of osteoblasts is to break down bone.
5.

What is the action of the osteoclasts?

a)
The action of osteoclasts is to break down bone tissue.
b)
The action of osteoclasts is to stabilize bone structure.
c)
The action of osteoclasts is to transport nutrients in the bone.
d)
The action of osteoclasts is to form new bone tissue.
6.

What are influencing factors of bone pathophysiology?

a)

Vitamin D intake

b)

Medication side effects

c)

Infection rates

d)

Hormones (estrogen, testosterone, parathyroid hormone)

e)

Activity level

7.

Bones are more brittle with sedentary lifestyle.

a)
Bones are stronger with a sedentary lifestyle.
b)

True

c)
Bones become more flexible with inactivity.
d)

False

8.

The following etiologies are primary or secondary?

Menopausal and age associated

a)
Secondary
b)
Tertiary
c)
Quaternary
d)
Primary
9.

The following etiologies are primary or secondary?

-endocrine, malnutrition, corticosteroid use

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Historical

d)

Medical

10.

Which type of etiology of osteoporosis is described below?

-Linked to estrogen deficiency

a)
Secondary osteoporosis (due to chronic disease)
b)
Genetic osteoporosis (hereditary factors)
c)
Nutritional osteoporosis (calcium deficiency)
d)
Primary osteoporosis (postmenopausal osteoporosis)
11.

Which type of etiology of osteoporosis is described?

-Kidneys are unable to process vitamin D which causes a decrease in Ca absorption

a)

Secondary (Malnutrition)

b)

Secondary (Endocrine)

c)

Primary (Age associated)

d)

Primary (Menopausal)

12.

Secondary etiology of osteoporosis include:

a)

Genetic predisposition

b)

Age-related changes,

c)

Disease process

d)

Deficiency

e)

Corticosteroid use

13.

Which of the following are common fracture sites?

a)
Knee, elbow, wrist, spine
b)
Shoulder, foot, wrist, jaw
c)
Ankle, wrist, back, finger
d)

Wrist, spine, hip

14.

In osteoporosis, bone density increases.

a)
False
b)
Bone density remains unchanged.
c)
True
d)
Bone density decreases.
15.

Which of the following are non-modifiable risk factors for osteoporosis?

a)

Age, gender, family history, ethnicity, body frame size

b)
Vitamin D levels, calcium intake, physical activity
c)
Dietary choices, exercise habits, smoking status
d)
Hormonal changes, medication use, body weight
16.

Which of the following are modifiable risk factors for osteoporosis?

a)

Body weight, calcium/vitamin D intake, high protein/phosphate diet, smoking, alcohol

b)
Medication use, body weight, hormone levels, joint health
c)
Sun exposure, hydration, stress levels, sleep quality
d)
Genetics, age, gender, family history
17.

The use of what medication increases your risk for osteoporosis?

a)
Corticosteroids
b)
Antidepressants
c)
Beta-blockers
d)
Antibiotics
18.

Osteoporosis patients are typically asymptomatic until a fracture occurs.

a)

True

b)
Fractures in osteoporosis patients are usually painless.
c)
Osteoporosis is always diagnosed through blood tests.
d)

False

19.

Which of the following are clinical manifestations of osteoporosis?

a)

Nausea

b)

Back pain

c)

Loss of height

d)

Stooped posture (kyphosis)

e)

Fragility fractures

20.

Abdominal protrusion, numbness and tingling, acid reflux, respiratory problems, early satiety, constipation, body image disturbance. All are associated with?

a)
Diabetes
b)
Hypertension
c)
Anemia
d)

Kyphosis

21.

Why do pts with kyphosis experience constipation?

a)

Patients with kyphosis have increased physical activity promoting bowel movement.

b)
Patients with kyphosis have a diet rich in fiber that aids digestion.
c)
Constipation in kyphosis patients is caused by dehydration from medication.
d)
Patients with kyphosis experience constipation due to compression of abdominal organs affecting digestion.
22.

Why might your patient with kyphosis experience malnutrition?

a)
Patients with kyphosis often have better digestion and nutrient absorption.
b)

Kyphosis leads to satiety due to pressure on the stomach.

c)
Patients with kyphosis may experience malnutrition due to difficulty in eating and swallowing caused by their posture.
d)
Malnutrition in kyphosis is caused by excessive physical activity.
23.

Which of the following pts are most at risk for osteoporosis?

a)

68 year old male that quit smoking at age 50.

b)

32 year old woman that is post partem.

c)

76 year old woman that drinks three diet cokes a day.

d)

80 year old male that drinks two cups of coffee a day.

24.

Which of the following is the gold standard for diagnostic testing in osteoporosis?

a)
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b)
Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scanning
c)
Computed tomography (CT) scan
d)
Ultrasound bone density test
25.

Which T-score result when measuring bone density is considered normal?

a)
A T-score of -1.0 or higher is considered normal.
b)
A T-score of 0.0 or higher is considered normal.
c)
A T-score of -1.5 or higher is considered normal.
d)
A T-score of -2.5 or lower is considered normal.
26.

A T score of this indicated osteoporosis...

a)
-3.0 or lower
b)
-2.0 or lower
c)
-1.5 or higher
d)
-2.5 or lower
27.

Which adolescent pt is most at risk for osteoporosis?

a)

15 year old female cross country runner with a BMI of 18.2

b)

12 year old female that plays volleyball and has type one diabetes

c)

13 year old male that plays video games and has a BMI of 24.

d)

17 year old male that is involved with marching band.

28.

As part of osteoporosis prevention in pregnancy, we want to encourage a diet rich in ________

a)

iron

b)

protein

c)

sodium

d)

calcium

29.

Which of the following are good non pharmacological ways to manage osteoporosis?

a)
High-intensity cardio workouts
b)

Diet high in calcium and vitamin D

c)

Weight bearing/strength training exercise

d)

Assess home home for potential fall risks

e)

Smoking/alcohol cessation

30.

Which of the following pharm treatment for osteoporosis is described?

-(ex. alendronate) inhibits bone production

a)

Biphosphates

b)

Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMS)

c)

Calcitonin

d)

Parathyroid Hormone Analogs

31.

Which of the following pharm treatments for osteoporosis is described?

-(ex. raloxifene) mimics estrogen protective elements on the bone

a)

Parathyroid Hormone Analogs

b)
Calcitonin
c)

Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMS)

d)
Alendronate
32.

Which of the following pharm treatments for osteoporosis is described?

-slows bone loss

a)
Bisphosphonates
b)

Calcitonin

c)

Denosumab

d)
Hormone therapy
33.

Which of the following pharm treatments for osteoporosis is described?

-(ex. teriparatide) stimulates bone formation

a)

Denosumab

b)

Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMS)

c)

Parathyroid Hormone Analogs

d)

Calcitonin

34.

Which of the following pharm treatments for osteoporosis is described?

-inhibits osteoclast formation

a)
Denosumab
b)

Biphosphate

c)
Alendronate
d)
Risedronate
35.

Which of the following are supplements that can help manage osteoporosis?

a)

Iron

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Calcium Gluconate

d)

Vitamin D

36.

Diet management is an important part in managing your pts osteoporosis. Patients with osteoporosis should avoid the following in their diet...

a)

Excessive salt

b)

Red meat

c)

Juice

d)

Caffeine

e)

Diet Soda

37.

Diet management is an important part in managing your pts osteoporosis. Which of the following should you encourage your pt to consume more of?

a)

Steaks and red meat

b)

Fish

c)

Leafy green vegetables

d)

Yogurt

e)

Eggs

38.

Which of the following actions allows calcium to be absorbed effectively?

a)
Consuming vitamin D with calcium.
b)
Taking calcium on an empty stomach.
c)
Consuming high-fiber foods with calcium.
d)
Drinking coffee alongside calcium.
39.

You're getting ready to administer your patient's calcium to help manage their osteoporosis. What can you give with the supplement to ensure maximum absorption of calcium?

a)

Jell-O

b)

Pudding

c)

A diet coke

d)

Glass of orange juice

40.

Your pt is post-menopausal and managing her osteoporosis. How much calcium should you recommend her to take a day?

a)
1000 mg
b)

1200-1500 mg

c)

250-500 mg

d)

600-800 mg

41.

Which of the following independent nursing interventions could be helpful to a pt experiencing acute pain from osteoporosis?

a)

Apply heat pack

b)
Perform high-impact exercises
c)
Suggest complete bed rest
d)
Administer strong pain medications
42.

What is a healthy behavior that would be simple and easy to promote to your pt with osteoporosis?

a)

Get out in the sun

b)
Focus solely on high-impact sports.
c)
Limit calcium intake to reduce risk.
d)
Avoid all physical activity completely.
43.

Major public health issue linked to cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and other chronic conditions.

(a)  

44.

A BMI of 30> indicates...

a)
Normal weight
b)
Obesity
c)
Underweight
d)
Overweight
45.

A BMI of 25-29.9 indicates...

a)
overweight
b)
obese
c)
normal weight
d)
underweight
46.

A healthy BMI is...

a)
15.0 to 20.0
b)
25.0 to 30.0
c)
30.0 to 35.0
d)
18.5 to 24.9
47.

Which of the following describes the pathophysiology of obesity?

a)
Obesity is solely caused by a lack of physical activity.
b)

Obesity is a multifactorial disorder involving hormonal dysregulation (such as leptin and insulin resistance), genetic predisposition, and environmental influences that promote increased fat storage.

c)

Obesity results from positive energy imbalance, fat cells enlarge, adipose tissue secretes hormones and inflammatory markers.

d)
Obesity is only influenced by dietary choices.
48.

Which of the following factors contribute to the etiology of obesity?

a)
Cultural beliefs and traditions.
b)

Genetic, behavioral, environmental, metabolic, and psychological factors.

c)
Dietary habits and exercise routines.
d)
Age, gender, and ethnicity.
49.

Which of the following is the hunger center of the brain?

a)
Hypothalamus
b)
Amygdala
c)
Cerebellum
d)
Thalamus
50.

Which of the following etiology types for obesity is described?

-Account for 40-70% of obesity risks

-LEP (leptin gene): regulates appetite and energy balance

-MC4R: affect hunger and satiety signals

-Ex. Prader-Willi Syndrome

a)
Environmental influences
b)
Psychological factors
c)

Family history

d)
Genetic factors
51.

Which of the following types of etiology is described for obesity?

-Increases risk due to genetics but also shared lifestyle factors

a)
Genetic predisposition
b)
Environmental triggers
c)
Psychological factors
d)

Family history

52.

Which of the following types of etiology for obesity is described?

-Sedentary lifestyle

-High calorie diet

-Portion sizes

-Socioeconomic status

a)

Environmental factors

b)

Behavioral factors

c)
Genetic predisposition
d)
Psychological factors
53.

Which of the following etiology factors is described for obesity?

-Emotional eating

-Poor sleeping patterns

-Screen time

a)

Psychological factors

b)

Behavioral factors

c)
Genetic predisposition
d)

Metabolic factors

54.

Which of the following etiologies is described for obesity?

-Basal Metabolic Rate

-Insulin resistance

-Thyroid dysfunction

a)

Metabolic Factors

b)
Genetic predisposition
c)
Sedentary lifestyle
d)
High cholesterol levels
55.

Which of the following etiologies is described for obesity?

-depression

-anxiety

-stress

-food being used as a coping mechanism

a)

Psychological factors

b)

Metabolic factors

c)

Environmental factors

d)

Behavioral factors

56.

Which of the following etiologies for obesity is described:

-Cushing's Syndrome-elevated cortisol levels

-Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)

-Medications-corticosteroids, antidepressants, and antipsychotics

a)

Metabolic Factors

b)

Endocrine/Medical Factors

c)

Socio-Cultural Factors

d)

Psychological Factors

57.

Which of the following etiologies are described for obesity:

-Cultural norms: higher body weight associated with health or prosperity

-Marketing/media

a)

Psychological Factors

b)

Metabolic Factors

c)

Endocrine/Medical Factors

d)

Socio-Culture Factors

58.

Which type of obesity is described?

-"apple shape"

-waist circumference: male =>40 inches female =>35 inches

-increase in visceral fat

a)

Syndrome X

b)

Upper Body Obesity

"Central"

c)

Lower Body Obesity "Peripheral"

d)

Metabolic Syndrome

59.

People with upper body obesity (Central) are at risk for which of the following conditions?

a)

Metabolic syndrome, cardiovascular diseases, type 2 diabetes, sleep apnea, HTN.

b)
Anemia, thyroid disorders, digestive issues, and vision problems.
c)
Bone fractures, joint pain, sleep apnea, and migraines.
d)
Respiratory diseases, liver disorders, skin conditions, and allergies.
60.

Which of the following describe metabolic syndrome?

a)
A single condition characterized by low blood pressure and fatigue.
b)
A rare genetic disorder affecting only cholesterol levels.
c)

A cluster of conditions including hypertension, Type 2 DM, obesity, and abnormal cholesterol levels.

d)
A temporary state caused by excessive exercise and dieting.
61.

A person with metabolic syndrome has an increased risk for which of the following?

a)

Heart disease

b)

Stroke

c)

Diabetes

d)

Cancer

62.

Which of the following are the five conditions that would classify you for metabolic syndrome?

a)
Low body mass index, normal blood pressure, low blood sugar, and high cholesterol levels.
b)

Abdominal pain, low blood pressure, high insulin levels, low trigylcerides, and normal cholesterol levels.

c)

High physical activity, low body fat, normal blood sugar, and low triglycerides, high blood pressure.

d)

Abdominal obesity, high triglycerides, high blood pressure, high blood sugar, and abnormal cholesterol levels.

63.

Which of the following patients would you classify as having metabolic syndrome?

a)
  • Waist circumference: 42 inches

  • Triglycerides: 120 mg/dL

  • HDL: 55 mg/dL

  • BP: 118/72

  • Fasting glucose: 90 mg/dL

b)
  • Waist circumference: 38 inches

  • Triglycerides: 190 mg/dL

  • HDL: 32 mg/dL

  • BP: 128/84

  • Fasting glucose: 110 mg/dL

c)
  • Waist circumference: 36 inches

  • Triglycerides: 160 mg/dL

  • HDL: 60 mg/dL

  • BP: 140/90

  • Fasting glucose: 95 mg/dL

d)
  • Waist circumference: 41 inches

  • Triglycerides: 170 mg/dL

  • HDL: 38 mg/dL

  • BP: 136/88

  • Fasting glucose: 105 mg/dL

64.

Which of the following conditions would put your client at risk for metabolic syndrome?

a)

BP of 128/68

b)

Waist circumference of 45

c)

Fasting glucose of 118

d)

HDL Cholesterol of 34

65.

Which of the following types of obesity is described?

-Pear shape

-Fat accumulation in hips/thighs

-more common in women

-mechanical concern

*more difficult to treat but less complications

a)

Upper Body Obesity (Central)

b)
Android obesity
c)

Lower Body Obesity (Peripheral)

d)
Abdominal obesity
66.

Your patient with lower body obesity (peripheral) is at greater risk for which of the following conditions?

a)

Joint Pain

b)
Heart disease and stroke
c)

Varicose Veins

d)

Venous insufficiency

67.

Obesity in children is classified as...

a)

BMI >95th percentile for others in the same age and sex

b)

BMI <25th percentile for others in the same age and sex

c)

55th percentile and higher

d)

10% and lower

68.

Pregnant women have a decreased risk for metabolic syndrome.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

Around which age do metabolic rates decrease?

a)

80

b)

65

c)

50

d)

35

70.

Which of the following is an accurate representation of the plate method?

a)

Half the plate is filled with protein foods, one quarter with fruits, and one quarter with grains.

b)

One quarter of the plate is lean protein, one quarter is whole grains or starchy foods, and one half is non-starchy vegetables.

c)

Half the plate is fruits, one quarter is vegetables, and one quarter is carbohydrates.

d)

The plate is divided evenly into three sections: one third protein, one third vegetables, and one third desserts or snacks.

71.

Which of the following are types of bariatric surgeries?

a)

Gastric Banding

b)
Appendectomy
c)

Sleeve Gastrectomy

d)

Roux-En-Y

72.

Your patient just had Roux-En-Y bariatric surgery. What possible complications from this surgery do you need to monitor for?

a)

Band slip, band erosion, port infection

b)
Increased appetite post-surgery
c)

Staple line leaks, bleeding, stenosis

d)

Dumping syndrome, cholethiasis, ulcerations

73.

You are caring for a bariatric pt that just underwent a sleeve gastrectomy procedure. What possible complications do you need to look out for?

a)

Staple line leaks, bleeding, stenosis

b)

Dumping syndrome, cholethiasis, ulcerations

c)

Band slip, band erosion, port infection

74.

You are caring for a bariatric pt that just underwent a gastric banding procedure. What possible complications do you need to look out for?

a)

Bandslip, band erosion, port infection

b)

Staple line leaks, bleeding, stenosis

c)

Dumping syndrome, cholethiasis, ulcerations

75.

What are some long-term complications of weight loss surgery?

a)

Acid-reflux, chronic nausea and vomiting, dilation of esophagus, food restrictions.

b)
Short-term weight loss, better sleep, and increased exercise capacity.
c)
Weight gain, improved digestion, and reduced energy levels.
d)
Increased appetite, improved metabolism, and enhanced mood.
76.

The patterns of behavior and thinking that people living in social groups learn, develop, and share

(a)  

77.

The array of differences among individuals, groups, and communities

-unique variations among and between individuals (genetics and cultural background, but refined by experience and personal choice)

a)
Diversity
b)
Similarity
c)
Homogeneity
d)
Uniformity
78.

Categorized around racial, ethnic, religious, or socially common patterns

a)

Cultural groups

b)
Cultural classifications
c)
Ethnic groupings
d)
Social identity types
79.

Group of individuals who have common characteristics, including nationality, language, values, and customs, and they share a cultural heritage

a)
national identity
b)
social group
c)
ethnic group
d)
cultural community
80.

People within a culture whose practices or beliefs are separate from the dominant culture

a)
subculture
b)
counterculture
c)
mainstream
d)
cultural norm
81.

Cultures and subcultures coexisting within a given society in which no one culture dominates

a)

Multiculturalism

b)
Cultural Homogeneity
c)
Assimilation
d)
Monoculture
82.

Supported and shaped by a culture's worldview

-perceived ideas and attitudes about the word, or other people and life in general

-how do they explain the meaning of life?

-help to: define meaning, identify acceptable behaviors, choose emotional reactions, determine appropriate actions

a)

Emotional Regulation

b)

Multiculturism

c)

Values and Beliefs

d)

Subculture

83.

Influence individual decisions and actions

-passed on from generation to generation

*may be rooted in religious faith or practices

a)
customs
b)

Values and Beliefs

c)

Belief Systems

d)

Religion

84.

The nurse is assessing a postmenopausal client. What subjective data suggest a concern for osteoporosis?
A) Heart rate of 86 and blood pressure of 100/60
B) Patient reports lower back pain 8/10
C) Latest DEXA Scan result was -2.5
D) Reports not eating dairy due to lactose intolerance

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

85.

The nurse is caring for four patients. Which patient is at greatest risk for developing Osteoporosis?
a ) 73-year-old man who has five alcoholic drinks per week and limits sun exposure to prevent recurrence of skin cancer.
b )84-year-old man who has recently been diagnosed with hypothyroidism and is prescribed levothyroxine (Synthroid).
c )69-year-old woman who had a renal transplant 5 years ago and has been taking prednisone to prevent organ rejection.
d )55-year-old woman who recently had a hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy and refuses estrogen therapy.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

86.

Adapting to and integrating characteristics of the dominant culture

a)
Cultural assimilation
b)
Cultural exchange
c)
Cultural integration
d)
Cultural appropriation
87.

Accepting the majority group's culture as one's own

a)
Cultural exchange
b)
Cultural integration
c)
Cultural appropriation
d)

Cultural acculturation

88.

Differential treatment of individuals or groups based on categories such as race, age, weight, gender, sexual orientation, or social class

a)
Discrimination
b)
Favoritism
c)
Prejudice
d)
Bias
89.

Overgeneralization of group characteristics reinforcing societal biases

a)
Profiling
b)
Stereotyping
c)
Categorizing
d)
Labeling
90.

Favoring a group or individual over another

a)
prejudice
b)
partiality
c)
bias
d)
favoritism
91.

Judgements about cultural groups or vulnerable populations that are unfavorable

a)

Prejudice

b)
Social acceptance
c)
Positive reinforcement
d)
Cultural appreciation
92.

The ability to apply knowledge and skills to provide high-quality, evidence based care to patients of diverse backgrounds and beliefs

a)
Uniform patient approach
b)
Standardized care
c)
Generalized treatment
d)

Culturally competence

93.

When using interpreter services, which factor should the nurse consider in order to effectively facilitate communication with clients who do not speak English?
A. Use short questions that can be asked all at one time for the sake of efficiency.
B. Also make note of the nonverbal communication of the clients.
C. Encourage family members to interpret to promote client confidentiality.
D. Address questions and maintain eye contact with the interpreter at all times.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

94.

A nurse is preparing for a community health education program addressing health promotion, disease prevention, and illness management. Which sociocultural component is most important for the nurse to consider when anticipating individual client motivation in response to the education provided?
A. Sexual orientation
B. Immigration status
C. Environmental control
D. Physical characteristics

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

95.

Is the following dialogue an example of change talk or sustain talk?

-"I know I should stop smoking because it is bad for my child's asthma."

a)

Change

b)

Sustain

96.

Is the following dialogue change talk or sustain talk?

-"It is so hard to stop smoking"

a)

Change

b)

Sustain

97.

Patient focused nursing (not traditional disease-focused)

-goal of healing the whole person

a)
Healing the whole person is not a nursing goal.
b)

Family-oriented nursing

c)

Disease-focused nursing

d)

Holistic nursing

98.

Combining traditional treatments with alternative therapies

-meditation, yoga, message therapy, herbal supplements

a)

Holistic nursing

b)

Natural remedies

c)

Integrative therapy

d)

Medicine therapy

99.

combines nurse’s perception & communication
• Nurse immerses self in interaction with patient
• Patient has authority to make own decisions
• Nurse acts as guide, but lets patient lead without judging/labeling
• Could involve simply being there, leaving patient with memory of interaction

a)

Presencing

b)

Intentionality

c)

Empowerment

d)

Compassion

100.

works in conjunction with others, not trying to impose nurse’s will
• Nurse must surrender idea of directing outcomes & setting goals

a)

Intentionality

b)

Presencing

c)

Empowerment

d)

Accountability

101.

During a midterm evaluation, the nurse educator tells the students they need to
work on improving their aesthetic knowing. What is a good way for the students to accomplish this?
A. Study harder.
B. Take better notes.
C. Read about the same topic from a variety of sources.
D. Spend time in the clinical area with seasoned nurses.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

102.

The student nurse is following a preceptor on the assigned clinical shift. Which behavior of the nurse would the student interpret as caring?
A. Making sure that all medications and treatments ordered for the client are completed on time
B. Using aseptic technique correctly when performing all dressing changes ordered for the client
C. Advising the physician that the client wants to speak to them prior to a procedure being performed
D. Explaining an invasive procedure to the client, then asking whether it is alright to begin the procedure

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

103.

A nurse educator teaches students about caring nursing practice. Which situation shows that the nurse is able to best implement the whole idea of caring?
A. The nurse is able to carve out time for a favorite hobby at least once a week.
B. The nurse is a volunteer at church and school events.
C. The nurse makes lists every morning so the day stays organized and planned.
D. The nurse takes care of aging parents in addition to providing care to the immediate family.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

104.

A nurse preceptor is working with a newly licensed nurse in the newborn nursery. The newly licensed nurse asked if infants experience pain, and if so, how it is managed. What is the nurse preceptor’s best response?
A. “Research shows that infants do not experience pain so there is no need to provide any interventions to address this.”
B. “Infants experience pain, but the healthcare providers do not choose to treat it unless it is severe.”
C. “Infants experience pain, and there are several nursing interventions that can comfort the infant during a painful procedure.”
D. “The nursing staff can only intervene if the healthcare provider writes an order for an intervention.”

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

105.

Everyone gets the same resources, treatment, education

-everyone is treated identically without considering individual needs or barriers

a)

Racism

b)

Prejudice

c)

Equity

d)

Equality

106.

All of your patients receive the same exact discharge instructions, regardless of reading level, culture, or support system. This is an example of...

a)

Bias

b)

Unfairness

c)

Equality

d)

Equity

107.

This means that everyone gets the resources and support they specifically need to achieve the same health outcomes.

-individualizes care based on barriers, risks, and needs

a)

Equity

b)

Equality

c)

Racism

d)

Bias

108.

The following is an example of what in nursing?

Providing discharge teaching using pictures for a patient with low literacy, giving interpreter services, or arranging transport for someone with limited access to care.

a)

Equity

b)

Equality

c)

Justice

d)

Fairness