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Quiz Penyakit Jantung

Total questions: 107

Worksheet time: 1hrs 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 55-year-old male patient comes to the ER with complaints of severe chest pain that feels like pressure, radiating to the left arm and neck, and does not improve with rest. The patient's history includes hypertension and active smoking. These symptoms most likely lead to the diagnosis:

a)

Stable Angina Pectoris

b)

Unstable Angina Pectoris

c)

Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI)

d)

Congestive Heart Failure

e)

Pericarditis

2.

Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms primarily underlies the occurrence of stable angina pectoris?

a)

Rupture of atherosclerotic plaque.

b)

Imbalance between oxygen supply and myocardial demand.

c)

Myocardial tissue necrosis.

d)

Vascular endothelial damage due to inflammation.

e)

Left ventricular hypertrophy.

3.

A patient is diagnosed with Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI) and is given initial therapy in the ER. The antiplatelet drug that works as an irreversible cyclooxygenase (COX) inhibitor is:

a)

Clopidogrel

b)

Aspirin

c)

Ticagrelor

d)

Abciximab

e)

Warfarin

4.

In the treatment of congestive heart failure, the primary goal of using ACE inhibitors (e.g., Lisinopril) is to:

a)

Reduce afterload and preload by inhibiting ventricular remodeling.

b)

Directly increase myocardial contractility.

c)

Lower heart rate.

d)

Prevent fluid accumulation by increasing diuresis.

e)

Control sympathetic response.

5.

A heart failure patient with an ejection fraction of less than 40% is prescribed Spironolactone. The main mechanism of action of this drug is:

a)

Calcium channel blocker.

b)

Aldosterone antagonist.

c)

Beta-blocker.

d)

Loop Diuretic.

e)

ACE inhibitor.

6.

The condition in which the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's metabolic needs, despite adequate preload, is called:

a)

Acute Myocardial Infarction

b)

Angina Pectoris

c)

Pulmonary Hypertension

d)

Congestive Heart Failure

e)

Atherosclerosis

7.

A pharmacist explains to a patient about the use of sublingual Nitroglycerin for angina. The patient should stop using it and seek medical help if chest pain does not improve after administering the dose:

a)

First dose

b)

Second dose

c)

Third dose

d)

Four doses

e)

Seven doses

8.

In acute myocardial infarction, the most specific and sensitive cardiac biomarker for diagnosis is:

a)

C-Reactive Protein (CRP)

b)

Creatine Kinase-MB (CK-MB)

c)

Troponin I or T

d)

Brain Natriuretic Peptide (BNP)

e)

Myoglobin

9.

Which class of drugs is most effective in improving survival in patients with systolic heart failure?

a)

Loop Diuretics

b)

ACE inhibitors and Beta-blockers

c)

Digoxin

d)

Vasodilators

e)

Antiplatelet agents

10.

The use of Beta-blockers (e.g., Metoprolol) in heart failure patients should be started at a low dose and titrated slowly. The goal is to:

a)

Avoid side effects of orthostatic hypotension.

b)

Reduce the risk of severe bradycardia.

c)

Avoid initiating acute heart failure exacerbation.

d)

Ensure patient tolerance to the medication.

e)

All of the above.

11.

The pathophysiology of atherosclerosis begins with damage to the endothelial layer of blood vessels. The risk factor that most contributes to this damage is:

a)

Exercise

b)

Stress

c)

Hypertension

d)

Fiber intake

e)

Vitamin C intake

12.

The most important non-pharmacological therapy for patients with Coronary Artery Disease (CAD) is:

a)

High-dose vitamin C intake.

b)

Low-carbohydrate and high-fat diet.

c)

Quit smoking, DASH diet, and regular exercise.

13.

The most important coronary heart disease (CHD) is:

a)

Consuming high-dose vitamin C.

b)

Low-carbohydrate and high-fat diet.

c)

Quitting smoking, DASH diet, and regular exercise.

d)

Only limiting water intake.

e)

Acupuncture.

14.

Which of the following statements is the role of Digoxin in HFrEF?

a)

Increasing patient survival.

b)

Reducing symptoms and decreasing hospitalizations.

c)

Lowering blood pressure.

d)

Reducing fluid retention.

e)

Increasing renal blood flow.

15.

In the pathophysiology of heart failure, activation of the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone (RAAS) system and the sympathetic nervous system causes:

a)

Decreased afterload.

b)

Increased preload and afterload.

c)

Decreased preload and afterload.

d)

Decreased heart rate.

e)

Increased ejection fraction.

16.

Common side effects of loop diuretics (e.g., Furosemide) that need to be monitored in heart failure patients are:

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hypernatremia

d)

Hypercalcemia

e)

Fluid retention

17.

The condition of sudden decline in kidney function that is generally reversible if the cause is addressed is called:

a)

Acute Kidney Injury

b)

Chronic Kidney Disease

c)

Diabetic Nephropathy

d)

Renal Hypertension

e)

Glomerulonephritis

18.

Which of the following causes is most commonly responsible for prerenal Acute Kidney Injury (AKI)?

a)

Urinary tract obstruction.

b)

Acute tubular necrosis due to nephrotoxins.

c)

Decreased effective circulating blood volume.

d)

Glomerulus inflammation.

e)

Urinary tract infection.

19.

In cases of Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD), the most common metabolic complication that requires calcium/vitamin D supplementation is:

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Anemia

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Renal osteodystrophy

e)

Hypernatremia

20.

The main goal of pharmacological therapy for patients with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is:

a)

To accelerate the glomerular filtration rate.

b)

To halt the progression of kidney disease.

c)

To permanently heal kidney damage.

d)

To eliminate all symptoms.

e)

To increase creatinine levels.

21.

A CKD patient with hypertension and proteinuria is prescribed an ACE inhibitor (e.g., Lisinopril). The main goal of using this drug in CKD is:

a)

To increase blood pressure.

b)

To reduce proteinuria and slow the progression of kidney disease.

c)

To increase serum potassium levels.

d)

To reduce anemia.

e)

To address fluid retention.

22.

Which class of drugs should be avoided or used very cautiously in patients with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) because they can accelerate kidney damage?

a)

Diuretics

b)

Beta-blockers

c)

Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs)

d)

Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPIs)

e)

Certain antibiotics

23.

Anemia in Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is caused by:

a)

Iron deficiency.

b)

Increased erythropoietin.

c)

Decreased erythropoietin production.

d)

Increased destruction of red blood cells.

e)

Increased vitamin B12.

24.

The pharmacological therapy for anemia in CKD that stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow is:

a)

Ferrous Sulfate

b)

Folic Acid

c)

Erythropoiesis-Stimulating Agents (ESA), e.g., Epoetin.

d)

Vitamin B12

e)

Blood transfusion

25.

In post-renal Acute Kidney Injury (AKI), the main cause of decreased kidney function is:

a)

Dehydration

b)

Cardiogenic shock

c)

Urinary tract obstruction

d)

Glomerular damage

e)

Consumption of nephrotoxic drugs

26.

One of the non-pharmacological dietary recommendations for CKD patients is:

a)

High protein diet.

b)

Low protein diet.

27.

Salah satu rekomendasi diet non-farmakologi untuk pasien GGK adalah:

a)

Diet tinggi protein.

b)

Pembatasan asupan fosfor, kalium, dan natrium.

c)

Peningkatan asupan cairan.

d)

Konsumsi lemak jenuh yang tinggi.

e)

Tidak ada batasan diet.

28.

Pada GGK stadium lanjut, komplikasi yang memerlukan terapi dialisis atau transplantasi ginjal adalah:

a)

Hipertensi yang terkontrol

b)

Anemia ringan

c)

GFR di atas 60 mL/menit/1.73 m$^2$

d)

End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD)

e)

Proteinuria

29.

Manakah dari obat berikut yang sering disesuaikan dosisnya atau dihindari pada pasien GGK karena eliminasi utamanya melalui ginjal?

a)

Digoxin

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Paracetamol

d)

Metformin

e)

Semua jawaban benar.

30.

Pasien GGK yang juga menderita hipertensi sering diresepkan diuretik. Diuretik yang paling efektif pada fungsi ginjal yang sangat menurun (GFR <30 mL/menit) adalah:

a)

Diuretik Tiazid

b)

Diuretik Loop

c)

Diuretik Hemat Kalium

d)

Inhibitor Karbonik Anhidrase

e)

Diuretik Osmotik

31.

Komplikasi hiperkalemia (kalium tinggi) pada GGK dapat diatasi dengan terapi farmakologi, seperti:

a)

Pemberian diuretik tiazid.

b)

Pemberian insulin dan dekstrosa.

c)

Pembatasan asupan air.

d)

Pemberian garam.

e)

Peningkatan asupan kalium.

32.

Pada Gagal Ginjal Akut (GGA), fase oligurik ditandai dengan:

a)

Produksi urine yang meningkat drastis.

b)

Produksi urine yang menurun secara signifikan.

c)

GFR yang meningkat pesat.

d)

Kadar kreatinin serum yang menurun.

e)

Normalisasi elektrolit.

33.

Kondisi hilangnya menstruasi selama minimal 3 siklus berturut-turut pada wanita yang memiliki riwayat siklus menstruasi normal sebelumnya, disebut:

a)

Dismenore

b)

Menorrhagia

c)

Amenore Sekunder

d)

Endometriosis

e)

Polimenore

34.

Manakah dari obat berikut yang merupakan kontraindikasi mutlak selama kehamilan karena risiko teratogenik yang tinggi?

a)

Paracetamol

b)

Amoxicillin

c)

Lisinopril

d)

Metformin

e)

Ranitidin

35.

Seorang pasien wanita dengan dismenore primer (nyeri haid) datang ke apotek. Mekanisme patofisiologi dismenore primer melibatkan produksi berlebihan hormon:

a)

Progesteron

b)

Estrogen

c)

Prostaglandin

d)

GnRH

e)

LH

36.

Terapi farmakologi lini pertama untuk dismenore primer adalah:

a)

Antibiotik

b)

Diuretik

c)

Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs)

d)

Antidepresan

e)

Kontrasepsi oral

37.

Kategori kehamilan yang digunakan untuk mengklasifikasikan keamanan obat pada kehamilan, di mana studi pada hewan menunjukkan risiko tetapi studi pada manusia tidak tersedia atau studi pada hewan dan manusia tidak menunjukkan risiko, adalah:

a)

Kategori A

b)

Kategori B

c)

Kategori C

d)

Kategori D

e)

Kategori X

38.

Pada kondisi premenstrual syndrome (PMS) yang parah, obat golongan antidepresan yang dapat digunakan untuk mengelola gejala emosional adalah:

a)

Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCA)

b)

Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)

c)

Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs)

d)

Benzodiazepine

e)

Antipsikotik

39.

Kondisi di mana implantasi jaringan yang mirip dengan lapisan rahim tumbuh di luar rahim, menyebabkan nyeri hebat, disebut:

a)

Dismenore

b)

Fibroid Uterus

c)

Endometriosis

d)

Sindrom Ovarium Polikistik (PCOS)

e)

Amenore

40.

Obat antihipertensi yang dianggap aman dan sering digunakan sebagai lini pertama pada pasien hipertensi saat kehamilan adalah:

a)

Lisinopril

b)

Valsartan

c)

Methyldopa

d)

Amlodipine

e)

Captopril

41.

What is the first-line medication for hypertension in pregnancy?

a)

Lisinopril

b)

Valsartan

c)

Methyldopa

d)

Amlodipine

e)

Captopril

42.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of Paracetamol during pregnancy?

a)

Highly teratogenic and should be avoided.

b)

Safe to use at recommended doses for pain and fever.

c)

Should not be used in the third trimester.

d)

Inhibits fetal development.

e)

Has side effects of hypokalemia.

43.

The loss of a fetus spontaneously before 20 weeks of gestation is called:

a)

Ectopic Pregnancy

b)

Spontaneous Abortion

c)

Pre-eclampsia

d)

Eclampsia

e)

Placenta previa

44.

In cases of Hyperemesis Gravidarum (severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy), the recommended first-line non-pharmacological therapy is:

a)

Drinking large amounts of water on an empty stomach.

b)

Eating small but frequent meals.

c)

High-fat and protein diet.

d)

Avoiding prenatal vitamins.

e)

Eating spicy foods.

45.

The pharmacological therapy for Hyperemesis Gravidarum that can be considered is:

a)

Ondansetron

b)

Metformin

c)

Lisinopril

d)

Ibuprofen

e)

Warfarin

46.

Which of the following drugs is generally safe to use in breastfeeding women?

a)

Codeine

b)

Warfarin

c)

Paracetamol

d)

Amoxicillin

e)

Both c and d are correct.

47.

In patients with Pre-eclampsia, the main symptoms of concern are:

a)

Headache and hypertension

b)

Hypertension and proteinuria

c)

Hypotension and dizziness

d)

Weight loss and nausea

e)

Hyperglycemia and polyuria

48.

The condition where the menstrual cycle is shorter than 21 days is called:

a)

Oligomenorrhea

b)

Menorrhagia

c)

Dysmenorrhea

d)

Polymenorrhea

e)

Amenorrhea

49.

Menopause is clinically defined as the cessation of menstruation for:

a)

6 months

b)

12 months

c)

2 years

d)

3 months

e)

1 month

50.

Which of the following hormonal changes is the main cause of menopause symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness?

a)

Increased levels of estrogen and progesterone.

b)

Decreased levels of estrogen and progesterone.

c)

Increased levels of testosterone.

d)

Decreased levels of TSH.

e)

Increased levels of prolactin.

51.

Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) during menopause has risks and benefits. HRT is most recommended for:

a)

Women with a history of breast cancer.

b)

All postmenopausal women.

c)

Women experiencing severe menopause symptoms that disrupt quality of life.

d)

Women with a history of heart disease.

e)

Men with menopause symptoms.

52.

Non-pharmacological therapy for vasomotor symptoms of menopause (hot flashes) may include:

a)

Excessive caffeine consumption.

b)

Regular exercise and avoiding triggers like spicy foods.

c)

Taking hot baths before bed.

d)

Wearing thick layered clothing.

e)

All answers are correct.

53.

In addition to hormone replacement therapy, antidepressant medications such as SSRIs can be used to relieve menopause symptoms, particularly:

a)

Vaginal dryness

b)

Osteoporosis

c)

Hot flashes

d)

Hair loss

e)

Weight gain

54.

Which of the following long-term complications is most often associated with decreased estrogen levels post-menopause?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Diabetes mellitus

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

Thyroid disease

e)

Kidney stones

55.

A postmenopausal woman experiences vaginal dryness and atrophy. The most effective pharmacological therapy for these local symptoms is:

a)

Systemic estrogen therapy.

b)

Topical estrogen (e.g., vaginal cream).

c)

Oral bisphosphonates.

d)

SSRIs.

e)

Androgens.

56.

What are the local treatments mentioned?

a)

Systemic estrogen therapy.

b)

Topical estrogen (e.g., vaginal cream).

c)

Oral bisphosphonates.

d)

SSRIs.

e)

Androgens.

57.

In the pathophysiology of menopause, the decrease in estrogen and progesterone levels causes an increase in gonadotropin hormones such as:

a)

LH and FSH

b)

TSH and ACTH

c)

Prolactin

d)

Insulin

e)

Cortisol

58.

Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) combined (estrogen and progesterone) is usually given to:

a)

Women who have undergone hysterectomy.

b)

Women who still have a uterus.

c)

Women who cannot tolerate estrogen.

d)

Men post-menopause.

e)

All women.

59.

Which of the following statements is a benefit of HRT?

a)

Increased risk of breast cancer.

b)

Increased risk of heart disease.

c)

Alleviating vasomotor symptoms and preventing osteoporosis.

d)

Only preventing osteoporosis.

e)

Only alleviating hot flashes.

60.

Autoimmune diseases occur when the immune system:

a)

Attacks foreign cells.

b)

Attacks its own cells and tissues.

c)

Is unable to fight infections.

d)

Overreacts to allergens.

e)

Experiences decreased activity.

61.

Which of the following diseases is an autoimmune disease?

a)

Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

b)

Essential Hypertension

c)

Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)

d)

Chronic Kidney Failure

e)

Asthma

62.

In the pathophysiology of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA), which of the following immune cells plays a central role in joint inflammation?

a)

B cells

b)

T cells

c)

Neutrophils

d)

Eosinophils

e)

Basophils

63.

The first-line therapy for Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) that works by modifying disease response and preventing permanent joint damage is:

a)

NSAIDs (e.g., Ibuprofen)

b)

Corticosteroids (e.g., Prednisone)

c)

Disease-Modifying Antirheumatic Drugs (DMARDs)

d)

Antibiotics

e)

Beta-blockers

64.

A patient with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) is often prescribed Hydroxychloroquine. The main benefit of Hydroxychloroquine in SLE is:

a)

Treating infections.

b)

Reducing joint and skin symptoms and preventing disease flares.

c)

Lowering blood pressure.

d)

Reducing acute pain.

e)

Permanently eliminating butterfly rashes.

65.

In the pathophysiology of Multiple Sclerosis (MS), the immune system attacks:

a)

Connective tissue.

b)

Beta cells of the pancreas.

c)

Myelin in the central nervous system.

d)

Glomerulus in the kidneys.

e)

Thyroid gland.

66.

Which of the following therapies is used to manage acute flares in autoimmune diseases (e.g., RA, SLE) due to its strong anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

NSAIDs

c)

Corticosteroids

d)

Paracetamol

e)

Vitamin D

67.

A patient with SLE who is using Methotrexate needs education about potentially fatal side effects, which are:

a)

Dry cough.

b)

Hepatotoxicity and myelosuppression.

c)

Constipation.

d)

Hypotension.

e)

Hyperkalemia.

68.

Which of the following statements is true regarding biological therapy (such as anti-TNF-α) in autoimmune diseases?

a)

Used as first-line therapy for all patients.

b)

Works by broadly suppressing the immune system.

c)

Used in patients who do not respond to conventional DMARDs.

d)

Has no risk of infection.

e)

Only available in oral tablet form.

69.

The disease that is an autoimmune syndrome attacking the thyroid gland, causing hyperthyroidism, is:

a)

Hashimoto's Thyroiditis

b)

Graves' Disease

c)

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus

d)

Rheumatoid Arthritis

e)

Myasthenia Gravis

70.

Flare in autoimmune diseases refers to:

a)

A remission period where symptoms disappear.

b)

Therapy given to control the disease.

71.

Flare pada penyakit autoimun mengacu pada:

a)

Periode remisi di mana gejala menghilang.

b)

Terapi yang diberikan untuk mengendalikan gejala.

c)

Periode di mana gejala penyakit menjadi lebih parah.

d)

Komplikasi jangka panjang dari penyakit.

e)

Terjadinya infeksi sekunder.

72.

Terapi non-farmakologi untuk penyakit autoimun (misalnya RA) yang dapat membantu mengurangi nyeri dan kekakuan adalah:

a)

Diet tinggi lemak jenuh.

b)

Istirahat total dan menghindari semua aktivitas fisik.

c)

Latihan fisik teratur dengan intensitas ringan hingga sedang.

d)

Konsumsi alkohol secara teratur.

e)

Penggunaan es pada sendi yang sakit.

73.

Obat imunosupresan seperti Azathioprine digunakan pada penyakit autoimun untuk:

a)

Meredakan nyeri akut.

b)

Mencegah progresi penyakit.

c)

Meningkatkan respons imun.

d)

Mengobati infeksi.

e)

Mengatasi efek samping obat lain.

74.

Manakah dari gejala berikut yang merupakan gejala khas dari Lupus Erythematosus Systemic (SLE)?

a)

Pembengkakan sendi simetris pada tangan dan kaki.

b)

Ruam kupu-kupu (butterfly rash) di wajah.

c)

Kelemahan otot yang memburuk dengan aktivitas.

d)

Intoleransi panas dan penurunan berat badan.

e)

Batuk kering kronis.

75.

Pada pasien dengan Myasthenia Gravis, sistem imun menyerang:

a)

Reseptor asetilkolin di sambungan neuromuskuler.

b)

Sel beta pankreas.

c)

Mielin di sistem saraf pusat.

d)

Sel tiroid.

e)

Ginjal.

76.

Penyakit Jantung Koroner (PJK) umumnya disebabkan oleh penumpukan plak di arteri koroner, yang dikenal sebagai...

4 lines
77.

Pada gagal jantung kongestif, akumulasi cairan di paru-paru disebut...

4 lines
78.

Pemeriksaan darah yang mengukur kreatinin dan urea nitrogen untuk menilai fungsi ginjal adalah...

4 lines
79.

Obat antihipertensi lini pertama pada ibu hamil adalah...

4 lines
80.

Kondisi di mana menstruasi menjadi tidak teratur dengan siklus yang sangat panjang (>35 hari) disebut...

4 lines
81.

Fase transisi dari masa subur ke menopause disebut...

4 lines
82.

Penyakit autoimun yang menyerang kelenjar tiroid, menyebabkan hipotiroidisme, adalah...

4 lines
83.

Sebuah kondisi ketika sebuah kehamilan berkembang di luar rahim...

4 lines
84.

Tujuan utama terapi statin pada dislipidemia untuk mencegah penyakit...

4 lines
85.

Terapi farmakologi untuk pasien dengan dismenore primer adalah golongan...

4 lines
86.

What is the main target of heart failure therapy?

a)

Congestive heart failure

b)

Aldosterone antagonists

c)

Troponin I or T

d)

Third dose

e)

Ventricle remodeling

87.

What is the definition of Acute Kidney Injury (AKI)?

a)

Sudden decrease in kidney function

b)

Decreased effective circulating blood volume

c)

Renal osteodystrophy

d)

Stopping the progression of kidney disease

e)

Reducing proteinuria and slowing the progression of kidney disease

88.

What causes renal failure due to obstruction after the kidney?

a)

Obstruction after the kidney (ureter, bladder, urethra)

b)

Limiting intake of phosphorus, potassium, and sodium

c)

End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD)

d)

All answers are correct

89.

What is the definition of secondary amenorrhea?

a)

It is the definition of secondary amenorrhea

b)

It is a type of medication

c)

It is a hormonal imbalance

d)

It is a surgical procedure

90.

What is the definition of endometriosis?

a)

It is the definition of endometriosis

b)

It is a type of medication

c)

It is a hormonal imbalance

d)

It is a surgical procedure

91.

What is the definition of spontaneous abortion?

a)

It is the definition of spontaneous abortion

b)

It is a type of medication

c)

It is a hormonal imbalance

d)

It is a surgical procedure

92.

What is the clinical definition of menopause?

a)

Defined as the loss of menstruation for 12 consecutive months

b)

It is a type of medication

c)

It is a hormonal imbalance

d)

It is a surgical procedure

93.

What are the two main symptoms of pre-eclampsia?

a)

Hypertension and proteinuria

b)

Nausea and vomiting

c)

Fatigue and dizziness

d)

Headache and blurred vision

94.

What is the definition of autoimmune disease?

a)

Attacking one's own cells and tissues

b)

A disease caused by external pathogens

c)

A genetic disorder

d)

A type of cancer

95.

What is Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?

a)

A type of autoimmune disease causing joint inflammation

b)

A viral infection

c)

A type of cancer

d)

A genetic disorder

96.

What role do T cells play in RA?

a)

They are central in mediating joint inflammation

b)

They are responsible for producing antibodies

c)

They help in bone formation

d)

They have no role in RA

97.

What are Disease-Modifying Antirheumatic Drugs (DMARDs)?

a)

They are the main therapy for RA that alters disease progression

b)

They are pain relievers

c)

They are antibiotics

d)

They are used for cancer treatment

98.

What is the effect of Hydroxychloroquine?

a)

Reduces joint and skin symptoms and prevents disease flares

b)

Increases inflammation

c)

Has no effect on autoimmune diseases

d)

Is used only for malaria

99.

What does Multiple Sclerosis (MS) attack?

a)

Myelin in the central nervous system

b)

Red blood cells

c)

Bone marrow

d)

Muscle tissue

100.

What are corticosteroids used for?

a)

To relieve acute flares

b)

To cure autoimmune diseases

c)

To prevent infections

d)

To treat cancer

101.

What is Methotrexate known for?

a)

It requires close monitoring due to serious side effects

b)

It is a pain reliever

c)

It is a type of antibiotic

d)

It has no side effects

102.

What is Graves' disease?

a)

The most common autoimmune cause of hyperthyroidism

b)

A type of cancer

c)

A genetic disorder

d)

A viral infection

103.

What is a flare in autoimmune diseases?

a)

A period when symptoms worsen

b)

A type of treatment

c)

A genetic marker

d)

A diagnostic test

104.

What is the benefit of regular physical exercise?

a)

Helps maintain joint mobility and muscle strength

b)

Causes joint pain

c)

Has no effect on autoimmune diseases

d)

Is harmful to health

105.

What do immunosuppressants do?

a)

Suppress the immune system to prevent it from attacking body tissues

b)

Boost the immune system

c)

Have no effect on autoimmune diseases

d)

Are used only for infections

106.

What is a butterfly rash?

a)

A pathognomonic symptom of SLE

b)

A type of skin cancer

c)

A viral infection symptom

d)

A genetic disorder symptom

107.

What does Myasthenia Gravis attack?

a)

Acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction

b)

Red blood cells

c)

Bone marrow

d)

Muscle tissue

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