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Untitled Quiz

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the name for the enlarged chest cavity in pulmonary emphysema?

a)

Paralytic

b)

Scaphoid

c)

Barrel-shaped

d)

Asymmetrical

e)

Keeled

2.

Pain in respiratory diseases is caused by predominant damage

a)

Bronchioles

b)

Alveolar tissue

c)

Interstitial tissue

d)

Pleural sheets

e)

Vessels of the lung

3.

What lung disease is characterized by hemoptysis?

a)

Acute bronchitis

b)

Focal pneumonia

c)

Bronchial asthma

d)

Emphysema of the lungs

e)

Pulmonary tuberculosis

4.

What conditions are characterized by the occurrence of dry wheezing?

a)

Narrowing of the bronchial lumen

b)

Thickening of the pleural sheets

c)

The presence of viscous secretion in the lumen of the alveoli

d)

The presence of liquid secretion in the lumen of the bronchi

e)

Collapse of lung tissue

5.

Characteristic sign of vesicular breathing

a)

Harsh loud breathing noise

b)

Breathing noise resembling the sound "X"

c)

It is heard mainly during inspiration.

d)

It is heard above the larynx.

e)

It is heard in the region of the 7th cervical vertebra

6.

The most likely cause of shortness of breath development is due to organ pathology blood circulation is:

a)

Venous congestion in the pulmonary circulation

b)

Spasm of the pulmonary arteries

c)

C. Portal vein congestion

d)

D. Increased irritation of the respiratory center

e)

E. Venous congestion in the systemic circulation

7.

In case of heart failure, the most likely cause of development hepatomegaly?

a)

Venous congestion in the systemic circulation

b)

Spasm of the hepatic artery

c)

Impaired mesenteric circulation

d)

Spasm of mesenteric vessels

e)

Venous congestion in the portal vein

8.

Which of the following names is most likely suitable accumulation of edematous fluid in the abdominal cavity?

a)

Hydrothorax

b)

Hydropericardium

c)

Ascites

d)

Anasarca

e)

Stokes collar

9.

Sharply expressed pulsation along the left edge of the sternum and in the epigastric region area caused by hypertrophy and dilation of the right ventricle is called?

a)

Apex impulse

b)

Cardiac impulse

c)

Cardiac hump

d)

“Carotid Dance”

e)

Capillary pulse

10.

What is the mechanism of occurrence of the symptom "cat purring"?

a)

Turbulent blood flow in case of stenosis of the valve orifice

b)

Regurgitation of blood due to valve insufficiency

c)

Non-simultaneous closure of the atrioventricular valve cusps

d)

High pulmonary artery pressure

e)

Aneurysm of the ascending aorta

11.

What conditions are characterized by the occurrence of wet wheezing?

a)

Narrowing of the bronchial lumen

b)

Thickening of the pleural sheets

c)

The presence of viscous secretion in the lumen of the alveoli

d)

The presence of liquid secretion in the lumen of the bronchi

e)

Collapse of lung tissue

12.

Characteristic sign of laryngotracheal breathing

a)

Soft blowing breathing noise

b)

Breathing noise resembling the sound "F"

c)

It is heard mainly during inspiration.

d)

It is heard above the larynx.

e)

It is heard in the axillary areas

13.

A box percussion sound over the lungs occurs when

a)

With increased airiness of the lung tissue

b)

Atcollapse of lung tissue

c)

When fluid accumulates in the pleural cavity

d)

If there is a cavity in the lung

e)

With inflammatory compaction of lung tissue

14.

What pathological condition is characterized by paralytic chest?

a)

Fibrous shrinkage of lung tissue

b)

Increasing the airiness of the lung tissue

c)

Narrowing of the bronchial lumen

d)

Accumulation of air in the pleural cavity

e)

Inflammatory infiltration of lung tissue

15.

Dry wheezing is characterized by

a)

They are heard only on inhalation.

b)

Does not change after coughing

c)

Increased by pressing a stethoscope on the chest

d)

They are divided into whistling and buzzing

e)

They resemble bursting bubbles

16.

In case of cardiovascular pathology, what is the most likely cause of liver enlargement?

a)

Obstruction of the bile ducts

b)

Stagnation of blood in the systemic circulation

c)

Spasm of the mesenteric arteries

d)

Atherosclerosis of the hepatic artery

e)

Portal hypertension

17.

In case of cardiovascular pathology, among the causes that led to the development of edema, what is the most likely?

a)

Stagnation of blood in the pulmonary circulation

b)

Increased hydrostatic pressure in the vessels

c)

Decrease in oncotic pressure of blood plasma

d)

Spasm of peripheral arteries

e)

Peripheral arterial thrombosis

18.

Absolute cardiac dullness is presented

a)

The outer edge of the left ventricle

b)

Anterior surface of the left ventricle

c)

Anterior surface of the right ventricle

d)

The right edge of the right atrium

e)

The surface of the heart covered by the lungs

19.

Auscultatory symptoms in arterial hypertension syndrome:

a)

Increased heart sounds at the apex

b)

Increased heart tones

c)

Increased 2nd sound on the pulmonary trunk

d)

Increased 2nd aortic sound

e)

Systolic murmur at the apex of the heart

20.

Which of the following changes is most characteristic of heart failure?

a)

Increased skin moisture

b)

Hyperemia of the skin

c)

Blueness of the skin

d)

Skin rashes

e)

Skin depigmentation

21.

For what conditions is crepitus characteristic?

a)

Narrowing of the bronchial lumen

b)

Thickening of the pleural sheets

c)

The presence of viscous secretion in the lumen of the alveoli

d)

The presence of liquid secretion in the lumen of the bronchi

e)

Collapse of lung tissue

22.

A characteristic feature that distinguishes pathological bronchial breathing from normal bronchial breathing

a)

Harsh loud breathing noise

b)

Breathing noise resembling the sound "X"

c)

It is heard mainly on exhalation.

d)

It is heard over the lung tissue.

e)

It is heard in the region of the 7th cervical vertebra

23.

Amphoric breathing is a type

a)

Vesicular breathing

b)

Pathological bronchial breathing

c)

Laryngotracheal respiration

d)

Dry wheezing

e)

Stridorous breathing

24.

A dull percussion sound over the lungs occurs when

a)

With increased airiness of the lung tissue

b)

When the lumen of the bronchi is narrowed

c)

When air accumulates in the pleural cavity

d)

If there is a cavity in the lung

e)

With inflammatory compaction of lung tissue

25.

Moist rales are characterized by

a)

They are heard only on inhalation.

b)

Does not change after coughing

c)

Increased by pressing a stethoscope on the chest

d)

They are divided into whistling and buzzing

e)

They resemble bursting bubbles

26.

The accumulation of edematous fluid in the pericardium is called

a)

Hydropericardium

b)

Hydrothorax

c)

Pericarditis

d)

Pleuropericarditis

e)

Cor bovinum

27.

The appearance of local swelling of the face, neck, and shoulder girdle due to compression of the superior vena cava is called?

a)

Hydrothorax

b)

Hydropericardium

c)

Ascites

d)

Anasarca

e)

Stokes collar

28.

Which of the following options is the most likely cause of displacement of the right border of relative cardiac dullness to the right?

a)

Aortic aneurysm

b)

Enlargement of the left atrium

c)

Low position of the diaphragm

d)

Expansion of the pulmonary trunk cone

e)

Dilation of the right ventricle

29.

Which of the following options is the best area for listening to sound phenomena associated with the operation of the mitral valve?

a)

Lower third of the sternum

b)

Apex impulse zone

c)

2nd intercostal space to the left of the sternum

d)

2nd intercostal space to the right of the sternum

e)

The attachment point of the 3-4 ribs at the left edge of the sternum

30.

Accent of the 2nd tone over the aorta is noted in:

a)

Hypertension in the pulmonary circulation

b)

Impaired blood circulation in the lungs

c)

Decreased pressure in the aorta

d)

Mitral valve stenosis

e)

Arterial hypertension

31.

For what conditions is the occurrence of pleural friction rub characteristic?

a)

Narrowing of the bronchial lumen

b)

Inflammatory thickening of the pleural sheets

c)

The presence of viscous secretion in the lumen of the alveoli

d)

The presence of liquid secretion in the lumen of the bronchi

e)

Collapse of lung tissue

32.

Tympanic percussion sound over the lungs occurs when

a)

With increased airiness of the lung tissue

b)

Atcollapse of lung tissue

c)

When fluid accumulates in the pleural cavity

d)

If there is a cavity in the lung

e)

With inflammatory compaction of lung tissue

33.

Crepitus is characterized by

a)

It is heard only on inhalation.

b)

Changes after coughing

c)

Increased by pressing a stethoscope on the chest

d)

Divided into whistling and buzzing options

e)

Reminds me of the crunch of snow

34.

Amphoric breathing occurs when there is air in the lungs

a)

Inflammatory infiltration

b)

Air cavity communicating with the bronchus

c)

Narrowing of the lumen of small bronchi

d)

Fluid accumulation in the pleural cavity

e)

Fibrous shrinkage

35.

The upward displacement of the lower border of the lungs is observed when

a)

Inflammatory infiltration of the lungs

b)

Increasing the airiness of the lungs

c)

Sclerotic shrinkage of the lungs

d)

Narrowing of the bronchial lumen

e)

The presence of a cavity in the lung

36.

Where should sound phenomena associated with the operation of the tricuspid valve be listened to?

a)

A) Apex impulse zone

b)

B) Base of the xiphoid process

c)

C) The second intercostal space to the right of the sternum

d)

D) The second intercostal space to the left of the sternum

e)

E) To the left of the sternum at the point where the 3rd-4th ribs attach to the sternum

37.

Does not apply to the properties of the apex beat

a)

Strength

b)

Frequency

c)

Height

d)

Area

e)

Resistance

38.

At the apex of the heart after the 2nd tone, a murmur is heard, increasing towards the end of diastole. For which defect is it most characteristic?

a)

Mitral stenosis

b)

Mitral valve insufficiency

c)

Aortic stenosis

d)

Aortic valve insufficiency

e)

Tricuspid valve insufficiency

39.

The most characteristic signs of pulsus differens

a)

Hard, high and jumping pulse

b)

The number of pulse waves is greater than the number of heartbeats

c)

The number of pulse waves is less than the number of heartbeats

d)

A sharp decrease in the pulse rate in both radial arteries

e)

Weakened or absent pulsation in one radial artery

40.

The most typical symptom of heart failure is

a)

decrease in cardiac output

b)

decrease in heart rate

c)

cough with purulent sputum and shortness of breath

d)

decrease in daily diuresis

e)

unilateral swelling of the lower limb

41.

With peptic ulcer of the pyloric part of the stomach, pain most often localized in the epigastric region

a)

at the xiphoid process

b)

to the right of the midline

c)

to the left of the midline

d)

in the left hypochondrium

42.

Portal cirrhosis of the liver is characterized by all of the following except:

a)

yellowness of the skin

b)

dilation of the veins of the esophagus

c)

the spleen is of normal size

d)

head of medusa

e)

ascites

43.

What changes, revealed during examination and percussion of the abdomen, are most characteristic of pyloric stenosis?

a)

the abdomen is drawn in (scaphoid), practically does not participate in breathing, pronounced tension abdominal wall muscles

b)

the abdomen is enlarged, dome-shaped, participates in breathing, the navel is retracted, percussion reveals loud tympanitis

c)

the abdomen is enlarged; in a horizontal position it is spread out, in a vertical position it looks saggy, the navel is bulging, on the lateral surfaces of the abdomen there is dilated venous net

d)

in an exhausted patient, a bulge and periodically occurring waves of antiperistalsis are clearly visible in the epigastrium

e)

when examining the abdomen with the naked eye, increased vigorous intestinal peristalsis is noticeable, the abdomen is swollen

44.

What changes revealed during examination and percussion of the abdomen are most characteristic of peritonitis?

a)

the abdomen is drawn in (scaphoid), practically does not participate in breathing, pronounced tension abdominal wall muscles

b)

the abdomen is enlarged, dome-shaped, participates in breathing, the navel is retracted, percussion reveals loud tympanitis

c)

the abdomen is enlarged; in a horizontal position it is spread out, in a vertical position it looks saggy, the navel is bulging, on the lateral surfaces of the abdomen there is dilated venous net

d)

in an exhausted patient, a bulge and periodically occurring waves of antiperistalsis are clearly visible in the epigastrium

e)

when examining the abdomen with the naked eye, increased vigorous intestinal peristalsis is noticeable, the abdomen is swollen

45.

What does the splashing sound in the epigastrium, detected 5-10 minutes after eating, indicate?

a)

the symptom is detected normally

b)

there is free fluid in the abdominal cavity

c)

there is pyloric stenosis

d)

there is a large amount of gas in the large intestine (flatulence in a patient with colitis)

e)

the large intestine contains liquid contents and gases accumulate (for example, in a patient with acute enteritis)

46.

What does rumbling during palpation of the ascending and transverse colon indicate?

a)

the symptom is detected normally

b)

there is free fluid in the abdominal cavity

c)

there is pyloric stenosis

d)

there is a large amount of gas in the large intestine (flatulence in a patient with colitis)

e)

the large intestine contains liquid contents and gases accumulate (for example, in a patient with acute enteritis)

47.

What does liver odor from the mouth indicate in liver diseases?

a)

presence of duodenogastric reflux

b)

an increase in bile acids in the blood against the background of severe cholestasis

c)

violation of the synthetic (protein-forming) function of the liver

d)

heart failure against the background of severe concomitant myocardial dystrophy

e)

a decrease in the detoxification function of the liver in relation to protein breakdown products

48.

What does a positive wave symptom (fluctuation) indicate during bimanual percussion palpation of the abdomen?

a)

the symptom is detected normally

b)

there is free fluid in the abdominal cavity

c)

there is pyloric stenosis

d)

there is a large amount of gas in the large intestine (flatulence in a patient with colitis)

e)

the large intestine contains liquid contents and gases accumulate (for example, in a patient with acute enteritis)

49.

To diagnose damage to the pancreas, a stool test is necessary:

a)

on stercobilin

b)

hidden blood

c)

creator

d)

bilirubin

50.

In what disease is the splashing sound in the stomach relatively often detected on an empty stomach?

a)

acute gastritis

b)

chronic gastritis with decreased secretory function

c)

gastric ulcer

d)

cancer of the cardiac part of the stomach

e)

ulcerative disease of the duodenum with the development of stenosis

51.

How will abdominal auscultation data change in diffuse peritonitis?

a)

normal intestinal peristalsis

b)

sharply increased (violent) intestinal peristalsis

c)

weakening of intestinal peristalsis

d)

vascular noises

e)

absence of intestinal peristalsis ("dead silence")

52.

What disease causes palmar erythema:

a)

myxedema

b)

chronic bronchitis

c)

rheumatic fever

d)

chronic cholecystitis

e)

liver cirrhosis

53.

In what types of jaundice does free and conjugated bilirubin in the blood increase simultaneously?

a)

suprahepatic

b)

subhepatic

c)

liver

d)

for all

54.

What research method can be used to most accurately diagnose peptic ulcer disease?

a)

questioning

b)

superficial abdominal palpation

c)

deep abdominal palpation

d)

study of the secretory function of the stomach

e)

fibrogastroduodenoscopy

55.

Subhepatic jaundice is characterized by all changes except:

a)

total bilirubin in the blood is elevated

b)

conjugated bilirubin is elevated

c)

bilirubin in urine - reaction is negative

d)

urobilin in urine - reaction is negative

e)

stercobilin in feces - reaction is negative

56.

What research method is used to diagnose motor function disorders? intestines?

a)

X-ray examination of the intestine

b)

rectoscopy

c)

X-ray of the stomach

d)

colonoscopy

e)

cholecystography

57.

For diseases of the pancreas, the most characteristic is

a)

liquid black stool

b)

discolored stool

c)

"fatty", shiny, difficult to wash off feces

d)

black formed feces

e)

"sheep droppings"

58.

A 48-year-old woman came to the emergency room of a city clinical hospital complaining of paroxysmal pain in the epigastric region, which is of a girdle nature and is accompanied by repeated vomiting. From the anamnesis, she considers herself ill for 3 days and associates it with eating a fatty cake. What is the most likely disease in this case?

a)

cholecystitis

b)

stomach ulcer

c)

gastritis

d)

pancreatitis

e)

hepatitis

59.

A 32-year-old woman consulted her local doctor complaining of periodic nausea and aching pain in the right hypochondrium after eating fatty foods. On examination, there is pain in the choledocho-pancreatic zone, and positive Ortner's symptoms and phrenicus symptom are also identified. What disease do these symptoms most likely indicate?

a)

cholecystitis

b)

cirrhosis

c)

peptic ulcer

d)

pancreatitis

e)

gastritis

60.

What do the weight loss and muscle atrophy observed in liver diseases indicate?

a)

presence of duodenogastric reflux

b)

an increase in bile acids in the blood against the background of severe cholestasis

c)

violation of the synthetic (protein-forming) function of the liver

d)

heart failure due to myocardial dystrophy

e)

decreased detoxification function of the liver

61.

What is painful urination called?

a)

pollakiuria

b)

strangury

c)

ischuria

d)

anuria

62.

What is meant by the term "hyposthenuria"?

a)

decrease in minute diuresis

b)

monotony of the specific gravity of urine

c)

decrease in the specific gravity of urine

d)

increase in the specific gravity of urine

e)

decrease in minute diuresis with increased specific gravity of urine

63.

Specify the etiological factor most characteristic of glomerulonephritis.

a)

staphylococcus

b)

β-hemolytic streptococcus group A

c)

pneumococcus

d)

E. coli

e)

chlamydia

64.

What is the name for an increase in the daily amount of urine?

a)

pollakiuria

b)

strangury

c)

ischuria

d)

anuria

e)

polyuria

65.

What is the name for frequent urination?

a)

pollakiuria

b)

strangury

c)

ischuria

d)

anuria

e)

polyuria

66.

Chronic renal failure is characterized by all of the following except:

a)

the smell of ammonia from the mouth

b)

diarrhea

c)

cachexia

d)

anemia

e)

hypersthenuria

67.

The most reliable sign of chronic renal failure is:

a)

arterial hypertension

b)

hyperkalemia

c)

increased blood creatinine levels

d)

oliguria

e)

anemia

68.

Excretory anuria is a consequence of:

a)

acute glomerulonephritis

b)

urolithiasis

c)

chronic pyelonephritis

d)

comatose state

69.

What microorganism is most often the causative agent of urinary tract infections?

a)

staphylococcus

b)

β-hemolytic streptococcus group A

c)

pneumococcus

d)

E. coli

e)

chlamydia

70.

In a patient with frequent, painful urination in small portions, with cloudy urine, with a temperature of up to 38 degrees, weakness, and malaise, which examination method is most important?

a)

microscopy of urine sediment

b)

Ultrasound of the kidneys

c)

creatinine clearance test

d)

bacterial urine culture

e)

Zimnitsky test

71.

What is pituitary dwarfism?

a)

lack of growth, weight, development

b)

normal height and weight

c)

acceleration of growth and development

72.

What complaint is most typical for hypothyroidism syndrome?

a)

irritability

b)

nervousness

c)

sweating

d)

heartbeat

e)

drowsiness

73.

The normal glucose level in venous blood is:

a)

2.55-4.5 mmol/l

b)

3.88-4.9 mmol/l

c)

3.3-5.5 mmol/l

d)

3.5 – 6.1 mmol/l

e)

4.5 -6.9 mmol/l

74.

Acromegaly is characterized by:

a)

preferential enlargement of individual body parts

b)

enlargement of all body parts

c)

enlargement of internal organs

d)

gigantism

e)

cyanosis of the fingertips

75.

Hypothyroidism is characterized by:

a)

increased shine in the eyes

b)

emotional lability

c)

skin moisture

d)

drowsiness

e)

tachycardia

76.

What is the most typical complaint for diabetes?

a)

dizziness

b)

flickering spots before the eyes

c)

shortness of breath

d)

increase in temperature

e)

dry mouth

77.

What pathology of the endocrine system causes a sharp development of the superciliary arches, disproportionately large sizes of the nose, lips, tongue and chin?

a)

hypothyroidism

b)

thyrotoxicosis

c)

hyperfunction of the pituitary gland

d)

hypofunction of the anterior pituitary gland

e)

diabetes mellitus

78.

What syndrome is characterized by an increase in the size of the thyroid gland, exophthalmos, emaciation, tachycardia, and increased blood pressure?

a)

hypothyroidism

b)

thyrotoxicosis

c)

hypocorticism

d)

hypercorticism

e)

hypoparathyroidism

79.

What syndrome is characterized by dry, wrinkled, cold, thickened skin, anemia, narrowing of the eye slits, thickening of the lips, tongue, constipation, bradycardia, hypothermia?

a)

hypothyroidism

b)

thyrotoxicosis

c)

hyperfunction of the pituitary gland

d)

hypofunction of the anterior pituitary gland

e)

hypoparathyroidism

80.

What pathology is associated with dwarfism, the preservation of childish body proportions, underdevelopment of the reproductive system, absence of secondary sexual characteristics?

a)

hypothyroidism

b)

thyrotoxicosis

c)

hyperfunction of the pituitary gland

d)

hypofunction of the anterior pituitary gland

e)

diabetes insipidus

81.

Low color index is observed when:

a)

acute posthemorrhagic anemia

b)

chronic iron deficiency anemia

c)

B12-deficiency anemia

d)

hemolytic anemia

e)

anemia of chronic diseases

82.

The following is passed on by inheritance:

a)

acute posthemorrhagic anemia

b)

chronic iron deficiency anemia

c)

hemophilia

d)

agranulocytosis

e)

symptomatic erythrocytosis

83.

For iron deficiency anemia, a diet rich in:

a)

vegetables and fruits

b)

cereals and flour products

c)

seafood

d)

milk and its products

e)

meat

84.

Slightly yellowish (waxy) skin occurs with:

a)

B12-deficiency anemia

b)

juvenile chlorosis

c)

chronic lymphocytic leukemia

d)

erythremia

e)

chronic myelogenous leukemia

85.

Erythropenia is:

a)

decrease in total blood volume

b)

decrease in circulating blood

c)

a decrease in the content of red blood cells in the blood

d)

decrease in the concentration of hemoglobin in the blood

e)

a decrease in the total amount of hemoglobin in the blood

86.

Dry skin, flaking, increased hair fragility are observed with:

a)

acute posthemorrhagic anemia

b)

B12-deficiency anemia

c)

chronic iron deficiency anemia

d)

hemolytic anemia

e)

erythremia

87.

What disease is characterized by a full-blooded cherry-red color of the skin of the face, neck and hands, injection of the sclera, and high hematocrit?

a)

lymphogranulomatosis

b)

erythremia

c)

hemolytic anemia

d)

hemophilia

e)

osthemorrhagic anemia

88.

In what blood disease does Hunter's glossitis occur?

a)

hemolytic anemia

b)

B12-deficiency anemia

c)

lymphogranulomatosis

d)

posthemorrhagic anemia

e)

hemophilia

89.

Necrotic-ulcerative angina and stomatitis are common manifestations:

a)

hemolytic anemia

b)

acute myelogenous leukemia

c)

chronic lymphocytic leukemia

d)

lymphogranulomatosis

e)

iron deficiency anemia

90.

In osteoarthritis, palpation reveals

a)

Increased skin temperature over the joints

b)

Increased range of motion in the joint

c)

Negative compression symptom

d)

Hypothermia of the skin over the joints

e)

Crunching when moving the joint

91.

What is a typical complaint in rheumatoid arthritis?

a)

Severe twitching pain in the joints

b)

Starting pain in the knee joints

c)

Crunching in joints when moving

d)

Morning stiffness

e)

Joint hypermobility

92.

What is the typical complaint in gouty arthritis?

a)

Severe pain in the 2nd and 3rd proximal interphalangeal joints of the hands

b)

Morning stiffness

c)

Starting pain

d)

Limitation of movement in the lumbar spine

e)

Severe pain in the 1st metatarsophalangeal joint of the foot

93.

Dense nodules in the dorsal extensor surface of the proximal interphalangeal joints of the hands are:

a)

Heberden's nodes

b)

Bouchard's nodes

c)

rheumatic nodules

d)

rheumatoid nodules

e)

tophi

94.

Which joints are most likely to be involved in the pathological process in Bechterew's disease?

a)

sacroiliac

b)

metacarpophalangeal

c)

wrist

d)

metatarsophalangeal

e)

temporomandibular

95.

What instrumental examination is most likely to be carried out at the first stage of joint syndrome?

a)

sonography of the affected joint

b)

X-ray of the affected joint

c)

computed tomography of the affected joint

d)

magnetic resonance imaging

e)

puncture of the affected joint

96.

The syndrome of damage to the meninges is characterized by the symptom

a)

Kocher

b)

Bauer

c)

Kernig

d)

Babinsky

e)

Oppenheim

97.

Select from the list below the symptom that indicates memory impairment.

a)

amnesia

b)

anosmia

c)

apraxia

d)

scotoma

98.

Dorsal extension of the 1st toe and spreading of the others are characteristic of the symptom

a)

Murphy

b)

Kocher

c)

Kernig

d)

Ortner

e)

Schaeffer

99.

Which of the following symptoms is most characteristic of a seizure syndrome?

a)

Ptosis

b)

Lockjaw

c)

Nystagmus

d)

Diplopia

e)

Hemianopsia

100.

Dense nodules in the dorsal extensor surface of the distal interphalangeal joints of the hands are:

a)

Heberden's nodes

b)

Bouchard's nodes

c)

rheumatic nodules

d)

rheumatoid nodules

e)

tophi

101.

Which of the following symptoms are most characteristic of meningitis?

a)

Hemiparesis, dysarthria, hyperkinesis

b)

Dizziness, nystagmus, impaired coordination

c)

Paresis, paralysis, hypothermia, constipation

d)

Hyperthermia, stiff neck

e)

Facial asymmetry, paresis, paralysis

102.

Which of the following symptom complexes MOST likely relates to pathological extensor reflexes in the lower extremities?

a)

Rossolimo, Bekhtereva, Gordon

b)

Babinsky, Gordon, Bekhterev

c)

Babinsky, Schaeffer, Rossolimo

d)

Zhukovsky, Bekhterev-Mendel

e)

Schaeffer,Babinsky, Oppenheim

103.

Which of the following symptoms are MOST likely to confirm a diagnosis of epilepsy?

a)

Headache, fever

b)

Clonic-tonic seizure

c)

Facial hyperemia, retrograde amnesia, swallowing disorders

d)

Spastic hemiparesis, facial asymmetry

e)

Drooling, muscle atony, anosmia

104.

Focal symptoms of meningitis include:

a)

stiff neck

b)

photophobia

c)

increase in temperature

d)

nausea

e)

headaches

105.

Clonic seizures are

a)

convulsions with muscle spasm without rhythmic twitching

b)

attacks with loss of muscle tone

c)

convulsions with continuous rhythmic twitching of muscles

d)

attacks of convulsive contraction of the muscles of the upper limbs

e)

convulsions with loss of consciousness and retrograde amnesia

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