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DOMC - FINAL MBD EXAM

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 1hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the study of tumors called?

a)

Oncology

b)

Pathology

c)

Immunology

d)

Hematology

2.

Which type of tumor is characterized by uncontrolled cell proliferation?

a)

Benign

b)

Malignant

c)

Fibroma

d)

Adenoma

3.

What term encompasses all malignant tumors?

a)

Neoplasm

b)

Cancer

c)

Tumor

d)

Sarcoma

4.

What is the primary focus of molecular oncology?

a)

Patient demographics

b)

Cellular structure

c)

Genetic alterations

d)

Tumor size

5.

Which of the following is a characteristic of benign tumors?

a)

They invade surrounding tissues

b)

They grow rapidly

c)

They metastasize

d)

They remain localized

6.

What is the role of oncogenes in cancer?

a)

Promote cell division

b)

Inhibit cell division

c)

Repair DNA damage

d)

Suppress tumor growth

7.

Which gene is often mutated in breast cancer?

a)

BRCA1

b)

TP53

c)

KRAS

d)

EGFR

8.

What does the term 'genomic instability' refer to?

a)

Stable DNA structure

b)

Accumulation of chromosomal abnormalities

c)

Normal cell function

d)

Increased apoptosis

9.

What is the function of tumor-suppressor genes?

a)

Control cell division

b)

Inhibit apoptosis

c)

Enhance mutation rates

d)

Promote cell growth

10.

What is the significance of KRAS mutations in cancer?

a)

They have no clinical relevance

b)

They influence treatment decisions

c)

They are harmless

d)

They are always benign

11.

Which of the following is a method for detecting HER2 gene amplification?

a)

FISH

b)

PCR

c)

All of the above

d)

IHC

12.

What does liquid biopsy analyze?

a)

Tissue samples

b)

Blood samples

c)

Urine samples

d)

All of the above

13.

What is the primary cause of microsatellite instability (MSI)?

a)

Chromosomal deletions

b)

Protein synthesis errors

c)

Cell division errors

d)

DNA replication errors

14.

Which cancer is associated with mutations in the ATM gene?

a)

Leukemia

b)

Breast cancer

c)

Lung cancer

d)

Prostate cancer

15.

What is the role of the BRCA1 gene?

a)

Promotes tumor growth

b)

Repairs DNA damage

c)

Inhibits cell division

d)

Stimulates angiogenesis

16.

What type of cancer is characterized by translocations involving the EWS gene?

a)

Ewing sarcoma

b)

Breast cancer

c)

Leukemia

d)

Lymphoma

17.

What is the primary function of the TP53 gene?

a)

Promote cell growth

b)

Regulate the cell cycle

c)

Enhance DNA replication

d)

Suppress apoptosis

18.

What type of cancer is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome?

a)

Prostate cancer

b)

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia

c)

Lung cancer

d)

Breast cancer

19.

What is the main purpose of targeted therapy in cancer treatment?

a)

To increase tumor size

b)

To enhance immune response

c)

To target specific mutations

d)

To cure all cancers

20.

Which of the following is a characteristic of hematologic malignancies?

a)

They originate in solid tumors

b)

They affect white blood cells

c)

They are always benign

d)

They do not require genetic testing

21.

Which of the following is a common feature of malignant tumors?

a)

Well-defined borders

b)

Invasion of surrounding tissues

c)

Localized growth

d)

Slow growth

22.

What is the significance of the HER2 gene in breast cancer?

a)

It has no relevance

b)

It is a tumor suppressor

c)

It is always mutated

d)

It is a target for therapy

23.

What is the primary function of angiogenesis in tumors?

a)

To stimulate new blood vessel formation

b)

To inhibit tumor growth

c)

To promote cell death

d)

To reduce blood supply

24.

What is the role of the n-myc gene in neuroblastoma?

a)

It promotes cell differentiation

b)

It inhibits tumor growth

c)

It has no effect

d)

It is often amplified

25.

What is the primary focus of emerging technologies in molecular oncology?

a)

To increase tumor size

b)

To detect and monitor cancer

c)

To eliminate all cancers

d)

To reduce treatment costs

26.

What is the primary focus of molecular-based methods in microbiology?

a)

Detecting and identifying microorganisms

b)

Culturing bacteria

c)

Analyzing protein structures

d)

Studying microbial ecology

27.

Which of the following is a common molecular detection technique?

a)

Gram staining

b)

Microscopy

c)

Culture methods

d)

Mass spectrometry

28.

What is the role of amplification controls in PCR?

a)

To ensure accurate results

b)

To amplify RNA

c)

To increase the temperature

d)

To reduce contamination

29.

Which of the following pathogens is specifically targeted by molecular tests?

a)

Clostridium difficile

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

d)

Staphylococcus aureus

30.

What is the significance of proper specimen collection?

a)

It reduces costs

b)

It is critical for accurate testing

c)

It ensures faster results

d)

It simplifies the testing process

31.

What type of organisms require special handling during specimen collection?

a)

Fungi

b)

Protozoa

c)

Strict anaerobes and viruses

d)

Aerobic bacteria

32.

What is the minimal organism quantity detectable by molecular methods?

a)

100 organisms

b)

50 organisms

c)

10 organisms

d)

1 organism

33.

Which swab material is preferred for PCR tests?

a)

Metal swabs

b)

Cotton swabs

c)

Dacron swabs

d)

Wooden swabs

34.

What is the purpose of nucleic acid isolation in microbiology?

a)

To identify microbial species

b)

To extract DNA or RNA from samples

c)

To analyze protein structures

d)

To culture bacteria

35.

What is a common challenge when isolating nucleic acids from Mycobacteria?

a)

High contamination risk

b)

Lack of nucleic acids

c)

Thick cell walls

d)

Thin cell walls

36.

Which of the following is a method for detecting antimicrobial resistance?

a)

Culture methods

b)

Biochemical tests

c)

PCR for resistance genes

d)

Microscopy

37.

What is the main advantage of using mass spectrometry in microbiology?

a)

It is less accurate than traditional methods

b)

It requires extensive sample preparation

c)

It is only used for bacterial identification

d)

It provides rapid identification

38.

What is the role of molecular epidemiology?

a)

To track the spread of diseases

b)

To analyze protein structures

c)

To study microbial ecology

d)

To culture microorganisms

39.

Which of the following is a phenotypic typing method?

a)

Mass spectrometry

b)

DNA sequencing

c)

PCR

d)

Ribotyping

40.

What is the purpose of using unique sequences in molecular testing?

a)

To avoid cross-reactivity

b)

To increase contamination

c)

To simplify testing

d)

To reduce costs

41.

What does the term 'false-positive' refer to in molecular testing?

a)

A test that is accurate

b)

A test indicating the absence of a microorganism

c)

A test that is inconclusive

d)

A test indicating the presence of a microorganism when it is not present

42.

What is the significance of the Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI)?

a)

It conducts clinical trials

b)

It develops new antibiotics

c)

It focuses on microbial ecology

d)

It provides guidelines for specimen handling

43.

Which of the following is a method used for molecular detection of fungi?

a)

Culture methods

b)

PCR

c)

Biochemical tests

d)

Microscopy

44.

What is the main purpose of using real-time PCR?

a)

To amplify DNA

b)

To quantify nucleic acid in real-time

c)

To culture bacteria

d)

To analyze protein structures

45.

What is the primary challenge with detecting viruses using standard methods?

a)

They cannot be cultured

b)

They are too large

c)

They are too small

d)

They are too complex

46.

What is the role of inhibitors in clinical samples?

a)

They enhance molecular analysis

b)

They are irrelevant

c)

They interfere with molecular analysis

d)

They are beneficial for testing

47.

What is the purpose of using specialized transport systems for specimens?

a)

To increase contamination risk

b)

To reduce costs

c)

To preserve viability for testing

d)

To simplify collection

48.

What is the main advantage of molecular methods in detecting STIs?

a)

They are faster and more sensitive

b)

They require more sample volume

c)

They are more expensive

d)

They are less accurate

49.

What is the significance of using unique target sequences in molecular testing?

a)

To reduce costs

b)

To ensure cross-reactivity

c)

To simplify procedures

d)

To improve specificity

50.

What is the main goal of molecular strain typing methods?

a)

To study microbial ecology

b)

To analyze protein structures

c)

To culture bacteria

d)

To identify bacterial strains

51.

What is the purpose of using pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE)?

a)

To amplify DNA

b)

To culture bacteria

c)

To separate large DNA fragments

d)

To analyze protein structures

52.

What is the main advantage of using next-generation sequencing?

a)

It requires more sample volume

b)

It is slower than traditional methods

c)

It provides comprehensive genomic data

d)

It is less accurate

53.

What is the significance of the spa gene in Staphylococcus aureus?

a)

It is a virulence factor

b)

It is a resistance gene

c)

It encodes protein A

d)

It is involved in DNA replication

54.

What is the primary focus of molecular detection of parasites?

a)

To analyze protein structures

b)

To study their ecology

c)

To identify and differentiate species

d)

To culture them

55.

What are polymorphisms?

a)

Natural variations in DNA

b)

Chromosomal abnormalities

c)

Harmful mutations

d)

Inherited diseases

56.

Which of the following is a benign polymorphism?

a)

Turner syndrome

b)

Sickle cell trait

c)

Cystic fibrosis

d)

Hemophilia

57.

What is the primary function of DNA methylation?

a)

To increase gene expression

b)

To reduce or stop gene expression

c)

To repair DNA

d)

To replicate DNA

58.

What type of disorder is hemophilia?

a)

Acquired disorder

b)

Environmental disorder

c)

Heritable disorder

d)

Congenital disorder

59.

How many chromosomes do humans typically have?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

48

d)

44

60.

What is an example of a numerical chromosomal abnormality?

a)

Down syndrome

b)

Cystic fibrosis

c)

Turner syndrome

d)

Sickle cell disease

61.

What is the term for a missing chromosome?

a)

Monosomy

b)

Trisomy

c)

Aneuploidy

d)

Polyploidy

62.

Which of the following is a structural chromosomal abnormality?

a)

Aneuploidy

b)

Monosomy

c)

Trisomy

d)

Deletion

63.

What is karyotyping used for?

a)

To assess gene expression

b)

To analyze DNA sequences

c)

To detect chromosomal abnormalities

d)

To measure enzyme activity

64.

What is the recurrence risk for autosomal recessive disorders if siblings are affected?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

25%

d)

50%

65.

In an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, what is the likelihood of an affected individual passing the trait to their child?

a)

0% to 50%

b)

75%

c)

50% to 100%

d)

25%

66.

What is the primary cause of Huntington's disease?

a)

Mitochondrial mutation

b)

Expanded CAG repeat

c)

Chromosomal deletion

d)

Single nucleotide polymorphism

67.

What is the main mutation associated with cystic fibrosis?

a)

H63D

b)

C282Y

c)

R506Q

d)

F508del

68.

What is the effect of genomic imprinting?

a)

Only one allele is active

b)

Both alleles are expressed

c)

Both alleles are silenced

d)

Alleles are mutated

69.

What is the inheritance pattern of mitochondrial DNA?

a)

From both parents

b)

Randomly from either parent

c)

From the father only

d)

From the mother only

70.

What is anticipation in genetics?

a)

Random mutation occurrence

b)

Decreased severity of symptoms in successive generations

c)

Increased severity of symptoms in successive generations

d)

Equal expression of traits

71.

What is the primary function of the CFTR gene?

a)

Controls DNA replication

b)

Involved in blood clotting

c)

Acts as a chloride channel

d)

Regulates iron metabolism

72.

What is a common method for detecting genetic mutations?

a)

PCR

b)

Karyotyping

c)

Electrophoresis

d)

Morphology

73.

What is the primary effect of loss-of-function mutations?

a)

Increased protein function

b)

No effect on protein function

c)

Variable protein function

d)

Decreased protein function

74.

What is the main characteristic of X-linked recessive disorders?

a)

Equal prevalence in both sexes

b)

More common in females

c)

Only inherited from the mother

d)

More common in males

75.

What is the role of histones in chromatin remodeling?

a)

To increase DNA accessibility

b)

To decrease DNA accessibility

c)

To repair DNA

d)

To replicate DNA

76.

What is the primary cause of congenital disorders?

a)

Inherited mutations

b)

Both inherited and environmental factors

c)

Spontaneous mutations

d)

Environmental factors

77.

What is the significance of variable expressivity?

a)

Same phenotype in all individuals

b)

Different phenotypes in individuals with the same genotype

c)

No effect on phenotype

d)

Only affects males

78.

What is the primary method for diagnosing lysosomal storage diseases?

a)

Karyotyping

b)

Measuring enzyme activity

c)

Electrophoresis

d)

PCR

79.

What is the inheritance pattern of Factor V Leiden?

a)

Autosomal dominant

b)

Autosomal recessive

c)

Mitochondrial

d)

X-linked dominant

80.

What is the primary effect of balanced polymorphisms?

a)

Both positive and negative effects

b)

Only negative effects

c)

No effects

d)

Only positive effects

81.

What is the primary focus of molecular testing for inherited diseases?

a)

Phenotypic treatment

b)

Symptom management

c)

Genetic counseling

d)

Environmental factors

82.

What is the primary cause of myotonic dystrophy?

a)

Single nucleotide polymorphism

b)

Chromosomal deletion

c)

Expanded CTG repeat

d)

Mitochondrial mutation

83.

What is the primary function of cytochrome P-450?

a)

Replicates DNA

b)

Metabolizes drugs and toxins

c)

Repairs RNA

d)

Synthesizes proteins

84.

What is the primary characteristic of mosaicism?

a)

Only inherited mutations

b)

Same genes in all cells

c)

Only environmental factors

d)

Different genes in different cells

85.

What is the primary function of human leukocyte antigens (HLAs)?

a)

To regulate blood sugar levels

b)

To facilitate oxygen transport in blood

c)

To mediate transplant rejection

d)

To produce antibodies

86.

Which chromosome contains the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) in humans?

a)

Chromosome 6

b)

Chromosome 15

c)

Chromosome 1

d)

Chromosome 12

87.

What type of graft is formed when an organ is transplanted from one human to another?

a)

Xenograft

b)

Isograft

c)

Allograft

d)

Autograft

88.

What is the role of T lymphocytes in organ transplantation?

a)

To produce insulin

b)

To stimulate red blood cell production

c)

To recognize and attack foreign tissues

d)

To transport oxygen

89.

What does HLA matching increase the chances of during transplantation?

a)

Blood type matching

b)

Successful engraftment

c)

Reduced surgery time

d)

Organ size compatibility

90.

What is graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)?

a)

A method of organ preservation

b)

A condition where the recipient's immune system attacks the donor organ

c)

A condition where the donor's immune cells attack the recipient's tissues

d)

A type of organ rejection

91.

Which method is commonly used for HLA typing?

a)

Serological methods

b)

X-ray imaging

c)

Ultrasound scanning

d)

MRI

92.

What is the primary purpose of the clinical laboratory in organ transplantation?

a)

To provide post-operative care

b)

To manage patient records

c)

To evaluate HLAs for compatibility

d)

To perform surgeries

93.

What is the significance of polymorphisms in the MHC genes?

a)

They regulate hormone levels

b)

They determine blood type

c)

They affect immune response and organ compatibility

d)

They are responsible for muscle growth

94.

What is the role of cytokine genes located in the MHC locus?

a)

To code for blood proteins

b)

To facilitate digestion

c)

To produce energy

d)

To regulate immune responses

95.

What is the main function of class I MHC molecules?

a)

To produce antibodies

b)

To present intracellular antigens to T cells

c)

To present extracellular antigens

d)

To transport nutrients

96.

Which of the following is NOT a class of HLA?

a)

Class I

b)

Class II

c)

Class III

d)

Class IV

97.

What is the primary method used for high-resolution HLA typing?

a)

Serological typing

b)

DNA sequencing

c)

X-ray analysis

d)

Ultrasound imaging

98.

What does the term 'haplotype' refer to?

a)

A method of organ preservation

b)

A combination of alleles inherited together

c)

A single allele

d)

A type of immune response

99.

What is the significance of the mixed lymphocyte culture (MLC) test?

a)

To measure organ size

b)

To evaluate kidney function

c)

To determine blood type

d)

To assess T-cell reactivity between donor and recipient

100.

What is the primary cause of graft rejection?

a)

Blood type mismatch

b)

Surgical error

c)

Immune response against nonself antigens

d)

Infection

101.

What is the role of B lymphocytes in the immune response?

a)

To regulate blood pressure

b)

To produce antibodies

c)

To destroy infected cells

d)

To transport oxygen

102.

What is the primary advantage of DNA typing over serological methods?

a)

It is less expensive

b)

It requires less equipment

c)

It provides higher resolution and specificity

d)

It is faster

103.

What is the role of the tapasin region in the MHC?

a)

To regulate blood flow

b)

To transport nutrients

c)

To produce antibodies

d)

To process antigenic peptides

104.

What is the relationship between HLA type and autoimmune diseases?

a)

HLA type has no effect on autoimmune diseases

b)

Certain HLA types are associated with increased risk of autoimmune diseases

c)

All HLA types prevent autoimmune diseases

d)

HLA types only affect infectious diseases

105.

What is the primary purpose of crossmatching in transplantation?

a)

To determine organ size

b)

To assess compatibility between donor and recipient

c)

To evaluate surgical techniques

d)

To measure blood pressure

106.

What is the significance of the HLA-D locus?

a)

It codes for blood proteins

b)

It is involved in muscle growth

c)

It includes genes that present antigens to T cells

d)

It regulates hormone levels

107.

What is the main function of class II MHC molecules?

a)

To present intracellular antigens

b)

To present extracellular antigens to T cells

c)

To produce antibodies

d)

To transport nutrients

108.

What is the role of the immune system in graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)?

a)

To attack the recipient's cells

b)

To protect the recipient from infection

c)

To enhance organ function

d)

To regulate blood sugar levels

109.

What is the primary method for identifying HLA alleles at the DNA level?

a)

Serological testing

b)

Ultrasound scanning

c)

X-ray imaging

d)

PCR amplification and sequencing

110.

What is the significance of the hemochromatosis gene in relation to the MHC?

a)

It regulates immune responses

b)

It codes for blood proteins

c)

It is located within the extended MHC locus

d)

It is unrelated to the MHC