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integumentary function/ disorders

Total questions: 43

Worksheet time: 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Name the fat-rich layer beneath the dermis that helps insulate the body and store energy.

(a)  

2.

Fill in the blank: The primary photoprotective benefit of scalp hair is (a)   .

3.

Name the vascular structure that nourishes the growing hair within the bulb.

(a)  

4.

Which pair correctly matches a follicle sheath with its broader category?

a)

Internal root sheath — epithelial

b)

Dermal root sheath — epithelial

c)

External root sheath — dermal

d)

Medulla — epithelial sheath

5.

Observing whether the skin surface is free of debris, oils, or contaminants relates to which category?

a)

Cleanliness of the skin

b)

Tissue perfusion status

c)

Lesion morphological type

d)

Thermoregulatory function

6.

Choose the distinction that correctly pairs the factor with its primary focus: thickness vs quantity.

a)

Thickness measures strand diameter; quantity counts hairs

b)

Thickness counts hairs; quantity measures diameter

c)

Both measure color saturation; different tools

d)

Both assess lubrication; different regions

7.

Fill in the blank: Evaluating how smooth, coarse, or curly the hair feels relates to (a)   .

8.

Fill in the blank: In nail assessment, suspicious growths or breaks are documented as (a)   .

9.

You suspect fungal involvement due to crumbly nail plates. Which category should be emphasized in your notes?

a)

Shape category primarily

b)

Color category primarily

c)

Consistency category primarily

d)

Lesions category primarily

10.

Which clinical finding requires additional investigation by the nurse?

a)

CRT less than two seconds

b)

New-onset petechial rash

c)

Macule with symmetrical regular border

d)

Pale nail bed after cold exposure

11.

Which finding most strongly suggests a systemic bleeding disorder requiring prompt workup?

a)

Symmetrical macule with even color

b)

New-onset widespread petechiae

c)

CRT faster than two seconds

d)

Cold-induced nail bed cyanosis

12.

Plan care for a patient with new-onset petechiae. Which step is most appropriate first?

a)

Review medications for thrombocytopenia

b)

Document normal capillary refill time

c)

Advise wearing warmer gloves

d)

Measure macule border symmetry

13.

A 79-year-old female with incontinence has a Braden score of 14 and mobility score of 2. Which action best prevents moisture-associated skin damage after an episode?

a)

Gently cleanse and dry the skin promptly

b)

Delay cleaning until the next scheduled care

c)

Use hot water and vigorous scrubbing

d)

Apply occlusive ointment without cleaning

14.

Which instruction about skin hygiene after incontinence is most appropriate?

a)

Use gentle, pH-balanced cleansing

b)

Scrub aggressively to remove residue

c)

Apply bleach-based antiseptics

d)

Avoid drying to keep moisture

15.

A patient has limited mobility and incontinence. Which nursing priority reduces pressure injury risk?

a)

Reposition at least every two hours

b)

Keep patient sitting continuously

c)

Use restraints to prevent movement

d)

Elevate heels without repositioning

16.

Given a Braden score of 14, what does this indicate about risk level for pressure injury?

a)

Moderate risk requires preventive measures

b)

No risk so routine care only

c)

Extreme risk requires surgery

d)

Low risk without interventions

17.

Why is aggressive scrubbing after incontinence discouraged in older adults?

a)

It increases skin trauma and irritation

b)

It fully sterilizes the skin

c)

It strengthens dermal barriers

d)

It improves circulation significantly

18.

Which tissue culturing method involves collecting material with a swab from a lesion surface?

a)

Swab sampling from lesion surface

b)

Needle aspiration of fluid pocket

c)

Core biopsy of deeper tissue

d)

Surgical excision of entire mass

19.

Which choice correctly groups laboratory studies listed under diagnostic studies for infection workup?

a)

CBC, albumin, lactate, BUN, creatinine

b)

CXR, ECG, spirometry, audiometry

c)

PT/INR, aPTT, fibrinogen level

d)

Urinalysis, pap smear, allergy testing

20.

Select the virus that commonly produces orolabial lesions and can establish latency in trigeminal ganglia.

a)

Herpes simplex virus type 1

b)

Measles morbillivirus

c)

Human papillomavirus 16

d)

Rubella togavirus

21.

What are the 3 layers of the skin?

a)

Epidermis, dermis, hair

b)

Dermis, hypo dermis, nails

c)

Epidermis, dermis, fatty layer

22.

This outer layer of the skin is called the

a)

Dermis

b)

Fatty Tissue

c)

Hair Bed

d)

Epidermis

23.

Analyze how the skin's structure contributes to its function as a barrier.

a)

The epidermis is thin and allows easy passage of substances.

b)

The dermis contains blood vessels that nourish the skin.

c)

The multiple layers of the epidermis provide a tough barrier.

d)

The hypodermis stores fat for insulation.

24.
The waterproofing protein that fills the cells in the upper layers of the epidermis.
a)
Keratin
b)
Melatonin
c)
Melanin
d)
Actin
25.
Which is NOT a function of the skin?
a)
Insulation
b)
Movement
c)
Excretion
d)
Vitamin D Production
26.

Check all the main layers of the skin

a)

Alveoli layer

b)

Dermis

c)

Epidermis

d)

Subcutaneous fat layer

e)

Semi permeable layer

27.
Which of the following is NOT part of the integumentary system?
a)
Skin
b)
Cartilage 
c)
Nails
d)
Hair
28.
What are functions of skin?
a)
Protect Bones
b)
Protect Muscles
c)
Protect Organs
d)
All of the above
29.
The most important function of skin is:
a)
Protection
b)
Storing fat
c)
Sweating 
d)
Insulation 
30.

Label F

a)

Epidermis

b)

Reticular Tissue

c)

Adipose Tissue

d)

Hair Root

31.
# 3 Refers to the ...
a)
epidermis
b)
hypodermis
c)
dermis
d)
hair follicle
32.
What does your skin make?
a)
sweat, oil, wax
b)
food
33.
Inflammation of the skin due to irritating chemicals is called:
a)
Contact dermatitis
b)
Impetigo
c)
Vitiligo
d)
Psoriasis
34.

Which of the following conditions is characterized by the formation of blisters?

a)

Eczema

b)

Psoriasis

c)

Herpes Zoster

d)

Acne

35.

Which of the following is a sign of skin cancer?

a)

A wound that heals quickly

b)

A mole that changes in size, shape, or color

c)

Smooth, unblemished skin

d)

A decrease in the number of freckles

36.

Acne is a disorder associated with:

a)

Sweat glands

b)

Hair follicles and sebaceous glands

c)

Melanocytes

d)

Keratinocytes

37.

Psoriasis is a skin condition that causes:

a)

Thick, red areas covered with white or silver scales

b)

Excessive sweating

c)

Decreased melanin production

d)

Increased oil production

38.

Melissa has been to tanning bed frequently. She has a lesion with irregular borders and different colors and is getting bigger.

a)

Melanoma

b)

psoriasis

c)

dermatitis

d)

scabes

39.

Which of the following is an indication of melanoma?

a)

a very symmetrical mole

b)

a red, dome-shaped bump

c)

a pigmented spot that is black

d)

a pigmented spot that contains areas of different color

40.

Which of the following produces a substance to keep skin soft and moist and also fights against bacteria on the skin?

a)

Apocrine gland

b)

Eccrine gland

c)

Sebaceous gland

41.
What is another name for the hypodermis?
a)
epidermis
b)
subcutaneous layer
c)
stratum basale
42.
The waterproofing protein that fills the cells in the upper layers of the epidermis.
a)
Keratin
b)
Melatonin
c)
Melanin
d)
Actin
43.

Check ALL facts that are false about the integumentary system

a)

Blood is pumped to the nephrons in the epidermis

b)

The sun is essential for Vitamin D production in the skin

c)

Dark haired, dark skinned, dark eyed people are most at risk of skin cancer

d)

Cancer is uncontrolled cell growth