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Introduction to Hematological System and Blood Functions

Total questions: 56

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which component is the clear, yellow, protein‑rich fluid portion of blood?

a)

Plasma

b)

Erythrocytes

c)

Leukocytes

d)

Platelets

2.

A patient with reduced red blood cells will primarily have impaired (a)   .

3.

A febrile patient shows elevated white blood cells. Choose the best explanation using blood functions.

a)

Immune protection against infection

b)

Regulation of body temperature only

c)

Enhanced clot formation and repair

d)

Transport of hormones exclusively

4.

Which site is the primary location for blood cell formation and maturation in adults?

a)

Spleen parenchyma

b)

Liver sinusoids

c)

Bone marrow

d)

Thymic cortex

5.

Fill in the blank: The normal red blood cell count is approximately (a)   million per mm3.

6.

A patient’s erythrocytes show altered shape and membrane composition. Which immediate physiologic consequence is most likely?

a)

Enhanced antibody production

b)

Impaired gas diffusion across membranes

c)

Increased clotting factor synthesis

d)

Accelerated lymphocyte maturation

7.

Which statement best defines hematocrit (Hct) in a complete blood count?

a)

Volume of plasma excluding leukocytes

b)

Volume of blood composed of erythrocytes

c)

Percentage of hemoglobin within red cells

d)

Number of red cells per milliliter

8.

A patient has a severe deficiency of hemoglobin. Which outcome is most likely if this condition is not corrected?

a)

Improved carbon dioxide buffering capacity

b)

Death due to inadequate oxygen delivery

c)

Enhanced platelet aggregation during injury

d)

Increased hematocrit despite anemia

9.

Which structural feature enables one hemoglobin molecule to transport oxygen effectively?

a)

Two heme groups without iron centers

b)

Four globin chains with iron-free heme

c)

Four heme groups each binding oxygen

d)

Single globin chain carrying four oxygens

10.

What is the primary role of erythropoietin in red blood cell regulation?

a)

Enable hemoglobin to transport oxygen

b)

Carry carbon dioxide from tissues to lungs

c)

Decrease red blood cell production

d)

Stimulate red blood cell production

11.

Which white blood cell type is most abundant in circulation and primarily destroys bacteria through phagocytosis?

a)

Neutrophils, most abundant, phagocytose bacteria

b)

Eosinophils, allergy related, combat histamine

c)

Basophils, rare cells, release inflammatory mediators

d)

Monocytes, tissue residents, differentiate to macrophages

e)

Lymphocytes, adaptive cells, produce specific antibodies

12.

Which scenario would most likely cause an increase in eosinophil count?

a)

Acute bacterial pneumonia with high fever

b)

Seasonal allergic rhinitis with pruritus

c)

Chronic alcoholism with malnutrition

d)

Severe burns after radiation exposure

e)

Early HIV infection with lymphopenia

13.

A patient undergoing chemotherapy presents with decreased neutrophils and recurrent infections. Which interpretation best explains the lab finding?

a)

Cytotoxic therapy suppresses neutrophil production

b)

Allergic reaction increases eosinophil dominance

c)

Alcohol use elevates basophils in circulation

d)

Corticosteroid excess elevates monocyte levels

e)

Viral illness expands lymphocyte percentages

14.

Which hormone primarily regulates platelet (thrombocyte) production?

a)

Erythropoietin from renal cortex

b)

Thrombopoietin from liver

c)

Cortisol from adrenal cortex

d)

Vasopressin from posterior pituitary

15.

A patient has a small vascular injury. What is the immediate platelet response depicted in the micrograph of circulating platelets?

a)

Release fibrin to seal wound

b)

Collect, adhere, form temporary plug

c)

Differentiate into neutrophils rapidly

d)

Store in spleen until needed

16.

In the diagram showing plasma composition, which component makes up the largest proportion of plasma by volume?

a)

Proteins about eight percent

b)

Water around ninety percent

c)

Electrolytes roughly two percent

d)

Gases less than one percent

17.

Using the diagram, identify the primary plasma proteins listed and select the option that correctly groups them together.

a)

Albumin, globulin, fibrinogen

b)

Hemoglobin, myosin, actin

c)

Insulin, glucagon, cortisol

d)

Sodium, potassium, chloride

18.

Fill in the blank: The spleen’s red pulp primarily functions in (a)   .

19.

Which laboratory test primarily monitors the intrinsic coagulation pathway depicted in the diagram?

a)

Prothrombin time (PT) measurement

b)

Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) assessment

c)

International normalized ratio (INR) calculation

d)

Bleeding time (BT) estimation

20.

According to the diagram, which sequence correctly represents the transition within the common pathway after Factor Xa forms?

a)

Prothrombin to thrombin to fibrinogen

b)

Thrombin to prothrombin to fibrin polymer

c)

Fibrinogen to thrombin to prothrombin

d)

Prothrombin to fibrinogen to thrombin

21.

A patient with suspected clotting factor deficiency presents after minor trauma. Which finding most directly supports this diagnosis?

a)

Easy bruising and cutaneous hematomas with minor trauma

b)

Bleeding gums and prolonged bleeding after minor cuts

c)

Enhanced platelet aggregation with increased RBC clumping

d)

Fibrin threads forming quickly to improve wound healing

22.

Fill in the blank: During the acute inflammatory response, increased capillary (a)   allows neutrophils to exit the bloodstream and reach injured tissue.

23.

Which patient symptom most directly suggests a hematological bleeding tendency during history taking?

a)

Intermittent tingling in fingertips after exercise

b)

Easy bruising with minor bumps and scrapes

c)

Occasional warmth in hands on cold days

d)

Brief dizziness only after standing quickly

24.

A patient with cholelithiasis develops prolonged bleeding after minor procedures. What is the most plausible mechanism?

a)

Reduced bile flow impairs vitamin K absorption

b)

Gallstones directly destroy circulating platelets

c)

Gallbladder inflammation increases fibrin production

d)

Biliary pain suppresses bone marrow thrombopoiesis

25.

During medication history, which combination requires the most caution for bleeding risk and why?

a)

Aspirin with warfarin due to dual antithrombotic effects

b)

Heparin with short-course antibiotics due to marrow suppression

c)

Vitamin supplements with enoxaparin due to clot enhancement

d)

Plavix with herbs because herbs always increase clotting

26.

Which respiratory finding most directly indicates compromised gas exchange during a hematological assessment?

a)

Irregular respiratory rhythm without desaturation

b)

Normal oxygen saturation at rest and exertion

c)

Shortness of breath with stable oxygen saturation

d)

Decreased oxygen saturation level on pulse oximetry

27.

A patient with anemia presents with fatigue and dizziness. Plan the initial cardiovascular assessment step to evaluate cardiac compensation.

a)

Measure systolic BP for possible lower readings

b)

Palpate peripheral pulses for bounding quality

c)

Order an echocardiogram to assess valve structure

d)

Start oxygen therapy without auscultation

28.

A positive Coombs test most directly indicates the presence of what on red blood cells?

(a)  

29.

Low serum ferritin levels most strongly suggest which clinical scenario?

a)

Iron deficiency or chronic gastrointestinal bleeding

b)

Alcoholic liver disease causing iron overload

c)

Hemochromatosis with excess body iron storage

d)

Hodgkin's disease increasing ferritin production

30.

Which test primarily evaluates the extrinsic coagulation pathway?

a)

Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

b)

Bleeding time assessment

c)

Prothrombin time (PT)

d)

Platelet aggregation study

31.

Another name for a white blood cell is

a)

erythrocyte

b)

leukocyte

c)

thrombocyte

d)

hemacyte

32.

What is this?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Eosinophil

c)

Basophil

d)

Lymphocyte

e)

Monocyte

33.
white blood cells are also known as
a)
thrombocytes
b)
erthryocytes
c)
monocytes
d)
leukocytes
34.

Hematopoiesis is the function of the:

a)

integumentary system

b)

nervous system

c)

endocrine system

d)

skeletal system

35.

Study of the physiology of the blood.

(a)  

36.

The disease known as malaria may result in a fever, a decrease in red blood cells, and an enlarged liver and spleen. These symptoms are evidence of

a)

a disruption of homeostasis

b)

a decrease in allergic reactions

c)

an increased number of cell organelles

d)

hormone destruction

37.

Which of these pictures shows an erythrocyte?

a)
b)
c)
d)
38.

What is bleeding diathesis?

a)

Excessive clot formation

b)

Excessive bleeding

c)

Internal bleeding

d)

All of these

39.

Which of the following types of hemoglobin's is not normally found in human being

a)

Hb F

b)

Hb A

c)

Hb A2

d)

Hb G

40.
Within the lungs, the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs between the ___ and the capillaries. 
a)
trachea 
b)
bronchi 
c)
alveoli
d)
diaphragm
41.

What is plasma?

a)

only white blood cells

b)

only red blood cells

c)

fluid part of blood

d)

hemoglobin

42.
What part of blood carries hemoglobin?
a)
Red blood cells
b)
Plasma
c)
Platlets
d)
White blood cells
43.
_______ is made mostly of water and makes up about 55% of the blood
a)
Plasma
b)
Platelets 
c)
Red blood cells
d)
White blood cells
44.
Which component of blood is responsible for helping to stop bleeding?
a)
platelets
b)
red blood cells
c)
white blood cells
d)
plasma
45.

Which component makes up 1% of the blood?

a)
White blood cells & Platelets
b)
Plasma & White blood cells
46.

Which statement correctly describes the activities of the components of human blood shown in the diagram?

a)

Both A and B function in immune responses, and C transports oxygen

b)

A, B, and C are able to synthesize hemoglobin

c)

Both B and C provide immunity, and A transports nutrients

d)

A transports oxygen, B starts clots, and C functions in immune response to fight infections

47.

What percentage of plasma is composed of water?

a)

100%

b)

90%

c)

45%

d)

55%

48.

The fluid portion of blood that carries blood cells, glucose, proteins, fats, and wastes throughout the body.

a)

red blood cells

b)

white blood cells

c)

plasma

d)

platelets

49.

What does the plasma carry to the cells of the body?

Check all that apply.

a)

oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

nutrients

d)

waste

50.
White blood cells are an important part of the human immune response. Two types of white blood cells, neutrophils and macrophages, act as phagocytes. Phagocytes perform which of the following functions in the human body? 
a)
They produce antibodies.
b)
They bind to antigens and develop into plasma cells.
c)
They form a barrier against pathogens.
d)
They engulf and destroy bacteria.
51.

All of the following are examples of white blood cells EXCEPT

a)

Killer T cells

b)

Supporter T cells

c)

Macrophage

d)

Vaccine

e)

B Cell

52.

What does this picture show?

a)

Plasma tranfusion

b)

Blood clotting

c)

Cellular respiration

d)

Protection against disease

53.

Your white blood cells are part of your _______ line of defense

a)

first

b)

second

c)

third

54.

A substance on the surface of red blood cells that can trigger the production of antibodies

a)

agglutinates

b)

antigens

c)

anemia

d)

Rh Factor

55.
How does immune system fight viruses?
a)
Immune system guards our body and when red blood cells which are the part of our immune system detect viruses in our body they kill the antigen or viruses by antibodies.
b)
Immune system guards our body and when 
white blood cells which are the part of our immune system 
detect viruses in our body they kill the antigen or viruses by antibodies.
c)
Immune system guards our body and when 
antibiotics which are the part of our immune system 
detect viruses in our body they kill the antigen.
d)
None of above 
56.

What is the role of memory cells in the immune system?

a)

To remember and quickly respond to pathogens the body has previously encountered

b)

To store information about the body's cells

c)

To produce antibodies continuously

d)

To memorize the genetic code of pathogens