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Year 7 HPE - Unit 3 - Weeks 6-9 review

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines a heat-related illness?

a)

A condition where the body overheats from prolonged high temperatures

b)

A condition caused only by sunburn during midday exposure

c)

An illness that occurs exclusively when exercising in cold weather

d)

A disease transmitted by contact with hot surfaces at the beach

2.

Which set correctly matches a heat-related illness with a typical effect on the body?

a)

Heat exhaustion — heavy sweating and dizziness

b)

Heat cramps — high body temperature and confusion

c)

Dehydration — unconsciousness and collapse

d)

Heat stroke — mild thirst and dry mouth

3.

You notice a friend is weak, sweating heavily, and dizzy after working outside. What is the most appropriate immediate interpretation and next step?

a)

Likely heat exhaustion — move to shade and cool down

b)

Likely dehydration — ignore symptoms and continue activity

c)

Likely heat stroke — give hot drinks and increase exercise

d)

Likely sunburn — apply sunscreen and stay in direct sun

4.

Which environmental setting most increases the risk of heat-related illness during the late afternoon?

a)

Shaded rural farmland with cool breezes

b)

Urban heat island with little available shade

c)

Suburban park with many mature trees

d)

Coastal village with steady cool winds

5.

A student exercises outdoors on a humid day. Which body cooling process becomes less effective and why?

a)

Shivering because muscles use more stored energy

b)

Sweating because evaporation is reduced by humidity

c)

Vasoconstriction because vessels narrow near skin

d)

Breathing because lungs release less carbon dioxide

6.

You are planning a community sports event during a heatwave. Which combined strategy best lowers participants' overheating risk?

a)

Schedule midday games and require dark fitted jerseys

b)

Provide shade tents, frequent water breaks, and light loose clothing

c)

Limit water access and encourage continuous high-intensity play

d)

Hold events on asphalt courts surrounded by tall buildings

7.

Which scenario best illustrates why knowing safe first-aid steps is essential in everyday life?

a)

A friend collapses during a weekend sport event

b)

Reading about emergencies in a safety brochure

c)

Practicing keyboard skills at the dinner table

d)

Waiting calmly at home on a quiet evening

8.

What is the first step in the DRSABCD action plan before approaching a patient?

a)

Check for danger to everyone

b)

Send for emergency help

c)

Check for normal breathing

d)

Open and clear the airway

9.

You find an unresponsive person. After checking for danger and response, what should you do next?

a)

Look, listen, and feel for breathing

b)

Call Triple Zero for an ambulance

c)

Begin chest compressions immediately

d)

Place the person in recovery position

10.

During the airway step, which action correctly opens the airway for breathing assessment?

a)

Tilt head with chin lift

b)

Lift shoulders gently twice

c)

Roll onto the stomach carefully

d)

Push down on the abdomen

11.

A teen collapses at school and is not breathing normally. You have a defibrillator nearby. Which sequence best applies the plan?

a)

Start CPR, send for help, apply defibrillator

b)

Open airway, check breathing, start CPR

c)

Send for help, start CPR, apply defibrillator

d)

Apply defibrillator, then check for danger

12.

A conscious person is injured but alert. What should you do before touching them to provide help?

a)

Begin treatment without delay

b)

Ask for their permission to help

c)

Call emergency services immediately

d)

Move them to a safer location first

13.

Which statement best explains why consent matters when offering first aid to a conscious person?

a)

It prevents wasting medical supplies

b)

It avoids actions that could be assault

c)

It ensures faster recovery time

d)

It replaces the need for qualifications

14.

You approach a conscious casualty. Choose the best sequence to obtain consent.

a)

Ask for permission, introduce yourself, start treatment

b)

Introduce yourself, explain the situation, ask permission

c)

Explain the situation, start treatment, ask permission

d)

Start treatment, introduce yourself, explain the situation

15.

A conscious casualty refuses help. What is the appropriate action?

a)

Respect their decision and stay nearby

b)

Proceed with treatment immediately

c)

Call the police to compel treatment

d)

Leave the area without checking again

16.

Which statement best describes sudden cardiac arrest shown in the slide?

a)

A sudden disruption of normal heart rhythm

b)

A gradual narrowing of coronary arteries

c)

A temporary increase in blood pressure during stress

d)

A mild chest pain that resolves with rest

17.

You find someone unresponsive and not breathing. Based on the slide, what immediate action sequence is most appropriate?

a)

Begin chest compressions then give mouth-to-mouth breaths

b)

Place them in recovery position and wait for help

c)

Offer water and monitor their pulse closely

d)

Massage the chest lightly to reduce discomfort

18.

What is the first action when you find a collapsed person near water?

a)

Check danger and move from water

b)

Start chest compressions immediately

c)

Call triple zero before approaching

d)

Attach a defibrillator right away

19.

During CPR on an adult, which sequence correctly applies compressions and breaths?

a)

Thirty compressions then two breaths

b)

Two breaths then thirty compressions

c)

Fifteen compressions with one breath

d)

Ten compressions followed by two breaths

20.

You arrive first at a shopping mall incident. A bystander is on the phone. To coordinate an effective response, what should you direct them to report to triple zero?

a)

Exact location and what happened

b)

Your full name and age

c)

Ambulance arrival time estimate

d)

Victim’s family medical history

21.

Which action is the first priority to control severe external bleeding from a conscious casualty’s limb?

a)

Apply direct pressure using a pad or hands

b)

Rinse the wound thoroughly with clean water

c)

Wrap a tight tourniquet above the wound

d)

Give the casualty water to prevent fainting

22.

A bandage on a bleeding wound has become soaked with blood. What should you do next?

a)

Remove the wet bandage and replace it

b)

Add another pad and bandage over the top

c)

Leave it and wait thirty minutes

d)

Tighten the existing bandage significantly

23.

Which set lists common signs and symptoms of a sprain?

a)

Pain, swelling, bruising, tenderness

b)

Numbness, fever, rash, sneezing

c)

Dry skin, cough, sore throat, itching

d)

Headache, diarrhea, blurred vision, chills

24.

You twist your ankle while landing on the side of your foot during a game. What is the most appropriate first step of the RICE method?

a)

Rest the injured ankle immediately

b)

Elevate the ankle above heart

c)

Apply compression bandage first

d)

Heat the area for circulation

25.

A friend has a sprained wrist. Plan the first 24 hours of cold therapy following safe rules.

a)

Wrap ice in damp cloth, apply 15 minutes, reapply every 2 hours

b)

Place ice directly on skin, keep for 30 minutes continuously

c)

Apply once for 10 minutes, then switch to heat packs

d)

Use warm water cloth for 15 minutes, reapply every 4 hours

26.

Which factor directly increases stopping distance and crash risk even on clear roads?

a)

Speeding above the limit on highways

b)

Wearing bright clothing at night

c)

Listening to quiet background music

d)

Driving only during daylight hours

27.

A new driver is urged by friends to drive faster on wet roads. Which TWO combined risk factors are most evident in this situation?

a)

Peer pressure and poor weather conditions

b)

Poor road conditions and status seeking

c)

Inexperience and perfect visibility

d)

Complacency and using safety equipment

28.

Look at the line graph of road traffic deaths by age (2002, 2007, 2012). Which age range shows the highest peak across the years shown?

a)

Around ages 18–20 years

b)

Around ages 14–16 years

c)

Around ages 24–26 years

d)

Around ages 28–30 years

29.

Which statement best describes a primary function of a seatbelt during a sudden stop?

a)

It slows the occupant’s movement gradually

b)

It tightens only around the shoulder strap

c)

It directs impact force to the head area

d)

It releases automatically to avoid restraint

30.

Which action most increases a cyclist’s visibility during night rides?

a)

Wearing reflective high-visibility clothing

b)

Riding faster to pass intersections quickly

c)

Turning off the bell to save battery power

d)

Balancing a bag on the handlebars for height