WorksheetsTransdermal and Biologics
Total questions: 60
Worksheet time: 30mins
Which of the following is an advantage of transdermal drug delivery systems?
Drugs must undergo first-pass metabolism to become active
Doses must be administered multiple times daily
Serum drug levels remain relatively constant
Only drugs >1000 Da can be delivered through the skin
In which patch type is the drug contained in a liquid compartment separated from the adhesive by a membrane?
Matrix patch
Single-layer drug-in-adhesive
Multiple-layer drug-in-adhesive
Reservoir patch
Which statement best explains why extremely lipophilic drugs fail to permeate effectively?
They cannot partition into the stratum corneum
They cannot diffuse out of the skin after permeation
They degrade rapidly in the epidermis
They require iontophoresis to activate
Which enhancement technique increases skin permeability by creating temporary pores through electrical pulses?
Sonophoresis
Microneedles
Electroporation
Chemical enhancers
Which physiological condition increases percutaneous absorption?
Thickened callused skin
Low hydration of stratum corneum
Pathologic skin damage
Decreased surface area
Which component prevents water vapor loss and protects drug from environmental exposure?
Reservoir chamber
Backing layer
Release liner
Diffusion membrane
Which patch type contains multiple drug-loaded adhesive layers separated by a membrane?
Multiple-layer drug-in-adhesive
Matrix
Reservoir
Vapor patch
Which permeation enhancer works by increasing hydration of the stratum corneum and creating hydrophilic diffusion channels?
Urea
Sonophoresis
Electroporation
Microneedles
Which technique enhances skin permeability by applying ultrasound energy?
Sonophoresis
Iontophoresis
Pulsed electroporation
Nanoparticle diffusion
Which chemical enhancer was the first specifically designed to increase penetration across skin?
DMSO
Azone
Lauric acid
Decyloxazolidinone
A drug with which of the following properties is least suitable for transdermal delivery?
MW 150 Da
Log P = 6
Daily dose <5 mg
Nonpolar molecular structure
Which factor most increases drug permeation from a patch?
Decreasing patch surface area
Lowering concentration of drug in adhesive
Increasing exposure time
Raising molecular weight
Which counseling point is correct for applying a transdermal patch?
Apply new patch without removing the old one to maintain steady levels
Touch adhesive to ensure drug activation
Clean application site before use
Apply only to damaged skin to improve penetration
Which prostaglandin antagonist used for overactive bladder is delivered twice weekly via a drug-in-adhesive patch?
Nitroglycerin
Oxybutynin (Oxytrol)
Fentanyl (Duragesic)
Estradiol (Alora)
Which term refers specifically to movement of drug through intact skin into systemic circulation?
Penetration
Permeation
Percutaneous absorption
Partitioning
A drug with Log P = 0.2 is least likely to be ideal for transdermal delivery because:
It is too hydrophilic to partition into skin lipids
It will diffuse too easily out of the stratum corneum
It requires a low daily dose
It has excessive lipid solubility
Increasing the surface area of a patch will primarily increase which of the following?
Potency
Molecular weight
Amount of drug absorbed percutaneously
Drug half-life in circulation
Finite dosing in transdermal delivery refers to:
A fixed amount of drug present in the reservoir or adhesive
Unlimited diffusion controlled by body metabolism
Continuous release with no concentration gradient
Permeation driven by electrical current
Which component must possess bidirectional flexibility and prevent moisture and drug loss?
Release liner
Drug reservoir
Backing layer
Membrane
Which permeation enhancer works by expanding intercellular lipids and lipoprotein channels?
Fatty acids
Urea
DMSO
Oxazolidinones
Which enhancer increases delivery of both hydrophilic and lipophilic permeants?
Pyrrolidones
Azone
Lauric acid
Urea
Which technique uses electrical current to drive charged drug molecules across skin?
Sonophoresis
Iontophoresis
Electroporation
Microneedles
Microneedle systems are most useful for drugs that are:
Low-potency molecules requiring large doses
Highly hydrophobic compounds
Large biomolecules such as vaccines
Drugs degraded by the stratum corneum lipids
Which patch delivers estradiol once weekly via a drug-in-adhesive mechanism?
Climara
Lidosite
Habitrol
Duragesic
Which best describes proper patch administration?
Rotate site to prevent irritation and improve absorption
Apply near joints to ensure increased circulation
Cut patches to adjust dose for pediatric patients
Apply to moist skin to increase adhesion
Which enhancer increases delivery of highly lipophilic anti-estrogen drugs such as progesterone?
Azone
Pyrrolidones
Lauric acid in propylene glycol
Urea
Polar drugs primarily permeate skin via which pathway?
Intracellular lipid diffusion
Transcellular route
Paracellular route
Follicular route only
Which factor increases percutaneous absorption by expanding lipid channels in the stratum corneum?
Aging
Hydration
Increased molecular weight
Reduced patch surface area
Which layer is typically made of aluminum foil ethylene-vinyl acetate?
Membrane
Backing layer
Adhesive
Protective layer
Decyloxazolidin-2-one is clinically useful because it:
Increases hydrophilic drug solubility
Enhances delivery of ingredients such as retinoic acid into skin layers
Causes irreversible lipid disruption
Increases patch adhesion duration
Which of the following best distinguishes biologics from traditional small-molecule drugs?
Biologics are synthesized chemically while small-molecule drugs are produced using living cells
Biologics are produced from natural sources and have large complex structures
Small-molecule drugs target proteins, whereas biologics target carbohydrates
Biologics cannot be used for disease prevention
Which is an example of a biologic product?
Atorvastatin
Aspirin
Varicella vaccine
Metformin
Which cell type plays the most important role in activating T-cells following vaccine administration?
Macrophages
Dendritic cells
Plasma cells
Cytotoxic T-cells
Which vaccine type consists of live but weakened pathogens?
Subunit
Attenuated
Toxoid
Inactivated
Which vaccine type contains exotoxins that have been inactivated?
Subunit
Conjugate
Toxoid
Recombinant vector
Which vaccine type is MOST likely to require booster doses due to weaker immune responses?
Live attenuated
Inactivated
Conjugate
DNA
What is the primary mechanism of cancer vaccines?
Neutralizing circulating tumor toxins
Stimulating cytotoxic immune responses against TAAs
Preventing viral DNA replication
Inducing antibody-only immune pathways
Autologous tumor vaccines are developed from:
Viral vectors inserted into host cells
Tumor cells collected from another patient
Antigenic material from the patient's own tumor
Recombinant antibody fragments
Which organism is commonly used to produce recombinant human protein products?
Lactobacillus acidophilus
E. coli
Staphylococcus aureus
Influenza virus
The first recombinant products approved for clinical use were:
Interferons and HGH
Insulin and human growth hormone
TNF-alpha inhibitors
Recombinant cancer vaccines
Failure to maintain cold-chain temperature during vaccine transport may result in:
Increased immune response strength
Enhanced adjuvant function
Loss of antigen structure and reduced potency
Increased toxicity of preservatives
Which statement is TRUE regarding stability of inactivated vaccines?
They are less stable than live vaccines and degrade rapidly
They are stable and can be stored freeze-dried for transport
They must be stored below -80°C
They are unaffected by temperature changes
Which scenario represents passive immunization?
Receiving an mRNA COVID vaccine
Administration of rabies immunoglobulin after exposure
Receiving an oral rotavirus vaccine
Developing antibodies after chickenpox infection
Which cancer vaccine type uses tumor cells collected from another patient?
Autologous
Allogeneic
Anti-idiotypic
Genetic fusion
The function of adjuvants in vaccines is to:
Preserve antigens from degradation
Enhance immune response to antigens
Kill viral particles prior to injection
Prevent allergic reactions
Which FDA-approved adjuvant is derived from bacterial components?
Aluminum phosphate
Monophosphoryl lipid A
Gelatin
Thimerosal
Home pregnancy tests work because monoclonal antibodies bind to:
Estrogen
Progesterone
Human chorionic gonadotropin
LH-releasing hormone
Live attenuated vaccines should NOT be given to:
Healthy adults
Patients with mild allergies
Pregnant or immunocompromised patients
Patients with mild viral infections
What is the primary purpose of linking polysaccharides to proteins in conjugate vaccines?
Increase antigenic variability
Induce T-cell–dependent immune responses
Convert viruses into inactivated forms
Prevent intracellular uptake of antigens
Why is formaldehyde included in certain vaccine formulations?
To enhance dendritic cell antigen uptake
To increase shelf stability at room temperature
To prevent viral mutation
To inactivate and detoxify toxins and proteins
Which cancer vaccine type involves immunizing with antigenic determinants on antibodies rather than tumor cells?
Allogeneic
Anti-idiotypic
Gene therapy
Autologous
Diagnostic skin antigen tests assess immunity by evaluating:
Serum IgG concentration
Hypersensitivity reactions measured in millimeters
Cytokine secretion during antigen exposure
Antibody binding kinetics
Candida albicans skin testing is used to:
Detect vaccines contaminated with yeast proteins
Diagnose fungal lung infections
Assess immune competency in HIV patients
Identify cancer-associated TAAs
Which ingredient serves as a stabilizer in vaccine formulations?
Albumin
Insulin
Monoclonal antibody fragments
Recombinant plasmids
A hallmark of autologous cancer vaccines is that:
They use tumor cells derived from the same patient
They are inexpensive and mass-producible
They target only carbohydrate antigens
They never require surgical extraction
Which statement about vaccine safety is TRUE?
Thimerosal has been proven to cause autism
Vaccines may cause allergic reactions in some individuals
Vaccines directly increase cancer risk
Vaccines trigger widespread superantigen responses routinely
Herd immunity requires high vaccination rates because:
Unvaccinated individuals cannot spread pathogens
Lower vaccination rates increase mutation of vaccine antigens
Community protection prevents outbreaks in vulnerable groups
Vaccines eliminate environmental reservoirs of disease
Which vaccine type is MOST likely to produce the strongest, most durable immune response?
Inactivated vaccine
Live attenuated vaccine
Conjugate vaccine
Subunit vaccine
Which vaccine type contains only the specific antigenic fragments most likely to stimulate immunity?
Live attenuated
Toxoid
Subunit
DNA
Which cell type is LEAST involved in the long-term immunity produced by most vaccines?
Memory B-cells
Helper T-cells
Cytotoxic T-cells
Plasma cells
