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Cloud Computing Quiz

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What factor determines the effectiveness of the workload distribution architecture?

a)

The number of cloud service consumers.

b)

The sophistication of load balancing algorithms and runtime logic.

c)

The type of virtual servers used.

d)

The amount of elastic resource capacity available.

2.

Which of the following is NOT a foundational cloud architectural model mentioned in the text?

a)

Cloud Bursting

b)

Elastic Disk Provisioning

c)

Virtual Machine Clustering

d)

Service Load Balancing

3.

What is the primary function of a load balancer in a cloud architecture?

a)

To store data securely in virtual servers

b)

To intercept consumer requests and distribute workloads evenly

c)

To replicate IT resources for backup purposes

d)

To monitor runtime workloads for legal compliance

4.

Which mechanism isolates cloud consumer network boundaries in relation to workload distribution?

a)

Audit Monitor

b)

Logical Network Perimeter

c)

Resource Cluster

d)

Hypervisor

5.

What is the purpose of a resource pooling architecture?

a)

To distribute workloads between virtual servers

b)

To group identical IT resources and ensure synchronization

c)

To monitor runtime workloads for legal compliance

d)

To replicate IT resources for backup purposes

6.

Which mechanism generates new instances of virtualized IT resources in response to runtime workload distribution demands?

a)

Resource Replication

b)

Audit Monitor

c)

Cloud Usage Monitor

d)

Hypervisor

7.

What is the role of the Audit Monitor in a cloud architecture?

a)

To replicate IT resources for workload distribution

b)

To determine the geographical location of IT resources for legal compliance

c)

To group identical IT resources for synchronization

d)

To isolate cloud consumer network boundaries

8.

Which of the following is an example of a virtual server pool configuration?

a)

A pool of mid-tier Windows servers with 4 GB of RAM

b)

A pool of physical network switches for link aggregation

c)

A file-based storage structure containing cloud storage devices

d)

A networked server with operating systems ready for immediate use

9.

What is the purpose of network pools?

a)

To create redundant connectivity, load balancing, or link aggregation

b)

To store empty or filled cloud storage devices

c)

To configure virtual servers using templates

d)

To provide networked servers ready for immediate use

10.

Which type of pool is composed of preconfigured network connectivity devices?

a)

Network pools

b)

Storage pools

c)

Virtual server pools

d)

Physical server pools

11.

In the nested pool model, how are larger pools divided?

a)

By spreading resources across multiple data centers.

b)

By grouping the same type of IT resources together.

c)

By allocating resources randomly to different departments.

d)

By merging different types of IT resources into one pool.

12.

Why are sibling pools isolated from one another in cloud computing?

a)

To ensure each cloud consumer has exclusive access to its respective pool.

b)

To allow sharing of resources between cloud consumers.

c)

To spread resources across multiple data centers.

d)

To merge resources for better utilization.

13.

What is the role of the Cloud Usage Monitor in cloud architecture?

a)

To monitor compliance with privacy regulations.

b)

To track runtime synchronization and management of pooled IT resources.

c)

To manage virtual server configurations.

d)

To allocate memory resources dynamically.

14.

Which mechanism is responsible for providing virtual servers with access to resource pools and sometimes hosting the resource pools themselves?

a)

Logical Network Perimeter

b)

Pay-Per-Use Monitor

c)

Hypervisor

d)

Resource Replication

15.

What is the primary function of the Logical Network Perimeter mechanism?

a)

To monitor usage and billing information

b)

To logically organize and isolate resource pools

c)

To generate new instances of IT resources

d)

To provide resource pool administration features

16.

Which mechanism collects usage and billing information on how individual cloud consumers are allocated and use IT resources?

a)

Pay-Per-Use Monitor

b)

Resource Management System

c)

Remote Administration System

d)

Resource Replication

17.

What is the main purpose of the dynamic scalability architecture?

a)

To provide manual interaction for resource allocation

b)

To trigger dynamic allocation of IT resources based on predefined scaling conditions

c)

To host virtual servers and resource pools

d)

To monitor billing information for cloud consumers

18.

What happens during Dynamic Vertical Scaling?

a)

IT resources are relocated to a host with more capacity

b)

IT resource instances are scaled out and in to handle fluctuating workloads

c)

IT resource instances are scaled up and down to adjust the processing capacity of a single IT resource

d)

IT resources are logically organized and isolated

19.

What is an example of Dynamic Relocation?

a)

Scaling IT resources up and down to adjust processing capacity

b)

Relocating a database from a tape-based SAN storage device to a disk-based SAN storage device with higher I/O capacity

c)

Monitoring requests to initiate IT resource duplication

d)

Collecting usage and billing information for cloud consumers

20.

What happens when the number of requests from cloud service consumers exceeds the performance thresholds?

a)

The automated scaling listener shuts down the cloud service.

b)

The automated scaling listener determines the next steps to handle the overload.

c)

The cloud service instances automatically reject incoming requests.

d)

The virtual server host increases its capacity without intervention.

21.

Which mechanism is engaged to collect cost information in response to scaling IT resources in dynamic scalability architecture?

a)

Cloud Usage Monitor

b)

Hypervisor

c)

Pay-Per-Use Monitor

d)

Automated Scaling Listener

22.

What is the role of the cloud usage monitor in dynamic scalability architecture?

a)

To send signals to the resource replication mechanism.

b)

To track runtime usage fluctuations caused by dynamic scalability.

c)

To allocate and reclaim CPUs and RAM.

d)

To create or remove virtual server instances.

23.

What is the role of the hypervisor in the cloud service architecture?

a)

To execute scripts for scaling resources.

b)

To allocate additional CPU and RAM to virtual servers.

c)

To act as a load balancer for distributing workloads.

d)

To manage cloud service consumer requests.

24.

What is the purpose of the service load balancing architecture in cloud systems?

a)

To allocate additional CPU and RAM to virtual servers.

b)

To dynamically distribute workloads across redundant cloud service implementations.

c)

To signal the intelligent automation engine to execute scripts.

d)

To manage the resource pool with memory and CPU sub-pools.

25.

What does the elastic disk provisioning architecture ensure for cloud consumers?

a)

Cloud consumers are billed for the total allocated storage space regardless of usage.

b)

Cloud consumers are billed for the exact amount of storage they actually use.

c)

Cloud consumers are billed based on the number of virtual servers they provision.

d)

Cloud consumers are billed for the maximum storage capacity of the cloud provider.

26.

What is the purpose of Resource Replication in cloud storage architecture?

a)

To track and log storage usage fluctuations.

b)

To manage failures caused by network connectivity issues.

c)

To convert dynamic thin-disk storage into static thick-disk storage.

d)

To represent a logical drive partition.

27.

What happens when the primary cloud storage device fails in a redundant storage architecture?

a)

The storage service gateway diverts cloud consumer requests to the secondary device.

b)

The primary device automatically repairs itself.

c)

The data is permanently lost.

d)

The secondary device stops synchronizing with the primary device.

28.

What is serialization, and why is it important in the context of data destruction?

a)

The process of turning paper documents into a liquid

b)

Providing a certificate list of serial numbers for all items destroyed

c)

Changing the polarity of particles inside a hard drive

d)

Overwriting data with 1s and 0s

29.

Which method of data destruction involves turning paper documents into a liquid?

a)

Pulverizing

b)

Degaussing

c)

Burning

d)

Overwriting

30.

What does degaussing do to a storage device, making it unusable for further data storage?

a)

Changes the polarity of particles inside a hard drive

b)

Overwrites data with 1s and 0s

c)

Pulps paper documents

d)

Pulverizes the storage medium

31.

What is the purpose of using the pulping method for data destruction?

a)

To change the polarity of particles inside a hard drive

b)

To turn paper documents into a liquid

c)

To overwrite all data with 1s and 0s

d)

To make data unreadable by using a physical connection

32.

When is the "overwrite" method of data destruction commonly used, and how does it work?

a)

It is used for devices being discarded, and it involves changing the polarity of particles inside a hard drive

b)

It is used for storage mediums being reused within the same company, and it consists of overwriting all data with 1s and 0s

c)

It is used for paper documents, and it involves turning them into a liquid

d)

It is used for commercial burning of sensitive data

33.

What is the primary characteristic of Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)?

a)

Access to software applications

b)

Provisioning of IT resources

c)

Multi-tier web application/database platform

d)

Virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI)

34.

In Software as a Service (SaaS), how is software typically accessed by businesses?

a)

By purchasing software licenses

b)

By deploying and maintaining client PCs

c)

Through a pay-as-you-go or lease arrangement

d)

By renting IT resources on an as-needed basis

35.

What does Platform as a Service (PaaS) provide in addition to Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)?

a)

Access to virtual desktop infrastructure

b)

Multi-tier web application/database platform

c)

Provisioning of IT resources

d)

Leasing software applications

36.

Which cloud service model eliminates the need for organizations to deploy and maintain client PCs and software installs?

a)

Software as a Service (SaaS)

b)

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

c)

Desktop as a Service (DaaS)

d)

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

37.

What is the primary purpose of Desktop as a Service (DaaS)?

a)

Provisioning virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI)

b)

Configuring multi-tier web applications

c)

Providing access to software licenses

d)

Renting IT resources on an as-needed basis

38.

Cloud architecture patterns are only applicable to private cloud environments.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

What is the primary benefit of the Horizontally Scaling Compute Pattern?

a)

Better security

b)

Cost optimization, scalability, and high availability

c)

Simplified development

d)

Faster response times

40.

The Queue-Centric Workflow Pattern is useful for increasing elasticity and decoupling application components.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Which of the following patterns decouples application tiers, such as the web and service tier?

a)

Auto-scaling Pattern

b)

Queue-Centric Workflow Pattern

c)

MapReduce Pattern

d)

Eventual Consistency Pattern

42.

The Node Failure Pattern prepares applications to handle node failures, which are uncommon in the cloud.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

What does the Auto-Scaling Pattern aim to optimize?

a)
  • Network latency

b)

MapReduce operations

c)
  • Cost and resource allocation

d)
  • Database performance

44.

Eventual consistency is a compromise that improves scalability in distributed databases.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

What compensation is suggested by the CAP Theorem in a distributed database?

a)
  • Consistency and scalability

b)
  • Scalability and cost

c)
  • Availability and latency

d)
  • Consistency and availability

46.

The Network Latency Pattern focuses only on reducing the perceived latency for the user.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Which pattern helps in processing large amounts of data by distributing it across nodes?

a)

MapReduce Pattern

b)
  • Busy Signal Pattern

c)
  • Database Sharding Pattern

d)
  • Node Failure Pattern

48.

Which service enables risk auditing by continuously monitoring and logging account activity, including user actions in the AWS Management Console and AWS SDKs?

a)

Amazon CloudWatch

b)

AWS CloudTrail

c)

AWS Config

d)

AWS Health

49.

Which of the following are characteristics of Amazon S3? (Choose two.)

a)

A global file system

b)

An object store

c)

A local file store

d)

A network file system

e)

A durable storage system

50.

Which services can be used across hybrid AWS Cloud architectures? (Choose two.)

a)

Amazon Route 53

b)

Virtual Private Gateway

c)

Classic Load Balancer

d)

Auto Scaling

e)

Amazon CloudWatch default metrics

51.

What costs are included when comparing AWS Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) with on-premises TCO?

a)

Project management

b)

Antivirus software licensing

c)

Data center security

d)

Software development

52.

A company is considering using AWS for a self-hosted database that requires a nightly shutdown for maintenance and cost-saving purposes. Which service should the company use?

a)

Amazon Redshift

b)

Amazon DynamoDB

c)

Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) with Amazon EC2 instance store

d)

Amazon EC2 with Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)

53.

Which of the following is a correct relationship between regions, Availability Zones, and edge locations?

a)

Data centers contain regions.

b)

Regions contain Availability Zones.

c)

Availability Zones contain edge locations

d)

Edge locations contain regions.

54.

Which AWS tools assist with estimating costs? (Choose three.)

a)

Detailed billing report

b)

Cost allocation tags

c)

AWS Simple Monthly Calculator

d)

AWS Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) Calculator

e)

Cost Estimator

55.

Which of the following are advantages of AWS consolidated billing? (Choose two.)

a)

The ability to receive one bill for multiple accounts

b)

Service limits increasing by default in all accounts

c)

A fixed discount on the monthly bill

d)

Potential volume discounts, as usage in all accounts is combined

e)

The automatic extension of the master account’s AWS support plan to all accounts

56.

Which of the following Reserved Instance (RI) pricing models provides the highest average savings compared to On-Demand pricing?

a)

One-year, No Upfront, Standard RI pricing

b)

One-year, All Upfront, Convertible RI pricing

c)

Three-year, All Upfront, Standard RI pricing

d)

Three-year, No Upfront, Convertible RI pricing

57.

Compared with costs in traditional and virtualized data centers, AWS has:

a)

greater variable costs and greater upfront costs

b)

fixed usage costs and lower upfront costs.

c)

lower variable costs and greater upfront costs.

d)

lower variable costs and lower upfront costs

58.

What are the main components of the global AWS infrastructure?

a)

Edge locations, Regions, Availability Zones

b)

Subnet, VPN, NAT Gateway

c)

Data center, router, firewall

d)

Bucket, object, gateway

59.

What is a "Region" in the AWS infrastructure?

a)

A group of physical servers 

b)

A geographic area containing multiple data centers 

c)

A single AWS data center

d)

A content delivery network 

60.

What does the acronym "EC2" mean in AWS?

a)

Elastic Container Service

b)

Elastic Compute Cloud

c)

Elastic Container Compute

d)

Elastic Compute Container

61.

Which AWS service is used to manage user authentication and authorization?

a)

S3

b)

EC2

c)

IAM

d)

VPC

62.

What does the acronym "VPC" mean in AWS?

a)

Virtual Private Cloud

b)

Virtualized Protocol Connection

c)

Virtual Public Cloud

d)

Virtualized Private Connection

63.

What does the acronym "S3" mean in AWS? 

a)

 Simple Storage Service 

b)

Secure Storage System 

c)

Scalable Storage Solution

d)

Storage Sync Service

64.

When is it advisable to use S3 Glacier instead of Amazon S3 Standard Class?

a)

When instant access to stored data is required

b)

When long-term storage with infrequent access is needed 

c)

 When high-performance storage is required 

d)

When free storage is desired 

65.

What is the main purpose of a security group in Amazon VPC?

a)

Determine the available bandwidth for a subnet 

b)

Control inbound and outbound network traffic

c)

Manage routing rules

d)

Establish security rules for S3 buckets

66.

What is the main advantage of using Amazon EBS (Elastic Block Store) over Amazon S3?

a)

Amazon EBS offers block storage, while Amazon S3 offers object storage 

b)

Amazon EBS is optimized for storing large volumes of data, while Amazon S3 is better suited for storing small files

c)

Amazon EBS offers lower latency and higher data persistence compared to Amazon S3 

d)

Amazon EBS is free, while Amazon S3 has associated costs for its use 

67.

What is the secret to becoming an AWS expert?

a)

Drink coffee non-stop until you understand all the acronym

b)

Launch EC2 instances until you become as "Elastic" as they are 

c)

Learn to decipher all error messages

d)

All of the above choices

68.

In which layer does IPsec work?

a)

Data link layer

b)

Network layer

c)

Transport layer

d)

Presentation layer

69.

Point out the wrong statement.

a)

Abstraction enables the key benefit of cloud computing: shared, ubiquitous access

b)

Virtualization assigns a logical name for a physical resource and then provides a pointer to that physical resource when a request is made

c)

All cloud computing applications combine their resources into pools that can be assigned on demand to users

d)

All of the mentioned

70.

Application frameworks provide a means for creating ________ hosted applications using IDE

a)

PaaS

b)

SaaS

c)

CaaS

d)

All of the mentioned

71.

Which of the following cloud concept is related to pooling and sharing of resources?

a)

Polymorphism

b)

Abstraction

c)

Virtualization

d)

None of the mentioned

72.

Which of the following is application and infrastructure management software for hybrid multi-clouds?

a)

VMware Hyperic

b)

Webmetrics

c)

Univa UD

d)

Tapinsystems

73.

The technology used to distribute service requests to resources is referred to as _____________

a)

load performing

b)

load scheduling

c)

load balancing

d)

all of the mentioned

74.

Messages whose ‘send’ is done but ‘receive’ is undone due to rollback are called__________

a)

In-transit messages

b)

Lost messages

c)

Orphan messages

d)

Duplicate messages

75.

The ____________________may arise when a process rolls back to its checkpoint after a failure and requests all the other affected processes also to roll back

a)

Rollback

b)

Phantom Effect

c)

Domino Effect

d)

Livelock problem

76.

_____________________where a VM can be moved from one physical machine to another even as it continues to execute.

a)

Load Balancing

b)

Migration

c)

Live Migration

d)

Server consolidation

77.

_____________________ method is completely OS and application agnostic __________________________method access to OS stats and application logs

a)

Black-box, Gray-Box

b)

Gray-Box, Black-box

c)

Black-box, White-Box

d)

Gray-box, White-Box

78.

What is the parallel efficiency(Eff) of an algorithm? Where a task takes time T in uniprocessor system, P is number of processors, M is time taken by each processor.

a)

Eff = (T*P)/M

b)

Eff = T*(M/P)

c)

Eff = T/(P*M)

d)

Eff = T*P*M

79.

Independent server clusters share storage through high-speed network storage in -

a)

Shared memory architecture

b)

Shared nothing architecture

c)

Shared disk architecture

d)

None of the above

80.

Which of the following OpenStack component is used for networking services?

a)

Swift

b)

Neutron

c)

Cinder

d)

Keystone

81.

In a Classical Algorithm of Ring Election, what will be the message complexity for N labelled processes ?

a)

(N-1) messages

b)

(2N-1) messages

c)

(3N-1) messages

d)

(4N-1) messages

82.

Which is responsible for the operation of a collection of computers that are c connected via high speed local area networks?

a)

Computer Manager

b)

Cloud Manager

c)

Cluster Manager

d)

None of these

83.

________ ensures the ability to exchange/ obtain the information to be consumed

a)

Data Level Interoperability

b)

Service Level Interoperability

c)

Security Level Interoperability

d)

Machine Level Interoperability

84.

The inter process communication between different nodes in Hadoop uses

a)

REST API

b)

RPC

c)

RMI

d)

IP Exchange

85.

OpenStack provides

a)

SaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

IaaS

d)

All the above

86.

Consider the following statements: Statement 1: When two processes are competing with each other causing data corruption, it is called deadlock. Statement 2: When two processes are waiting for each other directly or indirectly, it is called race condition.

a)

Only statement 1 is true

b)

Only statement 2 is true

c)

Both statements are true

d)

Both statements are false

87.

Which is not a challenge of a Multi-Tenant Data Center:

a)

Agility

b)

Location independent addressing

c)

Performance uniformity

d)

Scalability

88.

1.       Which of the following type of virtualization is also characteristic of cloud computing?

a)

a) Storage

b)

b) Application

c)

c) CPU

d)

d) All of the mentioned

89.

2.       What type of computing technology refers to services and applications that typically run on a distributed network through virtualized resources?

a)

a)           Distributed Computing

b)

b) Cloud Computing

c)

c) Soft Computing

d)

d) Parallel Computing

90.

3.       Cloud computing is a kind of abstraction which is based on the notion of combining physical resources and represents them as _______resources to users.

a)

a)  Real

b)

b) Cloud

c)

c) Virtual

d)

d) None

91.

4.   Which of the following has many features of that is now known as cloud computing?

a)

a) Web Service

b)

b) Software

c)

c)Hardware

d)

d) Internet

92.

5.   Which one of the following is Cloud Platform by Amazon?

a)

a) Azure

b)

b) AWS

c)

c)Cloudera

d)

d) Internet

93.

6.  Which one of the following refers to the non-functional requirements like disaster recovery, security, reliability, etc.

a)

a)  Service Development

b)

b) Quality of service

c)

c) Plan Development

d)

d) Technical Service.

94.

7.  Which of the model involves the special types of services that users can access on a Cloud Computing platform?

a)

a)  Service

b)

b) Planning

c)

c) Deployment

d)

d) Application

95.

8.  In how many parts we can broadly divide the architecture of the Cloud8

a)

a)  5

b)

b) 3

c)

c) 2

d)

d) 4

96.

9. Which one of the following can be considered as the example of the Front-end?

a)

a) Web Browser

b)

b) Google Compute Engine

c)

c) Cisco Metapod

d)

d) Amazon Web Services

97.

10. How many types of services are there those are offered by the Cloud Computing to the users?

a)

a) 2

b)

b) 4

c)

c)3

d)

d) 6

98.

What is the primary function of a cloud service broker in cloud computing?

a)

To provide a single point of access to multiple cloud services.

b)

To manage the physical hardware of cloud data centers.

c)

To allocate storage resources dynamically.

d)

To monitor network traffic for security compliance.

99.

How does the concept of multi-tenancy benefit cloud service providers?

a)

By allowing multiple customers to share the same infrastructure while maintaining data isolation.

b)

By increasing the physical security of data centers.

c)

By enabling dedicated resources for each customer.

d)

By simplifying the billing process for individual users.

100.

What is the significance of API gateways in cloud architecture?

a)

To provide a unified interface for accessing microservices.

b)

To replicate data across multiple cloud regions.

c)

To manage the physical servers in a cloud environment.

d)

To monitor the performance of cloud storage solutions.