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SLIDE 1: Head and Neck Muscles

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which muscle elevates the mandible during forceful chewing?

a)

Temporalis

b)

Platysma

c)

Zygomaticus

d)

Frontalis

2.

Which muscle primarily closes the eyelids?

a)

Orbicularis oculi

b)

Orbicularis oris

c)

Occipitalis

d)

Masseter

3.

Which muscle tenses the skin of the neck and depresses the mandible slightly?

a)

Platysma

b)

Zygomaticus

c)

Sternocleidomastoid

d)

Frontalis

4.

Which paired muscle rotates the head to the opposite side and flexes the neck?

a)

Sternocleidomastoid

b)

Occipitalis

c)

Masseter

d)

Temporalis

5.

Which muscle elevates the corners of the mouth to produce a smile?

a)

Zygomaticus

b)

Orbicularis oris

c)

Platysma

d)

Occipitalis

6.

Which muscle forms a sphincter around the mouth and purses the lips?

a)

Orbicularis oris

b)

Orbicularis oculi

c)

Masseter

d)

Frontalis

7.

You palpate a patient clenching their teeth and feel a strong bulge over the ramus of the mandible. Which muscle is most responsible?

a)

Masseter

b)

Platysma

c)

Frontalis

d)

Occipitalis

8.

A patient cannot raise their eyebrows to create horizontal forehead wrinkles. Which superficial muscle is impaired?

a)

Frontalis

b)

Temporalis

c)

Orbicularis oris

d)

Sternocleidomastoid

9.

Which muscle retracts the scalp posteriorly and works with the frontal belly during facial expression?

a)

Occipitalis

b)

Zygomaticus

c)

Temporalis

d)

Platysma

10.

Which neuron region integrates incoming graded potentials and most directly initiates an action potential if threshold is reached?

a)

Dendritic spines receiving signals

b)

Axon hillock at the soma base

c)

Myelin sheath around the axon

d)

Axon terminals at synaptic ends

11.

In the diagram, which label corresponds to the regularly spaced gaps between myelin segments that enable saltatory conduction?

a)

Dendrites branching from the soma

b)

Node of Ranvier along the axon

c)

Axon hillock near the soma

d)

Axon terminals forming synapses

12.

Select the component whose primary function is to receive synaptic input from other neurons.

a)

Dendrites extending from the cell body

b)

Axon propagating action potentials

c)

Myelin insulating the axon fiber

d)

Axon terminals releasing transmitters

13.

Which statement best matches the role of myelin as depicted on the axon?

a)

It generates neurotransmitters for release

b)

It electrically insulates to speed conduction

c)

It initiates spikes at the axon hillock

d)

It forms synapses with target cells

14.

A toxin uniformly removes the myelin sheaths in the pictured neuron while leaving nodes intact. What immediate effect on conduction is most likely?

a)

Faster saltatory conduction between nodes

b)

Failure of rapid conduction and spike decay

c)

Greater spike initiation at the hillock

d)

Enhanced neurotransmitter release distally

15.

Electrical signals travel from the soma toward the target cell. Which sequence best traces the route in this neuron?

a)

Dendrites → nodes → soma

b)

Hillock → axon → terminals

c)

Myelin → soma → dendrites

d)

Terminals → axon → hillock

16.

On the superior view shown, the deep groove separating the two cerebral hemispheres along the midline is called the:

a)

longitudinal fissure

b)

central sulcus

c)

lateral fissure

d)

parieto‑occipital sulcus

17.

In the diagram, the raised ridges between grooves on the cerebral surface are termed:

a)

gyri

b)

sulci

c)

fissures

d)

lobules

18.

Which statement best distinguishes a sulcus from a gyrus on the cortical surface?

a)

A sulcus is a shallow groove; a gyrus is a raised ridge

b)

A sulcus is a raised ridge; a gyrus is a deep groove

c)

A sulcus is a broad lobe; a gyrus is a thin membrane

d)

A sulcus and gyrus are identical surface features

19.

Identify the lobe located most posteriorly in the cerebral hemispheres, primarily involved in visual processing:

a)

occipital lobe

b)

frontal lobe

c)

temporal lobe

d)

parietal lobe

20.

A lesion restricted to the anterior lobe highlighted near the forehead region would MOST likely involve which lobe?

a)

frontal lobe

b)

occipital lobe

c)

parietal lobe

d)

insula lobe

21.

In the left diagram (a), which labeled cavity represents the paired spaces within the cerebral hemispheres that arch into the frontal and occipital lobes?

a)

Lateral ventricles within cerebral hemispheres

b)

Third ventricle around thalamic region

c)

Cerebral aqueduct in midbrain conduit

d)

Fourth ventricle between pons and cerebellum

22.

On the right sagittal diagram (b), cerebrospinal fluid flows from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle through which narrow channel indicated near the midbrain?

a)

Cerebral aqueduct connecting third to fourth

b)

Interventricular foramina near lateral bodies

c)

Central canal continuing into spinal cord

d)

Median aperture toward subarachnoid space

23.

Which structure is best identified as the midline cavity bordered by the thalamus, situated inferior to the lateral ventricles and superior to the cerebral aqueduct in the sagittal view?

a)

Third ventricle between diencephalic walls

b)

Fourth ventricle dorsal to pons region

c)

Lateral ventricle within cerebral lobes

d)

Central canal within lower brainstem

24.

A tumor compresses the channel highlighted by the arrow in diagram (b). Predict the most immediate ventricular dilation pattern that would occur upstream of the blockage.

a)

Enlargement of lateral and third ventricles

b)

Expansion of fourth ventricle only

c)

Dilation of central canal exclusively

d)

Uniform enlargement of all ventricles equally

25.

In the left diagram, which muscle forms the rounded contour over the lateral shoulder, capping the glenohumeral joint?

a)

Deltoid muscle over the shoulder cap

b)

Trapezius across the upper back

c)

Latissimus dorsi along the lower back

d)

Pectoralis major over the chest wall

26.

Which structure in the right diagram spans from the cervical region to the mid-back, forming a broad superficial sheet over the upper back?

a)

Trapezius forming a broad superficial sheet

b)

Deltoid covering the lateral shoulder

c)

Biceps brachii on the anterior arm

d)

Pectoralis major spanning the anterior chest

27.

In the central diagram, identify the large muscle that sweeps from the lower thoracic and lumbar region toward the humerus, contributing to shoulder adduction and extension.

a)

Latissimus dorsi sweeping toward the humerus

b)

Pectoralis major crossing the anterior chest

c)

Deltoid inserting on the humeral tuberosity

d)

Biceps brachii running along the anterior arm

28.

A client struggles to initiate shoulder abduction from neutral in the left diagram. Which primary muscle weakness most directly explains this deficit?

a)

Deltoid initiating shoulder abduction

b)

Latissimus dorsi driving shoulder flexion

c)

Trapezius powering elbow extension

d)

Pectoralis major starting forearm supination

29.

During a pull-up depicted by muscles in the central and right diagrams, which pair primarily produces shoulder extension and scapular depression?

a)

Latissimus dorsi with lower trapezius

b)

Deltoid with anterior fibers

c)

Pectoralis major with clavicular head

d)

Biceps brachii with short head

30.

In the diagram of the lower spinal cord, which labeled structure represents the tapered terminal end of the spinal cord proper?

a)

Conus medullaris

b)

Filum terminale

c)

Cauda equina

d)

Lumbar enlargement

31.

Which option best describes the filum terminale as seen in an inferior spinal cord diagram?

a)

A thin connective tissue strand anchoring the cord

b)

A bundle of lumbar and sacral nerve roots

c)

The cone-shaped termination of spinal cord

d)

A widened region housing more motor neurons

32.

You plan a lumbar puncture at the L4–L5 level shown in the diagram. Which anatomical rationale most justifies this site selection?

a)

The spinal cord has ended, leaving cauda equina roots

b)

The filum terminale fills the dural sac completely

c)

The conus medullaris occupies the vertebral canal here

d)

The lumbar enlargement protects against needle injury

33.

Which sequence best represents the flow of information in a simple reflex arc from initial event to response?

a)

Stimulus → receptor → afferent → control center → efferent → effector

b)

Receptor → stimulus → efferent → control center → afferent → effector

c)

Stimulus → efferent → receptor → control center → afferent → effector

d)

Receptor → afferent → stimulus → efferent → control center → effector

34.

In the diagram, the blue fiber traveling from the skin to the spinal cord represents which component of the reflex arc?

a)

Afferent pathway carrying sensory input

b)

Efferent pathway carrying motor output

c)

Effector producing the physical response

d)

Control center generating the stimulus

35.

Which element serves as the effector in the depicted reflex arc?

a)

Skeletal muscle contracting to produce movement

b)

Cutaneous receptor detecting tissue damage

c)

Interneurons within the spinal cord gray matter

d)

Afferent neuron transmitting sensory signals

36.

A pinprick activates a cutaneous receptor that sends an impulse to the spinal cord and produces a rapid withdrawal. Which step immediately precedes motor neuron activation?

a)

Signal processing in the control center

b)

Stimulation of the effector organ

c)

Transduction by the skin receptor

d)

Arrival of the external stimulus

37.

If the afferent pathway were severed but all other components remained intact, what outcome would most likely occur?

a)

No reflex because sensory input cannot reach the control center

b)

Exaggerated reflex because efferent neurons fire continuously

c)

Normal reflex because efferent and effector are unaffected

d)

Delayed reflex because stimulus travels a longer route

38.

Which pairing correctly matches a component with its functional description in this reflex arc?

a)

Receptor: converts stimulus into neural signal

b)

Effector: detects environmental change at the skin

c)

Afferent: delivers motor commands to muscle

d)

Control center: produces the external stimulus

39.

In the diagram of a spinal cord cross-section, which structure is the tough outer meningeal layer surrounding the cord?

a)

Dura mater

b)

Arachnoid mater

c)

Pia mater

d)

Epidural fat

40.

Which labeled feature marks the shallow midline groove on the posterior surface of the spinal cord?

a)

Ventral median fissure

b)

Dorsal median sulcus

c)

Central canal opening

d)

Posterolateral sulcus

41.

In the diagram, dorsal roots and ventral roots merge to form which mixed structure carrying both sensory and motor fibers?

a)

Dorsal root ganglion

b)

Spinal nerve

c)

Sympathetic chain

d)

Ventral ramus

42.

Which component contains the cell bodies of sensory neurons associated with the dorsal roots?

a)

Ventral horn nucleus

b)

Dorsal root ganglion

c)

Lateral horn cluster

d)

Interneuronal commissure

43.

Which option correctly pairs root type with predominant fiber direction at the cord?

a)

Dorsal roots—efferent fibers

b)

Ventral roots—afferent fibers

c)

Dorsal roots—afferent fibers

d)

Ventral roots—interneuronal fibers

44.

In the midline on the anterior aspect of the cord, which deeper groove partially divides the cord into halves?

a)

Dorsal median sulcus

b)

Ventral median fissure

c)

Anterolateral sulcus

d)

Posterior intermediate sulcus

45.

Comparing the meninges shown, which layer lies directly deep to the dura and forms a web-like space above the pia?

a)

Arachnoid mater

b)

Pia mater

c)

Epidural periosteum

d)

Endoneurium

46.

A patient’s dorsal root is compressed proximal to the ganglion in the diagrammed region. Which primary deficit is most expected at that level?

a)

Loss of motor function only

b)

Loss of sensory input only

c)

Loss of autonomic outflow only

d)

Complete loss of mixed conduction

47.

In the arm diagram, which nerve primarily runs along the posterior compartment to the lateral forearm and hand?

a)

Radial nerve along posterior compartment

b)

Ulnar nerve across anterior compartment

c)

Median nerve through central compartment

d)

Musculocutaneous nerve to medial compartment

48.

In the pelvis and anterior thigh diagram, which nerve emerges near the inguinal region to supply the anterior thigh muscles?

a)

Femoral nerve supplying anterior thigh

b)

Obturator nerve to medial thigh

c)

Sciatic nerve for posterior thigh

d)

Gluteal nerve to lateral pelvis

49.

In the posterior thigh and leg diagram, the thick nerve descending from the sacral plexus and splitting near the knee is best identified as which nerve?

a)

Sciatic nerve splitting at popliteal fossa

b)

Femoral nerve bifurcating at knee joint

c)

Obturator nerve dividing in thigh canal

d)

Saphenous nerve branching near fibular head

50.

Which nerve most likely innervates most intrinsic hand muscles on the medial side, as suggested by the medial forearm course in the arm diagram?

a)

Ulnar nerve to medial intrinsic hand

b)

Radial nerve to thenar intrinsic hand

c)

Femoral nerve to medial intrinsic hand

d)

Sciatic nerve to medial intrinsic hand

51.

A patient has weakness adducting the thigh; based on the medial thigh pathway seen in the pelvis diagram, which nerve is most implicated?

a)

Obturator nerve for thigh adduction

b)

Femoral nerve for thigh adduction

c)

Sciatic nerve for thigh adduction

d)

Radial nerve for thigh adduction

52.

Which muscle is the vertically oriented, segmented pair running on either side of the midline and enclosed by the rectus sheath in the diagram?

a)

Rectus abdominis

b)

External oblique

c)

Internal oblique

d)

Transversus abdominis

53.

In the illustrated abdominal wall, which muscle has fibers running inferomedially (hands-in-pockets orientation) and forms the most superficial lateral layer?

a)

External oblique

b)

Internal oblique

c)

Transversus abdominis

d)

Rectus abdominis

54.

A clinician plans an incision that minimizes damage to muscle fibers by following the predominant fiber direction of the deepest lateral abdominal layer. Based on the diagram, which layer should be considered and what is its fiber direction?

a)

Transversus abdominis; horizontal fibers

b)

Internal oblique; inferomedial fibers

c)

External oblique; superomedial fibers

d)

Rectus abdominis; oblique fibers

55.

Which statement best distinguishes internal oblique from the other three muscles shown in the diagram?

a)

It has fibers running superomedially between two lateral layers

b)

It forms the midline segmented pair within a sheath

c)

It is the outermost layer with inferomedial fibers

d)

It is the deepest lateral layer with transverse fibers

56.

In the lateral thigh diagram, which muscle forms the large superficial mass over the posterior hip and upper thigh?

a)

Gluteus maximus

b)

Rectus femoris

c)

Vastus medialis

d)

Sartorius

e)

Vastus lateralis

57.

Which muscle runs obliquely from the anterior superior iliac spine across the thigh to the medial knee, visible as a thin strap-like band?

a)

Sartorius

b)

Hamstrings

c)

Vastus lateralis

d)

Vastus medialis

e)

Rectus femoris

58.

On the anterior thigh, which quadriceps muscle lies centrally and runs straight down the front of the femur?

a)

Rectus femoris

b)

Vastus lateralis

c)

Vastus medialis

d)

Sartorius

e)

Hamstrings

59.

Which pair best distinguishes the medial and lateral components of the quadriceps on the distal anterior thigh?

a)

Vastus medialis medial; vastus lateralis lateral

b)

Vastus lateralis medial; vastus medialis lateral

c)

Vastus medialis lateral; sartorius medial

d)

Rectus femoris medial; hamstrings lateral

e)

Gluteus maximus medial; rectus femoris lateral

60.

In the posterior thigh region, which group of muscles occupies most of the mass and primarily performs knee flexion?

a)

Hamstrings

b)

Quadriceps

c)

Adductors

d)

Gluteals

e)

Tensor fasciae

61.

A sprinter reports pain where the strap-like anterior thigh muscle crosses toward the medial knee. Based on the diagram, which muscle is likely strained and why?

a)

Sartorius, because it crosses from hip to medial knee

b)

Rectus femoris, because it lies deep along femur

c)

Vastus lateralis, because it crosses the knee diagonally

d)

Gluteus maximus, because it runs vertically to patella

e)

Hamstrings, because they insert on the anterior tibia

62.

Which structure represents the crossing of optic nerve fibers at the base of the brain in an inferior view?

a)

Olfactory bulbs and tracts crossing midline

b)

Optic chiasm forming an X-shaped junction

c)

Trochlear nerves decussating around pons

d)

Abducens nerves entering the cavernous sinus

63.

From an inferior view, which cranial nerve emerges between the midbrain and pons and typically appears as paired bundles near the interpeduncular fossa?

a)

Oculomotor nerve exiting between midbrain and pons

b)

Trochlear nerve emerging from dorsal midbrain

c)

Abducens nerve arising at pontomedullary junction

d)

Trigeminal nerve arising from lateral pons

64.

Which nerve is the large sensory-motor root arising from the lateral aspect of the pons in the inferior view?

a)

Trigeminal nerve from lateral pons

b)

Abducens nerve from medial medulla

c)

Olfactory nerve from frontal lobe

d)

Trochlear nerve from dorsal surface

65.

In the inferior view, which cranial nerve is most closely associated with the superior oblique muscle and emerges posteriorly before wrapping around to the ventral aspect?

a)

Oculomotor nerve to superior oblique

b)

Trochlear nerve winding around midbrain

c)

Abducens nerve supplying lateral rectus

d)

Optic nerve exiting the retina

66.

Which pair of structures lies most rostrally on the inferior surface, projecting from the frontal lobes as elongated bulbs?

a)

Olfactory bulbs and tracts anteriorly

b)

Optic nerves from diencephalon

c)

Pons with transverse fibers

d)

Medulla pyramids and olives

67.

Identify the cranial nerve that emerges at the pontomedullary junction near the midline and courses forward toward the orbit through the cavernous sinus.

a)

Abducens nerve from pontomedullary junction

b)

Trigeminal nerve from lateral mid-pons

c)

Oculomotor nerve from interpeduncular fossa

d)

Optic nerve from eyeball to chiasm

68.

Which brainstem region forms a rounded bulge anterior to the cerebellum and serves as the origin site for several cranial nerve roots in the inferior view?

a)

Pons bulge anterior to cerebellum

b)

Medulla tapering to spinal cord

c)

Midbrain colliculi on dorsal surface

d)

Diencephalon around third ventricle

69.

From the inferior perspective, which vertical structure continues caudally from the pons and contains the pyramids flanking the midline?

a)

Medulla oblongata with ventral pyramids

b)

Optic chiasm forming central X

c)

Olfactory tracts along frontal base

d)

Cerebral peduncles of midbrain

70.

Two round anterior projections are connected to the diencephalon by the optic tracts and converge at an X-shaped junction. What are these paired projections called?

a)

Optic nerves converging from each eye

b)

Olfactory bulbs projecting from cortex

c)

Abducens roots from medulla

d)

Trochlear nerves circling midbrain

71.

On the lateral surface shown, which groove separates the precentral gyrus from the postcentral gyrus?

a)

Central sulcus

b)

Lateral sulcus

c)

Parieto‑occipital sulcus

d)

Longitudinal fissure

72.

Which labeled region corresponds to the lobe most posterior on the lateral surface?

a)

Occipital lobe

b)

Parietal lobe

c)

Temporal lobe

d)

Frontal lobe

73.

In the diagram, the gyrus immediately anterior to the central sulcus is identified as which structure?

a)

Precentral gyrus

b)

Postcentral gyrus

c)

Superior temporal gyrus

d)

Cingulate gyrus

74.

Which option best locates the temporal lobe on this lateral view?

a)

Inferolateral cerebrum above cerebellum

b)

Superior posterior cortex near midline

c)

Anterior superior cortex behind forehead

d)

Medial surface adjacent to corpus callosum

75.

Damage to the postcentral gyrus in the depicted hemisphere would most directly impair which function?

a)

Primary somatosensory processing

b)

Primary motor initiation

c)

Visual field mapping

d)

Auditory language comprehension

76.

On the image, which structure lies inferior and posterior to the occipital lobe, with tightly folded cortex?

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Parietal operculum

c)

Insular cortex

d)

Pons

77.

A lesion just posterior to the central sulcus extending superiorly would most likely involve which lobe?

a)

Parietal lobe

b)

Frontal lobe

c)

Temporal lobe

d)

Occipital lobe

78.

In the sagittal brain diagram, which structure forms the C-shaped white matter tract connecting the cerebral hemispheres, arching above the lateral ventricles?

a)

Corpus callosum

b)

Thalamus

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Midbrain

79.

Which midline diencephalic structure in the diagram acts primarily as a relay for sensory information to the cortex?

a)

Thalamus

b)

Hypothalamus

c)

Pineal gland

d)

Arbor vitae

80.

In the image, which small endocrine organ projects posteriorly from the diencephalon and is associated with melatonin secretion?

a)

Pineal gland

b)

Pituitary gland

c)

Amygdala

d)

Caudate nucleus

81.

Which structure in the sagittal view lies inferior to the thalamus and is most directly involved in homeostatic regulation such as temperature and hunger?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Corpus callosum

c)

Arbor vitae

d)

Pineal gland

82.

In the sagittal diagram, which region is the segment of the brainstem that connects the pons and forebrain and contains the cerebral aqueduct?

a)

Midbrain

b)

Medulla

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Temporal lobe

83.

Which cerebellar feature, visible as tree-like branching white matter in the sagittal section, is labeled in the diagram?

a)

Arbor vitae

b)

Corpus callosum

c)

Internal capsule

d)

Basal nuclei

84.

In an anterior view of the lower leg, which muscle lies just lateral to the tibia and is a primary dorsiflexor of the ankle?

a)

Tibialis anterior

b)

Fibularis longus

c)

Gastrocnemius

d)

Soleus

85.

When viewing the lateral side of the lower leg, which muscle forms the prominent belly behind the fibula and contributes to foot eversion?

a)

Fibularis longus

b)

Tibialis anterior

c)

Gastrocnemius

d)

Soleus

86.

You are asked to plan a taping strategy to limit excessive plantarflexion during rehab. Based on posterior leg anatomy, which superficial muscle would you primarily target to reduce plantarflexor power?

a)

Gastrocnemius

b)

Tibialis anterior

c)

Fibularis longus

d)

Deep toe flexors

87.

During a calf-raise test with the knee flexed to 90°, plantarflexion strength decreases less than expected. Which muscle most likely maintains force in this position due to its monoarticular design?

a)

Soleus

b)

Gastrocnemius

c)

Tibialis anterior

d)

Fibularis longus

88.

Which plexus is formed by anterior rami from C1–C4 and primarily innervates structures of the neck near the upper spine?

a)

Cervical plexus near the upper spine

b)

Brachial plexus of the shoulder region

c)

Lumbar plexus within the lower back

d)

Sacral plexus of the pelvic cavity

89.

In a diagram highlighting nerves supplying the upper limb emerging between C5 and T1, which plexus is depicted?

a)

Brachial plexus supplying the upper limb

b)

Lumbar plexus serving anterior thigh

c)

Sacral plexus innervating posterior leg

d)

Cervical plexus serving superficial neck

90.

A patient shows sensory loss over the anterior thigh and weakness in knee extension after a lumbar disc issue. Which plexus is most likely affected?

a)

Lumbar plexus involving anterior thigh

b)

Cervical plexus controlling diaphragm

c)

Brachial plexus serving forearm flexors

d)

Sacral plexus innervating plantar foot

91.

Damage to nerves arising from L4–S4 most strongly impairs which functional region shown in a spinal plexus diagram of the lower body?

a)

Posterior thigh and most of the leg

b)

Anterior neck and superficial scalp

c)

Anterior arm and lateral forearm

d)

Anterior thigh and iliacus muscle

92.

In the peripheral nerve diagram, which term names a bundle of axons grouped together within the nerve?

a)

Fascicle

b)

Endoneurium

c)

Epineurium

d)

Perineurium

93.

Which connective tissue layer directly surrounds individual nerve fibers within a fascicle in the diagram?

a)

Endoneurium

b)

Perineurium

c)

Epineurium

d)

Myelin sheath

94.

Looking at the whole-nerve cross-section, which layer encloses the entire nerve and includes blood vessels?

a)

Epineurium

b)

Perineurium

c)

Endoneurium

d)

Neurilemma

95.

A fascicle is wrapped by a protective sheath forming the blood–nerve barrier. Based on the diagram, which layer provides this function around each fascicle?

a)

Perineurium

b)

Epineurium

c)

Endoneurium

d)

Axolemma