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Worksheets

3rd semester PHYSIO pt2

Total questions: 139

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the term used to describe an action potential that "jumps"

from one node of Ranvier to another?

a)

EPSP conduction

b)

Myelinated conduction

c)

IPSP conduction

d)

Saltatory conduction

2.

What happens when membrane potential goes below -70 mV

a)

Sodium equilibrium potential is reached.

b)

Sodium conductance leads to potassium equilibrium potential.

c)

Potassium conductance leads to the potassium equilibrium potential.

d)

Sodium conductance causes depolarization.

e)

The membrane is depolarized.

3.

When is it impossible to generate an action potential?

a)

 In the hyperpolarized state

b)

During the relative refractory period

c)

During sodium conductance

d)

During EPSPs and after IPSPs

e)

During the absolute refractory period

4.

Which of the following types of glial cells myelinate neurons in the

peripheral nervous system?

a)

Muller cells

b)

Ependymal cells

c)

Schwann cells

d)

Oligodendrocytes

5.

Which of the following is a function of ependymal cells?

a)

Maintenance of terminal environment

b)

Cerebrospinal fluid synthesis

c)

Recycling of neurotransmitters

d)

Repair processes

e)

Delivering nutrients

6.

Which type of glial cells are activated as a result of damage to the retina?

a)

Oligodendrocytes

b)

Microglia

c)

Muller cells

d)

Fibrous astrocytes

e)

Bergmann cells

7.

Into which chamber of the eye does the ciliary body secrete fluid?

a)

Anterior chamber

b)

Vitreous chamber

c)

Posterior chamber

d)

Sclera chamber

8.

Where in the eye is a blind spot located?

a)

Fovea

b)

Optic disc

c)

Retina

d)

Cornea

e)

Choroid

9.

Which of the following regions of the eye has the highest number of cone cells?

a)

Optic disc

b)

Choroid

c)

Fovea

d)

Zonule fibers

e)

Retina

10.

Which of the following is considered a normal intraocular pressure?

a)

24 mmHg

b)

5 mmHg

c)

13 mmHg

d)

7 mmHg

e)

26 mmHg

11.

In which sequence does light enter and course through the eye?

a)

Retina - vitreous humor - lens - aqueous humor - cornea - air - object

b)

Object - lens - air - retina

c)

Air - Object - lens - retina

d)

Object - lens - aqueous humor - vitreous humor - retina

e)

Object - air - cornea - aqueous humor - lens - vitreous humor - retina

12.

Which of the following would cause the lens to relax?

a)

Taut zonule fibers

b)

Viewing an object far away

c)

Bright light

d)

Contraction of ciliary muscles

e)

Relaxation of ciliary muscles

13.

What acts as an aperture to restrict light entry into the eye?

a)

Lens

b)

Sclera

c)

Retina

d)

Cornea

e)

Iris

14.

Sunlight changes the retinal component of rhodopsin into which of the following configurations?

a)

All-trans retinal

b)

11-cis retinal

c)

3’ GMP retinal

d)

Transducin

15.

Where are specialized photoreceptor response elements located in photoreceptor cells?

a)

Outer segments

b)

Basal cells

c)

Pigmented epithelium

d)

Inner segments

e)

Synaptic terminal

16.

What kind of molecule is transducin?

a)

G protein

b)

Phosphodiesterase

c)

Meta-rhodopsin II

d)

11-cis retinal

e)

All-trans retinal

17.

Which of the following would contribute to the hyperpolarization of the photoreceptor membrane?

a)

Darkness

b)

Inactive phosphodiesterase

c)

Decrease in cGMP

d)

Sodium influx

e)

Increase in cAMP

18.

Off-center bipolar neurons of the eye predominately utilize which of the following receptor types?

a)

Ionotropic acetylcholine receptor

b)

Metabotropic glutamate receptor

c)

Metabotropic acetylcholine receptor

d)

Ionotropic glutamate receptor

19.

Which of the following occurs during the dark current?

a)

Low levels of cGMP keep the Na channels closed.

b)

High levels of cGMP keep the K channels open.

c)

High levels of cAMP keep the Na channels open.

d)

Low levels of cAMP keep the Na channels closed.

e)

High levels of cGMP keep the Na channels open.

20.

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding photosensitive cells?

a)

Cones are not concerned with color vision.

b)

Cones have a large receptive field.

c)

Rods have a small receptive field.

d)

Rods are concerned with color vision.

e)

Rods have a large receptive field.

21.

What happens when photons reach the retina?

a)

Na channels open.

b)

Ca channels open.

c)

Na channels close.

d)

K channels close.

e)

K channels open.

22.

Which type of auditory cell provides information regarding sound wave frequency?

a)

Inner hair cells

b)

Outer hair cells

c)

Scala vestibule cells

d)

Scala tympani cells

23.

In which part of the ear does amplification of sound occur?

a)

Internal ear

b)

Malleus

c)

Middle ear

d)

External ear

e)

Incus

24.

Which chamber of the cochlea houses the Organ of Corti?

a)

Anterior chamber

b)

Middle chamber

c)

Upper chamber

d)

Posterior chamber

e)

 Lower chamber

25.

Which structure senses sound wave frequency?

a)

Outer hair cells

b)

Incus

c)

Inner hair cells

d)

Stapes

e)

Tympanic membrane

26.

Which muscle dampens sound waves when it contracts?

a)

Tensor veli palatini

b)

Medial pterygoid

c)

Lateral pterygoid

d)

Stapedius

27.

Which of the following fluids in the ear has the highest potassium concentration?

a)

Plasma

b)

Endolymph

c)

Hair cell cytosol

d)

Perilymph

28.

At the auditory nerve synapse level, depolarization of the pre-

synaptic membrane causes calcium influx which results in the

release of which of the following substances from the synaptic

vesicles?

a)

Adrenaline

b)

GABA

c)

Glutamate

d)

Acetylcholine

e)

Serotonin

29.

Which ion enters hair cells after membrane depolarization?

a)

Calcium

b)

Potassium

c)

Sodium

d)

Magnesium

e)

Chloride

30.

Which of the following results when hair cells are bent toward the kinocilium?

a)

No change

b)

Hyperpolarization

c)

Decreased conductance of potassium ions

d)

Decreased resting potential

e)

Depolarization

31.

The hair cells get bent in one direction due to the presence of which of the following substances?

a)

Both gelatinous material and calcium stones

b)

Only calcium stones

c)

Water

d)

Plasma

e)

Only gelatinous material

32.

Which of the following occurs during rotation of the head?

a)

The endolymph moves in the same direction of the rotation.

b)

Some of the hair cells bend in the same direction, causing them to hyperpolarize.

c)

The resting discharge rate does not change.

d)

Some of the hair cells bend in the opposite direction, causing them to depolarize.

e)

The endolymph moves in the opposite direction of the rotation.

33.

Which of the following is NOT a part of the vestibular system?

a)

The semicircular canals

b)

The utricle

c)

The saccule

d)

The malleus

34.

Which of the following is the main transducer molecule for G-protein- coupled type II taste receptors?

a)

Adenylyl cyclase

b)

Hydrogen ions

c)

Sodium

d)

Gustducin

35.

Which of the following G proteins stimulates phospholipase C when type II taste receptors are stimulated?

a)

Gustducin

b)

Gs protein

c)

Gq protein

d)

Transducin

e)

Gs alpha subunit

36.

Which of the given primary taste stimuli depend on G-protein-

coupled receptors to depolarize the cell?

a)

Sour and sweet

b)

Salty and sour

c)

Salty and bitter

d)

Bitter and sweet

e)

Sour and bitter

37.

Binding of an odorant to an odorant receptor on olfactory cells

results in which of the following?

a)

Outflow of calcium and sodium

b)

Inflow of chloride

c)

Inflow of calcium

d)

Outflow of calcium

e)

Inflow of phosphate

38.

What is the mechanism of smell transduction via the olfactory nerve?

a)

G-protein-mediated cAMP activation

b)

Dopamine effect

c)

Interaction of potassium and chloride

d)

G-protein-mediated cGMP activation

e)

Tyrosine kinase-mediated transduction

39.

Which of the below nerves associated with muscle have the slowest conduction velocity?

a)

1a neuron

b)

1b neuron

c)

Gamma motor neurons.

d)

Alpha motor neurons.

40.

Muscle spindles respond to which of the following?

a)

Temperature

b)

Pain

c)

Pressure

d)

Stretch

e)

Touch

41.

Golgi tendon organs send signals back to the spinal cord through

which of the following fibers?

a)

1As

b)

1b fibers

c)

1a fibers

d)

Beta fibers

e)

Gamma fibers

42.

Extrafusal fibers cause muscle contraction through which of the following?

a)

Alpha motor neurons.

b)

Gamma motor neurons.

c)

Golgi tendon organs.

d)

Muscle spindles.

e)

Delta motor neurons.

43.

Through which of the following do Renshaw cells act?

a)

Pain receptors

b)

Gamma motor neurons

c)

Alpha motor neurons

d)

Delta motor neurons

e)

Temperature receptor

44.

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding muscle reflexes?

a)

They do not result in withdrawal from a painful stimulus.

b)

They prevent injury.

c)

They prevent excessive tension on the muscle.

d)

They prevent muscle from tearing.

e)

They prevent excessive stretch of the muscle.

45.

Which of the following receptor types have nerve fibers with the

highest conduction velocity?

a)

Skin pain receptors

b)

Skin Itch receptors

c)

Muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs

d)

Skin temperature receptors

e)

 Skin tactile receptors

46.

Which mechanoreceptors rapidly adapt and respond to light touch?

a)

Hurthle disks

b)

Meissner corpuscles

c)

Ruffini endings

d)

Pacinian corpuscles

47.

Which mechanoreceptors sense vibration?

a)

Ruffini endings

b)

Pacinian corpuscles

c)

Hair follicle receptors

d)

Merkel disk

e)

Meissner corpuscle

48.

Which of the following sensations are perceived by Merkel cells?

a)

Vibration

b)

 Crude touch

c)

Temperature

d)

Pain

e)

Light pressure

49.

Which of the following receptors responds to stretch and has a wide receptive field?

a)

Merkel cells

b)

Ruffini endings

c)

Meissner corpuscle

d)

Pacinian corpuscle

e)

Hair cells

50.

Which of the following substances are released from sensory

afferents in response to a painful stimulus?

a)

Substance P

b)

Acetylcholine

c)

Hydrogen ions

d)

Prostaglandins

e)

Histamine

51.

Which transient receptor potential (TRP) channel responds to a

noxious heat stimulus?

a)

TRIP3

b)

TRPM8

c)

TRPV1

d)

TRPA1

e)

TRPA8

52.

Which of the following chemicals is most commonly associated with

pruritus?

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

 Substance P

c)

Epinephrine

d)

Histamine

e)

Norepinephrine

53.

Where are the autonomic ganglia of the parasympathetic nervous

system predominantly located?

a)

Close to the end organ

b)

Far from the end organ

c)

Close to the spinal cord

d)

Within the dorsal root of the spinal cord

54.

What receptor is used in the autonomic ganglia of the

parasympathetic nervous system to transduce signals to the

postganglionic nerve fiber?

a)

Muscarinic type 1

b)

Nicotinic type 1

c)

Nicotinic type 2

d)

Muscarinic type 2

55.

Acetylcholine released from preganglionic neurons binds to which of

the following receptors in the parasympathetic nervous system?

a)

Muscarinic type 3 receptors

b)

 Nicotinic type 2 receptors

c)

Muscarinic type 2 receptors

d)

Nicotinic type 1 receptors

e)

Muscarinic type 1 receptors

56.

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the length of

the nerves in the parasympathetic nervous system?

a)

Presynaptic nerves are long.

b)

Postsynaptic nerves are long.

c)

Length is not important for determining the action.

d)

 Presynaptic nerves are short

57.

Which hypothalamic nucleus is most closely associated with

circadian rhythms (light and dark cycles)?

a)

Preoptic nucleus

b)

Periventricular nucleus

c)

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

d)

Supraoptic nucleus

58.

Which hypothalamic nucleus is most associated with feelings of

thirst and hunger?

a)

Lateral nucleus

b)

Supraoptic nucleus

c)

Mamillary body

d)

Preoptic nucleus

59.

Which of the following hormones is secreted by the paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei?

a)

Prolactin

b)

Oxytocin

c)

ACTH

d)

Growth hormone

e)

Aldosterone

60.

Destruction of which of the following hypothalamic areas will lead to anorexia?

a)

Posterior hypothalamus

b)

Anterior hypothalamus

c)

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

d)

Lateral area

e)

Ventromedial area

61.

Which of the following is best known as a sensory circumventricular organ?

a)

Subfornical organ

b)

Pineal gland

c)

Median eminence

d)

Posterior pituitary

62.

Which of the following substances is higher in plasma compared to cerebrospinal fluid?

a)

Magnesium

b)

Proteins

c)

Sodium

d)

Chloride

63.

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the ionic

concentration of cerebrospinal fluid as compared to plasma?

a)

Lower sodium and higher potassium

b)

Lower sodium and higher chloride

c)

Higher sodium and lower chloride

d)

Lower sodium and lower chloride

e)

Higher sodium and higher chloride

64.

Which of the following receptors in the sympathetic nervous system increases the heart rate when engaged?

a)

Muscarinic type 1 receptors

b)

Muscarinic type 2 receptors

c)

Beta-2 adrenergic receptors

d)

 Beta-1 adrenergic receptors

e)

Nicotinic receptorse

65.

Which of the following nerves is an important component of the

parasympathetic nervous system?

a)

Oculomotor

b)

Facial

c)

Vagus

d)

Abducens

e)

Glossopharyngeal

66.

Which of the following receptors induces vasoconstriction of blood vessels in the skin when engaged?

a)

Alpha adrenergic

b)

Nicotinic

c)

Beta-1 adrenergic

d)

Beta-2 adrenergic

e)

Muscarinic type 1

67.

Which of the following receptors of the sympathetic system induces

bronchiolar dilation when engaged?

a)

Nicotinic

b)

Beta adrenergic

c)

Muscarinic type 1

d)

Muscarinic type 2

e)

Alpha adrenergic

68.

Which of the following receptors are stimulated by the

parasympathetic nervous system to increase secretions in the

stomach and the pancreas?

a)

Beta-2 adrenergic

b)

Muscarinic

c)

Nicotinic

d)

Beta-1 adrenergic

e)

Alpha-adrenergic

69.

Which of the following branches of the nervous system is paired

correctly with its action?

a)

Sympathetic - erection

b)

Sympathetic - detrusor muscle contraction

c)

Sympathetic - ejaculation

d)

Parasympathetic - uterine contraction

e)

Sympathetic - relaxation of GI sphincters

70.

Dilation of the pupils is mediated through which of the following receptors?

a)

Beta-2 receptors

b)

Beta-1 receptors

c)

Muscarinic receptors

d)

Nicotinic receptors

e)

Alpha-adrenergic receptors

71.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the

autonomic nervous system?

a)

Parasympathetic stimulation decreases sweat production.

b)

Tear production is deceased with activation of the parasympathetic

system.

c)

Inhibition of muscarinic receptors in the skin increases sweat

production

d)

Both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves control salivary

gland production.

e)

Pilomotor response is modulated by parasympathetic activation.

72.

Which of the following statements regarding autonomic regulation is

INCORRECT?

a)

Parasympathetic nerves do not modulate renal function.

b)

Sympathetic stimulation of the kidneys will cause the release of renin

c)

Sympathetic stimulation increases gluconeogenesis.

d)

Parasympathetic activation does not impact liver metabolism.

e)

Sympathetic stimulation causes decreased gluconeogenesis.

73.

Which of the following is the main function of the gastrointestinal tract?

a)

Excretion

b)

Hormonal secretion

c)

Food storage

d)

Digestion

e)

Nutrient absorption

74.

Which of the following organs belongs to the GI system?

a)

Adrenal gland

b)

Bladder

c)

Esophagus

d)

Spleen

e)

Kidney

75.

Which of the following anatomic and engineering viewpoint pairs is correct?

a)

Small intestines - sterilizer

b)

Liver - chopper

c)

Salivary glands - hydrolyzer and lubricator

d)

Stomach - detergent supplier

e)

Pancreas - blender

76.

Which phase of digestion is linked to gastrointestinal changes when

food is visually seen or is in contact with the mouth?

a)

Excretory phase

b)

Cephalic phase

c)

Intestinal phase

d)

Gastric phase

e)

Oral phase

77.

Which cranial nerve plays a large role in the both the cephalic and gastric phases of digestion?

a)

Accessory

b)

Trigeminal

c)

Vagus

d)

Hypoglossal

e)

Trochlear

78.

Which of the following is a result of parasympathetic stimulation on the GI tract?

a)

Decrease secretions

b)

 Increase motility

c)

Decrease blood flow

d)

Increase norepinephrine release

e)

Increase sphincter tone

79.

Which of the following is the CORRECT role of the sympathetic

nervous system in the gastrointestinal tract?

a)

Increase constriction of sphincter

b)

Increase blood flow to stomach

c)

Increase acid release in stomach

d)

Increase motility of intestines

e)

Increase blood flow to intestines

80.

Which of the following ganglia represent the prevertebral ganglia that

innervate the GI tract?

a)

Pelvic, middle cervical, celiac

b)

Superior cervical, inferior cervical, celiac

c)

Superior cervical, celiac, inferior mesenteric

d)

Middle cervical, superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteri

e)

Celiac, superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteric

81.

Which of the following is most affected by the action of ATP as a

neural signaling molecule?

a)

Blood vessels

b)

The salivary glands

c)

 Spinal nerves

d)

Smooth muscle

e)

The vagus nerve

82.

Which of the following releases calcitonin gene-related peptide?

a)

Blood vessels

b)

Salivary glands

c)

The vagus nerve

d)

Afferent sensory nerves

e)

The hypothalamus

83.

Which of the following is a correct statement?

a)

CCK is released from I cells in the liver to increase gall bladder contractions.

b)

Secretin is released from M cells in the pancreas to increase migrating motor complexes.

c)

Motilin is secreted by M cells in the pancreas to increase bicarbonate secretion.

d)

Gastrin is released from I cells in the stomach to increase acid secretion.

e)

GIP is released from K cells to inhibit acid secretion and release insulin.

84.

Which of the following is the correct statement regarding paracrine signaling molecules?

a)

Nitrous oxide is released by mast cells to caused constriction of smooth muscles.

b)

Histamine is released by mast cells to decrease acid secretion.

c)

Histamine is released from the enterochromaffin-like cells to increase acid secretion.

d)

Somatostatin is released by D cells in the gall bladder to inhibit secretions.

e)

Prostaglandins are released by G cells in the stomach to increase acid secretion.

85.

What is the first phase of digestion?

a)

Oral phase

b)

Cephalic phase

c)

Esophageal phase

d)

Gastric phase

e)

Pharyngeal phase

86.

Which ion concentration decreases in the saliva as the salivary

secretion rate increases?

a)

Magnesium

b)

Sulfur

c)

Potassium

d)

Sodium

e)

Chloride

87.

What type of salivary secretion is primarily produced by the parotid gland?

a)

Serous

b)

Hormones

c)

Mucus

d)

Viscous

e)

Acid

88.

Which of the following aids in carbohydrate digestion?

a)

Salivary amylase

b)

Lingual lipase

c)

Bicarbonate

d)

Muramidase

e)

Lactoferrin

89.

Which of the following acinar cell secretion mechanisms is correct?

a)

Potassium - aquaporins

b)

Bicarbonate - Na+/Bicarbonate exchange

c)

Sodium - cotransport

d)

Water – aquaporins

e)

Chloride - ion exchange

90.

Which of the following is secreted so that chloride can be

reabsorbed in the ductal cells?

a)

Potassium

b)

Fluoride

c)

Bicarbonate

d)

Sodium

e)

Water

91.

Which of the following is a parasympathetic neurotransmitter that increases salivary secretions?

a)

Glutamic acid

b)

Vasoactive intestinal peptide

c)

Norepinephrine

d)

Neuropeptide Y

e)

ATP

92.

Which of the following gastric cell types is correctly paired with its

secretory component?

a)

Mucous neck cells - intrinsic factor

b)

Chief cells - hydrogen ions

c)

Surface epithelial cells - insulin

d)

Parietal cells - hydrogen ions

e)

Parietal cells - pepsinogen

93.

Which of the following ions has the highest gastric secretion

concentrations compared to its plasma concentration?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Sodium

c)

Magnesium

d)

Potassium

e)

Chloride

94.

Which of the following is one of the primary functions of the stomach?

a)

It secretes amylase to help digest carbohydrates

b)

It is the primary absorption site in the gastrointestinal tract.

c)

It prepares chyme for digestion in the small intestines.

d)

It secretes salivary lipase to help digest fats.

e)

It aids the passage of bile into the small intestines.

95.

Which gastric cell type is responsible for pepsinogen secretion?

a)

D cells

b)

Enterochromaffin cells

c)

Parietal cells

d)

G cells

e)

Chief cells

96.

What is the function of parietal cells?

a)

 It increases gastrin secretion.

b)

It increases mucus secretion.

c)

It decreases acid secretion.

d)

It increases acid secretion.

e)

It decreases gastrin secretion.

97.

What molecule provides the hydrogen ion that is pumped into the stomach?

a)

Glucose

b)

Carbonic acid

c)

Hydrochloric acid

d)

Glutamic acid

e)

Sulfuric acid

98.

Which of the following cranial nerves releases acetylcholine to

increase gastric acid production?

a)

Vagus

b)

Hypoglossal

c)

Trigeminal

d)

Oculomotor

e)

Glossopharyngeal

99.

Which of the following is the mechanism by which acetylcholine

directly stimulates gastric acid secretion?

a)

It stimulates chief cells to produce pepsin.

b)

It stimulates G cells to increase gastrin secretion.

c)

It stimulates M3 receptors on the parietal cell.

d)

It stimulates enterochromaffin cells to release histamine.

e)

It stimulates D cells to produce somatostatin.

100.

What percentage of control and regulation of hydrogen ions is done in the gastric phase?

a)

50%

b)

60%

c)

40%

d)

20%

e)

30%

101.

Which of the following is a stimulant for gastrin?

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Starch

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Lipids

e)

Proteins

102.

What is the primary function of the exocrine pancreas?

a)

To release salivary amylase and lipase to help digest carbohydrates

and fats in the stomach.

b)

To release salivary amylase and lipase to help digest carbohydrates

and fats in the stomach.

c)

To secrete bile to help emulsification of fats.

d)

To neutralize acid and release enzymes into the small intestines

that aid in the digestion of fats, carbohydrates, and proteins.

e)

To aid in the reabsorption of water in the large intestines by opening

aquaporins.

103.

Which of the following ions is secreted from the pancreas to aid the

neutralization of acid in the small intestines?

a)

Sodium

b)

Potassium

c)

Magnesium

d)

Chloride

e)

Bicarbonate

104.

Which of the following substances upregulates the secretion of

enzymes, from the pancreas, in response to fats and amino acids

entering the duodenum?

a)

Amylase

b)

Nuclease

c)

Secretin

d)

Cholecystokinin

e)

Trypsinogen

105.

Which of the following substance utilizes cAMP, as a second

messenger, to increase secretions from the exocrine pancreas?

a)

Secretin

b)

Cholecystokinin

c)

Amylase

d)

Gastrin-releasing peptide

e)

Acetylcholine

106.

What is the primary function of hepatic secretions stored in the gall bladder?

a)

Fat digestion

b)

Fat emulsification

c)

Peptide digestion

d)

Acid neutralization

e)

Carbohydrate digestion

107.

Which of the following is the primary mediator that releases bile stored in the gall bladder?

a)

Norepinephrine

b)

Cholecystokinin

c)

Secretin

d)

Gastrin-releasing peptide

e)

Somatostatin

108.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the biliary secretions?

a)

Bile salts

b)

Lecithin

c)

Bilirubin

d)

Cholesterol

e)

D vitamin

109.

Which of the following best describes the flow of bile from the liver to the gallbladder and then the small intestines?

a)

Right and left hepatic duct - Common bile duct - Cystic duct - Gallbladder - Cystic duct - Common hepatic duct - Sphincter of Oddi

b)

Right and left hepatic duct - Common bile duct - Gallbladder - Cystic duct - Common hepatic duct - Sphincter of Oddi

c)

Sphincter of Oddi - Right and left hepatic duct - Common hepatic duct - Cystic duct - Gallbladder - Cystic duct - Common bile duct

d)

Right and left hepatic duct - Common hepatic duct - Cystic duct - Gallbladder - Cystic duct - Common bile duct - Sphincter of Oddi

e)

Right and left hepatic duct - Gallbladder - Common bile duct - Cystic duct - Liver Cystic duct - Common hepatic duct - Sphincter of Oddi

110.

Which of the following ions is transported from the sweat gland lumen into the cell by the Cystic Fibrosis Transmembrane Regulator?

a)

Bicarbonate

b)

Chloride

c)

Potassium

d)

Sodium

e)

Magnesium

111.

What result on the QPIT might a clinician see to diagnose CF?

a)

Potassium > 60 mmol/L

b)

Magnesium < 40 mmol/L

c)

Chloride < 25 mmol/L

d)

Potassium < 40 mmol/L

e)

Chloride > 60 mmol/L

112.

Which of the following terms is described by the process of mechanically and chemically breaking down food into smaller components in the alimentary canal?

a)

Neutralization

b)

Reabsorption

c)

Malnutrition

d)

Digestion

e)

Absorption

113.

Which of the following is paired correctly regarding macromolecules and their absorbable components?

a)

Triglycerides - glucose

b)

Peptides - nucleic acids

c)

 Fats - amino acids

d)

Protein - vitamin A

e)

Carbohydrates - glucose

114.

Which of the following bonds is cleaved by amylase?

a)

Alpha 1,6

b)

Beta 1,6

c)

Beta 1,4

d)

Alpha 1,4

e)

Alpha 1, beta 6

115.

Which of the following enzymes is an exopeptidase?

a)

Pepsin

b)

Carboxypeptidase A

c)

Chymotrypsin

d)

Trypsin

e)

Elastase

116.

Which of the following is a large sugar?

a)

Glucoamylase

b)

Isomaltose

c)

Sucrose

d)

Lactose

e)

Amylose

117.

Where are the majority of carbohydrates, protein, and fat absorbed in the GI tract?

a)

The duodenum

b)

The ileum

c)

The jejunum

d)

The large intestine

e)

The stomach

118.

What is the co-transported substance utilized by PEPT1 to move across di- and tri peptides?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Sodium

c)

Bicarbonate

d)

Potassium

e)

Chloride

119.

Which must happen to both calcium and iron to be transported across the cell from the apical membrane to the basolateral membrane?

a)

They must enter the cell with chloride.

b)

They must be phagocytized.

c)

They must be packaged in micelles.

d)

They must be bound by binding proteins.

e)

They must bond with bicarbonate.

120.

How many sodium ions are needed to transport one glucose molecule via SGLT1?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

2

d)

5

e)

1

121.

Which of the following transporters is required for glucose to exit the basolateral membrane of cells in the small intestine?

a)

SGTL1

b)

 GLUT2

c)

GLUT4

d)

GLUT5

e)

CFTR

122.

Where does aldosterone stimulate water absorption in the GI tract?

a)

The gallbladder

b)

The stomach

c)

The oral cavity

d)

The large intestine

e)

The small intestine

123.

Which of the following requires mixed micelles for absorption?

a)

Proteins

b)

Fiber

c)

Amino acids

d)

Small lipids

e)

Large lipids

124.

Which of the following structure is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery?

a)

Colon

b)

Spleen

c)

Stomach

d)

Heart

e)

Liver

125.

What percentage of blood flow goes to the splanchnic mucosal layer?

a)

 75%

b)

10%

c)

25%

d)

50%

e)

 90%

126.

Which of the following signaling molecules facilitates the contraction aspect of peristalsis?

a)

Vasoactive intestinal peptid

b)

Nitric oxide

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

Norepinephrine

e)

Enkephalin

127.

Which organ receives all the GI blood flow through the portal vein?

a)

Colon

b)

Liver

c)

Stomach

d)

Spleen

e)

Pancreas

128.

Which of the following is the inner most layer of the gastrointestinal tract?

a)

Longitudinal muscle layer

b)

Circular muscle layer

c)

Serosal layer

d)

Mucosal layer

e)

 Nerve plexus layer

129.

Which of the following is an effect of nitric oxide on gastrointestinal motility?

a)

Sphincter relaxation

b)

Gastrin inhibition

c)

Decreased gastric motility

d)

Sphincter constriction

e)

Gastrin release

130.

When does the process of involuntary swallowing start?

a)

When the tastebuds are triggered

b)

When mechanoreceptors in the pharynx are engaged

c)

When the epiglottis covers the larynx

d)

When the teeth start to grind the foodstuf

e)

When the lower esophageal sphincter relaxes

131.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Autonomic nerves from the vagus nerve innervate the upper 1/3 of the esophagus which is composed of striated muscle.

b)

Autonomic nerves from the vagus nerve innervate the lower 2/3 of the esophagus which is composed of striated muscle.

c)

Somatic nerves from the glossopharyngeal nerve innervate the upper 1/3 of the esophagus which is composed of striated muscle.

d)

Somatic nerves from the glossopharyngeal nerve innervate the lower 2/3 of the esophagus which is composed of smooth muscle.

e)

Autonomic nerves from the glossopharyngeal nerve innervate the upper 1/3 of the esophagus which is composed of striated muscle.

132.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the process of swallowing?

a)

Relaxation of the upper esophageal sphincter, primary peristalsis, secondary peristalsis, relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter, relaxation of the cardia of the stomach

b)

Relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter, primary peristalsis, secondary peristalsis, contraction of the lower esophageal sphincter, relaxation of the cardia of the stomach

c)

Relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter, primary peristalsis, secondary peristalsis, contraction of the lower esophageal sphincter, contraction of the cardia of the stomach

d)

Contraction of the lateral esophageal sphincter, primary peristalsis, secondary peristalsis, contraction of the medial esophageal sphincter, relaxation of the cardia of the stomach

e)

Relaxation of the upper esophageal sphincter, secondary peristalsis, primary peristalsis, contraction of the lower esophageal sphincter, relaxation of the cardia of the stomach

133.

Which type of food substance will empty from the stomach first?

a)

Liquids with a high-fat concentration

b)

Liquids with a high protein concentration

c)

Liquids with a high carbohydrate concentration

d)

Solids with a high protein concentration

e)

Solids with a high carbohydrate concentration

134.

Which of the following is a function of the antrum of the stomach?

a)

Act as a food reservoir

b)

Mixing and grinding of food

c)

Regulation of belching

d)

Regulate slow waves of the stomach

e)

Allows food entry into the stomach

135.

Which direction is the foodstuff moved by segmental contractions?

a)

It is not moved but mixed in place.

b)

It moves in a peristaltic fashion.

c)

It moves both forward and backward.

d)

It only moves backward.

e)

It only moves forward.

136.

Which of the following represents a large coordinated contraction meant to move intestinal contents along rapidly?

a)

A migrating motor complex

b)

A peristaltic wave

c)

An isometric contraction

d)

A segmental contraction

e)

A tonic contraction

137.

Which of the following areas of the gastrointestinal tract has the highest frequency of slow waves?

a)

Stomach

b)

Rectum

c)

Esophagus

d)

Large intestine

e)

Small intenstine

138.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

The interstitial cells of Cajal only increase the frequency and amplitude of muscle contractions in the GI tract.

b)

The interstitial cells of Cajal only affect the amplitude of muscle contraction in the GI tract.

c)

The interstitial cells of Cajal control the baseline frequency of muscle contractions in the GI tract, while the amplitude is changed by enteric neuronal inputs.

d)

The interstitial cells of Cajal control the baseline amplitude of muscle contractions in the GI tract, while the frequency is changed by enteric neuronal inputs.

e)

The interstitial cells of Leydig control the baseline frequency of

muscle contractions in the GI tract, while the amplitude is changed

by the interstitial cells of Cajal.

139.

Which of the following substances causes relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract during peristalsis?

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Vasoactive intestinal peptide

c)

Histamine

d)

Gastrin

e)

Norepinephrine

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