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Chapter 20: Delegation in Nursing - Core Concepts

Total questions: 102

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines delegation in nursing practice?

a)

Transferring task responsibility while retaining accountability

b)

Passing accountability and responsibility to another

2.

A nurse plans to delegate vital sign collection for one stable patient. Which principle applies to the time frame of this delegation?

a)

One task, one time, one patient

b)

All tasks during the current shift

3.

Which task is NOT appropriate to delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

a)

Initial nursing assessment of a new admission

b)

Ambulating a stable postoperative patient

4.

A CNA is specially trained and certified in catheterization. Which delegation is appropriate?

a)

Insert a Foley catheter per protocol

b)

Independently diagnose urinary retention

5.

Which items represent the Five Rights of Delegation? Select all that apply.

a)

Right Task for safety and appropriateness

b)

Right Circumstance based on stability

c)

Right Person with proper skill set

6.

What is the primary purpose of walking rounds during shift change?

a)

Provide real-time feedback while seeing the patient

b)

Speed up handoff by skipping bedside checks

c)

Allow private discussion away from patient rooms

d)

Reduce documentation by verbal reports only

7.

Which risk is specifically reduced by walking rounds?

a)

Missed changes in patient condition

b)

Duplicate charting of vital signs

c)

Overstaffing during night shifts

d)

Medication reconciliation delays

8.

Which communication approach pairs documentation with verbal exchange to promote safe care?

a)

Using structured tools like SBAR consistently

b)

Relying on memory during end-of-shift reports

c)

Sharing only abnormal findings verbally

d)

Documenting first and skipping any discussion

9.

In the SBAR framework, which element presents the immediate issue needing attention?

a)

Situation describes the current problem clearly

b)

Background outlines the patient's life story

c)

Assessment lists every lab result chronologically

d)

Recommendation states no action is required

10.

Which statement best characterizes effective coaching for staff?

a)

Helps improve skills and is done respectfully

b)

Highlights errors publicly to deter mistakes

c)

Focuses only on annual evaluation periods

d)

Relies mainly on formal written warnings

11.

Which examples illustrate positive reinforcement in a clinical unit? Select all that apply.

a)

Spontaneous praise after excellent care

b)

Employee of the Month recognition

c)

Private counseling about tardiness

d)

Suspension for repeated policy violations

12.

Key expectations for counseling a staff member include which features? Select all that apply.

a)

Private and brief conversation

b)

Non-confrontational tone

c)

Document the discussion

d)

Conduct it during public rounds

13.

What content should be included in a counseling conversation note?

a)

Behavior, reasons, corrective actions, improvement plan

b)

Personal opinions, rumors, peer complaints, emotions

c)

Unit census, staffing matrix, supply issues, budget

d)

Future vacation approvals, shift swaps, preferences

14.

Order these disciplinary actions from least to most severe: verbal warning, written warning, suspension, termination.

a)

Verbal, written, suspension, termination

b)

Written, verbal, suspension, termination

c)

Suspension, verbal, written, termination

d)

Written, suspension, verbal, termination

15.

Which infraction may warrant immediate termination rather than progressive discipline?

a)

Medication diversion from the unit

b)

Occasional tardiness to shift

c)

Charting done after the shift

d)

Requesting additional orientation

16.

Effective discipline requires which elements? Select all that apply.

a)

Fairness and documentation

b)

Specific examples of behavior

c)

Calm, emotion-controlled communication

d)

Public criticism during staff meeting

17.

What is the primary aim of a performance appraisal?

a)

Evaluate performance against job expectations

b)

Compare peers to create unit rankings

c)

Record only recent achievements for bonuses

d)

Replace all ongoing coaching interactions

18.

Which components should a robust performance appraisal include? Select all that apply.

a)

Regular midyear and end-of-year reviews

b)

Goals and objectives for the role

c)

Focus on future improvement plans

d)

Strict comparison to coworkers' metrics

19.

Choose the correctly constructed SMART goal for a new graduate nurse.

a)

Complete central line dressing training by Friday

b)

Be better at IV starts soon

c)

Do more patient education when possible

d)

Improve documentation when I have time

20.

Which situation exemplifies the recency effect during performance appraisal?

a)

Rating based only on a recent event

b)

One positive trait coloring all ratings

c)

Comparing the nurse directly to peers

d)

Giving everyone an average rating

21.

A manager rates an employee highly overall because the nurse is very friendly, despite documentation errors. Which bias is this?

a)

Halo effect influencing the evaluation

b)

Spillover effect from prior year

c)

Strict/lenient rater tendency

d)

Contrast effect with coworkers

22.

Which statement best reflects the legal and professional standard for nursing documentation?

a)

If it is undocumented, it is considered not done

b)

Late entries are preferred over timely notes

c)

Backdating is acceptable for workflow gaps

d)

Sign-offs transfer responsibility to others

23.

A nurse completes a procedure and immediately charts the actions and patient response. This demonstrates which documentation principle?

a)

Document immediately after tasks are performed

b)

Chart only at the end of the shift

c)

Delay entries to gather more details

d)

Rely on team notes for accuracy

24.

Which action violates ethical documentation practices?

a)

Entering data with the correct time stamp

b)

Using standardized terminology and abbreviations

c)

Altering records to match verbal orders

d)

Recording objective patient assessments

25.

A nurse’s username appears on an inaccurate note. Which responsibility applies?

a)

They are responsible for entries signed in their name

b)

Responsibility belongs to the charge nurse only

c)

Only the unit clerk holds accountability

d)

Only the EHR vendor shares liability

26.

Which list best represents dimensions commonly included under diversity in nursing?

a)

Age, gender, language, orientation, religion

b)

Height, handedness, eye color, posture

c)

Favorite food, hobbies, travel history

d)

Credit score, home size, car ownership

27.

A diverse nursing workforce most directly improves which outcomes?

a)

Morale among staff

b)

Retention of nurses

c)

Cultural competence

d)

Quality of care

e)

Supply costs

28.

Which managerial action best supports inclusion on a unit?

a)

Ensure hiring practices support inclusion

b)

Ignore discriminatory microaggressions routinely

c)

Screen out non-native speakers consistently

d)

Assign schedules based on favoritism alone

29.

Match each conflict type to its description.

a)

Intrapersonal: within oneself

b)

Interpersonal: between individuals

c)

Organizational: structural or policy related

d)

All types: only physician to nurse

30.

Which conflict type is most commonly encountered on nursing units?

a)

Interpersonal conflict between individuals

b)

Intrapersonal conflict within oneself

c)

Organizational or policy conflict

d)

International conflict across systems

31.

Which factors commonly cause conflict in healthcare teams?

a)

Stress and role ambiguity

b)

Values or ethics differences

c)

Poor communication patterns

d)

Staffing shortages on shifts

e)

Abundant financial resources

32.

Which effect most likely results from unresolved unit conflict?

a)

Poor morale among team members

b)

Emotional exhaustion and burnout

c)

Higher productivity consistently

d)

Unsafe patient care conditions

e)

Improved satisfaction reliably

33.

A family becomes upset after feeling excluded from care decisions. Which conflict source fits best?

a)

Patient and family conflict due to exclusion

b)

Nurse-nurse conflict from cliques

c)

Organizational conflict about policy

d)

Interdisciplinary conflict over power

34.

Which behaviors illustrate lateral or horizontal bullying among nurses?

a)

Ignoring reasonable requests for help

b)

Rolling eyes at a colleague frequently

c)

Withholding essential information

d)

Providing supportive peer coaching

e)

Sharing timely updates professionally

35.

A nurse hesitates to call the physician due to fear and power differences. What is the nurse’s duty?

a)

Advocate for the patient despite fear

b)

Wait for rounds to avoid conflict

c)

Document concerns but take no action

d)

Delegate calling to unlicensed staff

36.

Which general strategy is foundational for resolving conflict in clinical settings?

a)

Use clear and respectful communication

b)

Raise your voice to show urgency

c)

Avoid discussing the issue entirely

d)

Focus on blame and past mistakes

37.

Which elements define active listening during difficult conversations?

a)

Avoid interrupting the speaker

b)

Maintain appropriate eye contact

c)

Paraphrase to confirm understanding

d)

Formulate rebuttals while they talk

e)

Break eye contact to end dialogue

38.

Place the DDEAFP steps in the most accurate order of use during feedback.

a)

Describe, Don’t attack, Explain, Ask, Follow up, Plan

b)

Explain, Describe, Ask, Plan, Follow up, Don’t attack

c)

Ask, Describe, Explain, Don’t attack, Plan, Follow up

d)

Plan, Ask, Follow up, Explain, Don’t attack, Describe

39.

In the DDEAFP method, which step comes immediately after explaining the impact?

a)

Ask for what you need instead

b)

Plan ahead to avoid reactions

c)

Follow up with consequences

d)

Describe the observed behavior

40.

What is the primary purpose of negotiation in conflict resolution?

a)

Reach mutually acceptable solutions

b)

Win arguments using authority

c)

Delay decisions until emotions fade

d)

Collect evidence for discipline

41.

Which statement best explains why understanding change matters for modern nursing practice?

a)

It preserves traditional routines during uncertainty

b)

It reduces patient variation through strict rules

c)

It guides improvement using measurable outcomes

d)

It eliminates chaos from daily clinical work

42.

A student nurse feels unsettled as paper exams switch to computer-based testing. What concept does this experience illustrate?

a)

Homeostasis in professional education

b)

Chaos resulting from organizational change

c)

Linear progression of technology adoption

d)

Delegation of academic responsibilities

43.

Which measures are now central to judging nursing success in healthcare organizations?

a)

Patient outcomes across key indicators

b)

Cost effectiveness of provided care

c)

Compliance with physician authority

d)

Adherence to rigid task procedures

44.

Which indicators most directly reflect patient outcomes that drive decisions today?

a)

Fall rates within inpatient units

b)

Safety indicators across services

c)

Staff overtime distribution patterns

d)

Cost effectiveness per intervention

45.

Decisions about staffing and protocol development in contemporary systems are primarily informed by which elements?

a)

Quality improvement data trends

b)

Personal experience of leaders

c)

Statistical outcome measures

d)

Historical routines in units

46.

An effective nurse on a busy unit rapidly adapts to an unexpected emergency while supporting colleagues. This behavior reflects which principle?

a)

Embracing chaos with collaborative agility

b)

Maintaining order through isolated work

c)

Following preset tasks without deviation

d)

Deferring to hierarchy during surprises

47.

Which characteristic aligns with the Newtonian (old science) model of healthcare?

a)

Person-centered over task-focused processes

b)

Orderly, rigid, and linear organization

c)

Team-based collaboration and empowerment

d)

Adaptive responses to unpredictability

48.

Select all features typically associated with Newtonian thinking in clinical settings.

a)

Compartmentalized work in silos

b)

Nurses unquestioningly follow orders

c)

Focus on tasks, machinery, procedures

d)

Holistic view of whole human experiences

49.

Which concise summary captures the Newtonian approach to practice culture?

a)

Empowerment, collaboration, flexible care

b)

Control, predictability, directive orders

c)

Holism, creativity, shared decisions

d)

Chaos-tolerant, adaptive problem-solving

50.

Under the New Science model, which behaviors are encouraged for nurses when encountering unsafe directives?

a)

Question the order to ensure safety

b)

Comply to preserve strict hierarchy

c)

Document quietly without escalation

d)

Delegate the task without discussion

51.

Which set of attributes best represents the New Science perspective in nursing?

a)

World is chaotic and unpredictable

b)

Collaboration and teamwork emphasized

c)

Task-focused over person-centered care

d)

Creative problem-solving encouraged

52.

Which theoretical alignments are most consistent with New Science thinking?

a)

Jean Watson’s Caring Theory alignment

b)

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs relevance

c)

Exclusive reliance on machine protocols

d)

Fragmentation into specialized silos

53.

Which phrase best captures the idea of chaos in a healthcare unit?

a)

Gradual shifts toward predictable routines

b)

Movement away from order with disorganization

c)

Strict adherence to linear task lists

d)

Centralized control preventing any variability

54.

Chaos Theory in nursing blends which two perspectives?

a)

Classical physics and behavioral therapy

b)

Newtonian order and new science empowerment

c)

Epidemiology models and pharmacology principles

d)

Systems biology and purely random chance

55.

Which workplace factors commonly generate chaos for nurses and physicians?

a)

Conflicting priorities across teams

b)

High acuity patient populations

c)

Perfect staffing ratios each shift

d)

Rapid adoption of new technologies

56.

In the Strange Attractor concept, what do groups in chaotic conditions tend to do?

a)

Fall apart into isolated silos

b)

Wait for directives before acting

c)

Self-organize and create new order

d)

Freeze operations to stop variance

57.

A unit faces a sudden surge of high-acuity patients. Nurses informally redistribute tasks, cover each other, and re-route workflows. What concept does this illustrate?

a)

Rigid hierarchy enforcement

b)

Strange attractor self-organization

c)

Top-down contingency planning

d)

Delay tactics to maintain status quo

58.

Primary goal of the nurse manager during chaos is to:

a)

Eliminate change and variability

b)

Create order out of chaotic conditions

c)

Document issues without intervening

d)

Transfer risk to external agencies

59.

Which leadership actions help a nurse manager harness chaos constructively?

a)

Believe in team members’ potential

b)

Provide empowering environments

c)

Discourage collaboration to reduce noise

d)

Invite contributions from quieter staff

60.

Which skill set most prepares clinicians for inevitable chaos in healthcare?

a)

Flexibility and adaptability

b)

Critical thinking capacity

c)

Comfort with uncertainty

d)

Strict rule-following only

61.

Legal reality for nurses during chaotic events:

a)

Only direct actions determine liability

b)

Documentation can place you in legal chain

c)

Verbal reports prevent legal exposure

d)

Unassigned patients remove all responsibility

62.

Which attributes describe the Newtonian age of healthcare organizations?

a)

Orderly, siloed structures

b)

Task-focused operations

c)

No questioning physicians

d)

Holistic, empowerment focus

63.

New Science or Quantum Age in care delivery emphasizes:

a)

Empowerment and collaboration

b)

Holistic care orientation

c)

Creative problem-solving approaches

d)

Strict prohibition of change

64.

Core insights from Chaos Theory for nursing practice include:

a)

Chaos is natural and constant

b)

Nurses self-organize under pressure

c)

Managers should craft order from chaos

d)

Best outcomes require zero variability

65.

Which are essential skills for today’s nurse in dynamic settings?

a)

Adaptability and communication

b)

Collaboration across disciplines

c)

Critical thinking under stress

d)

Avoiding change whenever possible

66.

Which statement best defines change in a healthcare context?

a)

Altering the flow of events and moving forward

b)

Maintaining established routines without deviation

c)

Eliminating uncertainty by standardizing all tasks

d)

Returning systems to previous comfortable states

67.

Which is a common reason people resist change in clinical settings?

a)

It reduces anxiety and fear for most staff

b)

It requires reorganizing habits and schedules

c)

It guarantees immediate performance improvement

d)

It removes the need for management oversight

68.

Planned change is best characterized by which feature?

a)

Deliberate action based on identified problems

b)

Uncoordinated shifts due to system imbalance

c)

Resistance-driven steps without clear goals

d)

Spontaneous decisions led by frontline staff

69.

Which example most closely illustrates planned change in a hospital?

a)

Switching from paper charts to an EHR system

b)

Adopting a new workflow after sudden turnover

c)

Gradually skipping huddles due to time pressure

d)

Reassigning roles during an unexpected outage

70.

Change by drift most likely occurs under which condition?

a)

Careful planning with stakeholder engagement

b)

Imbalance within the system over time

c)

Evidence-based protocols with training

d)

Formal approval from administration

71.

A staff member says, “We’ve done it this way for years; now it’s different.” What type of change does this reaction reflect?

a)

Planned change with high acceptance

b)

Change by drift with hostility

c)

Transformational change with incentives

d)

Pilot change with strong leadership

72.

When initiating change, what should be the first step for a nurse manager?

a)

Identify the problem needing change

b)

Set goals and select methods

c)

Recruit a team of stakeholders

d)

Create awareness through discussion

73.

Selecting an informal leader for a change initiative should prioritize which attribute?

a)

Title within administrative hierarchy

b)

Ability to influence respected peers

c)

Availability for overtime scheduling

d)

Years employed on the same unit

74.

Which actions help create awareness during a change effort? Select all that apply.

a)

Discussing the problem openly with staff

b)

Ensuring everyone knows why change is needed

c)

Skipping concerns to avoid negativity

d)

Sharing only final goals without rationale

75.

Which step directly engages those affected by a proposed practice change?

a)

Recruit a team to participate

b)

Define the clinical problem

c)

Set goals and methods

d)

Appoint a formal sponsor

76.

Which statement best defines the Unfreezing phase in Lewin’s theory?

a)

Preparing mindsets for change to occur

b)

Installing the new workflow immediately

c)

Stabilizing the new normal state

d)

Measuring outcomes after long-term use

77.

During Unfreezing, which manager action is most appropriate?

a)

Explain why change is needed using data

b)

Roll out multiple changes at once

c)

Reinforce finalized policies only

d)

Avoid discussing reasons to prevent bias

78.

In the Moving phase, what should managers prioritize?

a)

Teaching, supporting, and reinforcing behavior

b)

Auditing only after six months

c)

Replacing all processes simultaneously

d)

Limiting questions to avoid confusion

79.

Which reaction is typical among employees during the Moving phase?

a)

Feeling anxious or high-energy

b)

Feeling fully settled and calm

c)

Showing long-term habit stability

d)

Demonstrating no need for support

80.

What is the main goal of the Refreezing phase?

a)

Stabilize the change as the new normal

b)

Announce the plan without action

c)

Experiment with unrelated innovations

d)

Return to the previous baseline

81.

Which element is required in Refreezing to maintain change?

a)

Integration into workflow and policies

b)

Frequent unrelated policy shifts

c)

Minimal documentation and oversight

d)

Exclusive reliance on verbal reminders

82.

Select all practices managers should use in the Refreezing phase.

a)

Teach new employees regularly

b)

Re-evaluate the change periodically

c)

Make small adjustments if needed

d)

Delay reinforcement until resistance fades

83.

Which example illustrates a driving force for change in health care?

a)

Desire for better patient outcomes

b)

Fear of failure during training

c)

Preference for familiar routines

d)

Anxiety about new technology

84.

Restraining forces are best described as which of the following?

a)

Barriers, fears, or consequences

b)

Motives encouraging improvement

c)

Rewards for early adopters

d)

Metrics tracking progress only

85.

Which is the key rule before implementing a change initiative?

a)

List driving and restraining forces

b)

Begin rollout during peak stress

c)

Ignore psychological safety needs

d)

Adopt multiple changes at once

86.

Which statement best describes a change agent?

a)

A person who helps make change happen

b)

A regulator who punishes noncompliance

c)

A consultant who ends staff input

d)

A leader who avoids management ties

87.

Which mistake should a change agent avoid?

a)

Skipping a structured plan or process

b)

Inviting staff decision-making input

c)

Providing psychological safety early

d)

Identifying forces that affect change

88.

What does good change typically include?

a)

Natural resistance over time

b)

Immediate full acceptance

c)

Minimal support from managers

d)

No need for formal procedures

89.

Which combination fits Lewin’s Moving phase best?

a)

Trying new behaviors with support

b)

Stabilizing outcomes with policies

c)

Analyzing forces before planning

d)

Reverting to prior practices quickly

90.

Which action aligns with evidence-based leadership during change?

a)

Use accurate, validated information

b)

Rely on anecdotes exclusively

c)

Ignore outcome data completely

d)

Select changes by seniority vote

91.

Which statement best defines Evidence-Based Practice (EBP) in healthcare?

a)

Using best current evidence with clinical expertise

b)

Following organizational traditions without review

c)

Relying on expert opinions over data

d)

Using any available online information

92.

Which practice change illustrates EBP improving patient outcomes regarding catheter use?

a)

Insert Foley catheters for every ER patient

b)

Avoid all Foley catheters in the ER entirely

c)

Insert Foley only with proper indications

d)

Insert Foley based on patient preference

93.

What outcome is reduced when Foley catheters are inserted only with proper indications?

a)

CAUTI rates decrease

b)

Sepsis incidence increases

c)

Pressure injuries decrease

d)

Pain scores increase

94.

Which actions reflect the LPN role in EBP? Select all that apply.

a)

Be aware of relevant research

b)

Use credible sources for information

c)

Adopt changes without evaluation

d)

Evaluate research before changing practice

95.

Which source should an LPN avoid when seeking credible evidence?

a)

Peer-reviewed journals

b)

Professional guidelines

c)

Wikipedia entries

d)

Systematic reviews

96.

EBP primarily aims to replace old habits with which of the following?

a)

Tradition, hierarchy, convenience

b)

Research, current evidence, proven outcomes

c)

Experience, intuition, anecdotal stories

d)

Policy, protocol, authority commands

97.

A unit policy mandates catheters for all febrile patients. Using EBP, what should the LPN advocate?

a)

Keep policy to maintain consistency

b)

Use catheterization only for clear indications

c)

Ask patients whether they prefer catheters

d)

Delay changes until leadership retires

98.

During professional transitions, which feelings are most likely?

a)

Only excitement and confidence

b)

A mix of anxiety and growth

c)

Complete indifference to change

d)

Constant satisfaction with status

99.

Which strategy best supports self-care during a role transition?

a)

Ignore stress signals entirely

b)

Use credible mentors and feedback

c)

Avoid asking questions at work

d)

Work extra shifts continuously

100.

Which example best shows evaluating evidence before changing practice?

a)

Changing based on a single blog post

b)

Reviewing systematic reviews and outcomes

c)

Copying another unit’s routine blindly

d)

Using tradition to guide all decisions

101.

Which combination captures the core elements of EBP decision-making?

a)

Best evidence plus clinical expertise

b)

Manager preference plus budget limits

c)

Physician order plus patient demand

d)

Personal beliefs plus workplace culture

102.

Which transition type might an LPN experience early in a career?

a)

Retirement to volunteer shift

b)

Student to practicing nurse role

c)

Administrator to physician role

d)

Pediatrician to surgeon pathway