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1409 Lab Practical Review

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Nervous tissue is found in which part of the body and what is its primary function?

a)

Brain and spinal cord; transmits electrical impulses

b)

Bones; provides structural support

c)

Muscles; enables contraction

d)

Skin; acts as a barrier

2.

Which type of epithelial tissue is characterized by a single layer of flat cells?

a)

A. Simple squamous epithelium

b)

B. Simple cuboidal epithelium

c)

C. Simple columnar epithelium

d)

D. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

3.

Which type of muscular tissue is found in the heart and contains intercalated disks?

a)

Cardiac muscle

b)

Smooth muscle

c)

Skeletal muscle

4.

Which type of epithelial tissue contains cilia and appears to have multiple layers due to the arrangement of nuclei?

a)

Simple squamous epithelium

b)

Simple cuboidal epithelium

c)

Simple columnar epithelium

d)

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

5.

Which type of muscular tissue is responsible for voluntary movements and is attached to bones?

a)

Cardiac muscle

b)

Smooth muscle

c)

Skeletal muscle

6.

Which type of epithelial tissue is made up of a single layer of cube-shaped cells?

a)

A. Simple squamous epithelium

b)

B. Simple cuboidal epithelium

c)

C. Simple columnar epithelium

d)

D. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

7.

What is the function of the cilia in this tissue?

a)

The cilia move mucus and debris up toward the throat so that they cannot enter the lungs.

b)

The cilia absorb nutrients from the mucus.

c)

The cilia produce hormones for the tissue.

d)

The cilia secrete digestive enzymes into the mucus.

8.

Where is simple cuboidal epithelial tissue located?

a)

Surface of ovaries, linings of ducts and glands, lining of kidney tubules

b)

Inner lining of the heart and blood vessels

c)

Alveoli of lungs

d)

Outer layer of skin

9.

Compare compact bone and hyaline cartilage. Which of these types of connective tissue is more organized? Why?

a)

Compact bone is more organized because its structure is more regular and dense compared to the flexible and less organized matrix of hyaline cartilage.

b)

Hyaline cartilage is more organized because it has a more regular arrangement of cells and fibers than compact bone.

c)

Both compact bone and hyaline cartilage are equally organized due to their similar structural patterns.

d)

Neither compact bone nor hyaline cartilage is organized; both have random arrangements of cells and matrix.

10.

Aside from being striated, cardiac muscle cells are rectangular and branched. What is the benefit of this arrangement?

a)

The rectangular and branched arrangement aids communication and coordination between fibers.

b)

It increases the storage of energy in the muscle cells.

c)

It allows the muscle to contract without using oxygen.

d)

It prevents the muscle from ever getting fatigued.

11.

What is the function of the muscularis layer in the intestinal wall?

a)

The muscularis layer causes peristalsis, a wavelike motion that moves food along the intestine.

b)

The muscularis layer secretes digestive enzymes to break down food.

c)

The muscularis layer absorbs nutrients from digested food.

d)

The muscularis layer protects the intestine from pathogens.

12.

Refer to the diagram of the intestinal wall. Which structure increases the small intestine's absorptive surface?

a)

Villi

b)

Goblet cells

c)

Lacteals

d)

Crypts of Lieberkühn

13.
Question Image

Match the following layers of the intestinal wall with their correct descriptions:

a)

Contains nerve fibers, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels

1.

Mucosa

b)

Thin sheet of loose fibrous connective tissue underlies a thin, outermost sheet of squamous epithelium

2.

Submucosa

c)

Circular and longitudinal muscle tissue responsible for peristalsis

3.

Muscularis

d)

Lined with columnar epithelium and contains villi

4.

Serosa

14.

Which layer of the intestinal wall contains nerve fibers, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels?

a)

Submucosa

b)

Mucosa

c)

Serosa

d)

Muscularis externa

15.

The limbs of a pig can be compared to the limbs of a human in which way?

a)

Both have similar bone structures adapted for different functions.

b)

Pig limbs have no bones while human limbs do.

c)

Human limbs are shorter than pig limbs.

d)

Pig limbs are used for flying while human limbs are not.

16.

What is a mycelium?

a)

A network of filaments called hyphae

b)

A type of plant root specialized for water absorption.

c)

A single-celled organism found in water

d)

A reproductive structure of flowering plants.

17.

What is a sporangium?

a)

A capsule that produces spores, which are black.

b)

A root that absorbs water from soil.

c)

A leaf that performs photosynthesis.

d)

A stem that supports the plant.

18.

Black bread mold is an example of _____ fungi.

a)

zygomycete

b)

ascomycete

c)

basidiomycete

d)

deuteromycete

19.

Which fungi produces an antibacterial substance discovered by Alexander Fleming?

a)

Penicillium

b)

Aspergillus

c)

Rhizopus

d)

Mucor

20.

What is the common name for club fungi?

a)

Mushrooms

b)

Yeasts

c)

Molds

d)

Lichens

21.

Which type of symbiotic relationship is represented by mycorrhizae?

a)

Mutualism

b)

Parasitism

c)

Commensalism

d)

Predation

22.

Fungi and animals differ in their method to obtain nutrients. Which statement best describes this difference?

a)

Fungi absorb nutrients from their environment, while animals ingest and digest food internally.

b)

Both fungi and animals photosynthesize to obtain nutrients.

c)

Fungi and animals both absorb nutrients directly from sunlight.

d)

Animals absorb nutrients from their environment, while fungi ingest and digest food internally.

23.

What group of green algae is most closely related to land plants?

a)

Chlorophytes

b)

Charophytes

c)

Rhodophytes

d)

Phaeophytes

24.

Which of the following is NOT a seedless vascular plant?

a)

A) Fern

b)

B) Horsetail

c)

C) Liverwort

d)

D) Lycophyte

25.

Chara are called stoneworts because:

a)

they become encrusted with calcium carbonate

b)

they grow only on stones

c)

they have stone-like seeds

d)

they are found in rocky areas

26.

Ferns are largely restricted to moist, shady habitats because sexual reproduction requires adequate moisture. This is because:

a)

sperm must swim through water to reach the egg

b)

spores need sunlight to germinate

c)

roots cannot absorb water in dry areas

d)

leaves require constant moisture to photosynthesize

27.

The zones of a root tip are named and described as follows:

a)

Zone of cell division, zone of elongation, and zone of maturation

b)

Zone of photosynthesis, zone of respiration, and zone of transpiration

c)

Zone of absorption, zone of conduction, and zone of storage

d)

Zone of protection, zone of reproduction, and zone of differentiation

28.

Which type of tissue transports water?

a)

Xylem

b)

Phloem

c)

Epidermis

d)

Parenchyma

29.

Which type of tissue (xylem or phloem) transports sugars in a plant?

a)

Phloem

b)

Xylem

c)

Cambium

d)

Epidermis

30.

The function of lenticels is:

a)

to facilitate gaseous exchange

b)

to absorb water from soil

c)

to transport food

d)

to provide mechanical support

31.

Match each bacterial example to its shape.

a)

1.

Spirillum

b)

2.

Coccus

c)

3.

Bacillus

32.

What is the survival value of an endospore?

a)

It increases the rate of binary fission.

b)

It stores nutrients for long-term use.

c)

It protects genetic material during harsh conditions, allowing later germination.

d)

It enables bacteria to photosynthesize when light is low.

33.

The “clothespin” shape of Yersinia that is in-between spherical and rod shaped is called what?

a)

Coccobacillus

b)

Spiral

c)

Spherical

d)

Filamentous

34.

Why is Oscillatoria named so?

a)

It oscillates in population size

b)

Its filaments show oscillatory movements

c)

Its pigment changes color

d)

Its gene expression oscillates

35.

Which cyanobacteria is known to be a filamentous string of beads?

a)

Anabaena

b)

E. coli

c)

Spirogyra

d)

Rhizaria

36.

Some brown algae look less green even though they have chlorophyll because:

a)

They have other pigments that hide the green color.

b)

They do not have chlorophyll.

c)

They live where there is no light.

d)

Their chlorophyll does not work.

37.

Select all statements that accurately describe diatoms.

a)

Their cell walls decompose rapidly in marine environments.

b)

They are photosynthetic and very abundant.

c)

Their glass cell walls can be mined as diatomaceous earth.

d)

They are important food sources for small heterotrophs in marine and freshwater environments.

38.

How are the flagella arranged in dinoflagellates?

a)

They lack flagella and move by cilia.

b)

They have only one posterior flagellum.

c)

They have two flagella; one free and one in a transverse groove.

d)

They have four flagella at right angles.

39.

Plasmodium spores multiply in red blood cells and break them open when leaving. Why is this important in malaria?

a)

It destroys red blood cells, causing anemia and fever.

b)

It helps the immune system remove the parasite quickly.

c)

It stops malaria from spreading to other cells.

d)

It makes red blood cells stronger against infection.

40.

Which disease is caused by Trypanosoma?

a)

Malaria

b)

African sleeping sickness

c)

Cholera

d)

Influenza

41.

Select all structures found in Paramecium.

a)

Pellicle

b)

Oral groove

c)

Undulating membrane

d)

Trichocyst

e)

Anal pore

42.

Which domain includes protists, fungi, plants, and animals?

a)

Archaea

b)

Bacteria

c)

Eukarya

d)

Cyanobacteria

43.

What color are Gram-positive bacteria after Gram staining?

a)

Pink/red

b)

Purple/violet

c)

Green

d)

Colorless

44.

Which protists are called seaweed?

a)

Brown, red, and green algae

b)

Diatoms

c)

Dinoflagellates

d)

Slime molds

45.

Select two key differences between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria.

a)

Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer and no outer membrane. Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer and an outer membrane.

b)

Gram-positive bacteria have an outer membrane and produce endotoxins. Gram-negative bacteria do not have an outer membrane and do not produce endotoxins.

c)

Gram-positive bacteria are always rod-shaped. Gram-negative bacteria are always spherical.

d)

Gram-positive bacteria are resistant to antibiotics. Gram-negative bacteria are sensitive to antibiotics.

46.

A sessile filter feeder is best described as:

a)

An organism that remains attached to a surface and obtains food by filtering water.

b)

An organism that moves actively to catch its prey.

c)

An organism that produces its own food through photosynthesis.

d)

An organism that lives inside another organism as a parasite.

47.

Which type of sponge has spicules of calcium carbonate?

a)

Calcareous sponge

b)

Bath sponge

c)

Glass sponge

48.

Radial symmetry can be a benefit to an animal because it allows the animal to:

a)

Sense and respond to stimuli from all directions equally

b)

Move quickly in one direction

c)

Hide easily from predators

d)

Digest food more efficiently

49.

The two main body forms in the life cycle of a cnidarian are the _______ and the _______.

a)

polyp, medusa

b)

larva, adult

c)

egg, sperm

d)

planula, ephyra

50.

It is advantageous for an animal to be hermaphroditic because:

a)

it increases the chances of successful reproduction

b)

it allows the animal to change its diet

c)

it helps the animal move faster

d)

it makes the animal immune to diseases

51.

Which three types of cells must be present for flatworms to be able to respond to stimuli and move about?

a)

Sensory cells, nerve cells, and muscle cells

b)

Blood cells, bone cells, and skin cells

c)

Fat cells, gland cells, and reproductive cells

d)

Stem cells, epithelial cells, and immune cells

52.

The function of a tapeworm’s hooks and suckers is to:

a)

attach to the host’s intestinal wall

b)

digest food for the host

c)

produce eggs for reproduction

d)

help the tapeworm move quickly

53.

What is an incompletely lined body cavity called?

a)

Pseudocoelom

b)

Coelom

c)

Acoelom

d)

Haemocoel

54.

What structure in a planarian digests food and ensures that nutrients get to all the cells?

a)

Gastrovascular cavity

b)

Pharynx

c)

Nerve cord

d)

Excretory pore

55.

Animals in which the first embryonic opening becomes the mouth are called ________.

a)

protostomes

b)

deuterostomes

c)

amniotes

d)

cnidarians

56.

Fill in the blank: In deuterostomes, the first embryonic opening becomes the ________.

a)

anus

b)

mouth

c)

stomach

d)

esophagus

57.

Identify the mollusk labeled as a cephalopod in the diagram.

a)

Chiton

b)

Scallop

c)

Snail

d)

Nautilus

58.

Match the following mollusk types with their characteristics:

a)

Has a shell consisting of eight plates

1.

Chiton

b)

Has a body enclosed by a shell consisting of two valves

2.

Bivalve

c)

Contains marine, freshwater, and terrestrial species

3.

Gastropod

d)

Contains active marine predators with tentacles

4.

Cephalopod

59.

Sequence the organs in the digestive tract to trace the path of food from the mouth to the cloaca.

a)

Mouth → esophagus → stomach → small intestine → large intestine → cloaca

b)

Mouth → stomach → esophagus → large intestine → small intestine → cloaca

c)

Mouth → esophagus → large intestine → stomach → small intestine → cloaca

d)

Mouth → small intestine → esophagus → stomach → large intestine → cloaca

60.

The term urogenital system refers to:

a)

The combined organs of the urinary and reproductive systems

b)

Only the organs of the digestive system

c)

The organs responsible for respiration

d)

Only the organs of the nervous system

61.

Another name for the fertilized egg is

a)

zygote

b)

blastula

c)

gastrula

d)

morula

62.

Which one is the Morula?

a)
b)
c)
d)
63.

Which one is the Blastula?

a)
b)
c)
d)
64.

What does the ectoderm become?

a)

skin, nails, hair, nervous system

b)

muscle, bones, cartilage, heart, blood

c)

digestive tract and respiratory tracts

65.

What does the mesoderm become?

a)

skin, nails, hair, nervous system

b)

muscle, bones, cartilage, heart, blood

c)

digestive tract and respiratory tracts

66.

What does the endoderm become?

a)

skin, nails, hair, nervous system

b)

muscle, bones, cartilage, heart, blood

c)

digestive tract and respiratory tracts

67.

Which of the following provide most of the energy in ecosystems?

a)

keystone species

b)

carnivores

c)

producers

d)

generalists

68.

Which of the following can be both primary and secondary consumers?

a)

detritivores

b)

herbivores

c)

carnivores

d)

omnivores

69.

Decomposers are important to ecosystems because they

a)

can act as omnivores.

b)

capture energy from the sun.

c)

are producers.

d)

return vital nutrients back to the environment.

70.

Food webs are models that show

a)

Only primary consumers in an ecosystem.

b)

Networks of feeding relationships.

c)

Stored energy in food chains.

d)

One sequence of producers and consumers.

71.

A food chain contains oak trees (producer), mice (herbivore), black rat snakes (carnivore), and bald eagles (carnivore). How many trophic levels does this food chain have?

a)

four

b)

three

c)

two

d)

one

72.

An ecosystem consists of

a)

the soil, water and weather.

b)

a community of organisms.

c)

energy.

d)

all of the above.

73.
The closer a biome is to the equator, the more we would expect it to be
a)
warmer & wetter
b)
warmer & drier
c)
cooler & wetter
d)
cooler & drier
74.
The farther a biome is from the equator, the more we would expect it to be 
a)
warmer & wetter
b)
warmer & drier
c)
cooler & wetter
d)
cooler & drier
75.

All the populations of different species that live in a given area are collected a...

a)

organism

b)

community

c)

biosphere

d)

molecule

76.

Sequence the organs of the digestive tract from the mouth to the anus.

a)

Mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, anus.

b)

Mouth, stomach, esophagus, large intestine, small intestine, anus.

c)

Mouth, esophagus, large intestine, stomach, small intestine, anus.

d)

Mouth, small intestine, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, anus.

77.

Explain why stomach contents are acidic and how a warm body temperature aids digestion.

a)

Stomach contents are acidic due to hydrochloric acid, which activates pepsin and helps break down food. Warm body temperature increases enzyme activity, aiding digestion.

b)

Stomach contents are acidic because of bile, and warm body temperature slows down enzyme activity.

c)

Stomach contents are acidic due to amylase, and warm body temperature has no effect on digestion.

d)

Stomach contents are acidic because of mucus, and warm body temperature denatures all digestive enzymes.

78.

Explain why a change in pH indicates that fat digestion has occurred.

a)

Fat digestion produces fatty acids, which lower the pH, indicating that digestion has occurred.

b)

Fat digestion produces glucose, which raises the pH, indicating that digestion has occurred.

c)

Fat digestion produces amino acids, which do not affect pH, indicating that digestion has occurred.

d)

Fat digestion produces water, which increases the pH, indicating that digestion has occurred.

79.

To lose weight, some people with obesity undergo an operation in which (1) the stomach is reduced to the size of a golf ball, and (2) food bypasses the duodenum (first 2 feet) of the intestine. What is the outcome of this operation?

a)

Food spends less time in the digestive tract.

b)

The operation takes less time to perform.

c)

Patients recover more quickly after surgery.

d)

Meals take less time to prepare.

80.

What organ produces the lipase and amylase that perform digestion in the small intestine?

a)

The pancreas.

b)

The liver.

c)

The stomach.

d)

The gallbladder.

81.

Describe the environment in which pepsin functions.

a)

Pepsin functions in an acidic environment (low pH, such as in the stomach).

b)

Pepsin functions in a neutral environment (pH around 7, such as in the small intestine).

c)

Pepsin functions in an alkaline environment (high pH, such as in the pancreas).

d)

Pepsin functions in a dry environment (such as outside the digestive tract).

82.

What organ stores bile?

a)

The gallbladder.

b)

The liver.

c)

The pancreas.

d)

The stomach.

83.

What component of foods is digested by pancreatic amylase?

a)

Starch (carbohydrates).

b)

Proteins.

c)

Fats (lipids).

d)

Vitamins.

84.

What is the function of the bladder?

a)

The bladder stores urine before it is released to the exterior of the body.

b)

The bladder produces digestive enzymes.

c)

The bladder absorbs nutrients from food.

d)

The bladder pumps blood throughout the body.

85.

State a function of the kidneys in the urinary system.

a)

The kidneys produce urine and regulate the volume and composition of blood, maintaining water and salt balance and acid-base balance.

b)

The kidneys secrete digestive enzymes to break down food.

c)

The kidneys are responsible for pumping blood throughout the body.

d)

The kidneys help in the absorption of nutrients from the small intestine.

86.

The urinary system and reproductive system are often considered together as the urogenital system in mammals.

a)

True

b)

False

87.
Question Image

Match the following anatomical terms with their correct description as shown in Figure 29.2 Anatomy of the kidney:

a)

Renal cortex

1.

The outermost portion of the kidney

b)

Renal medulla

2.

The inner region containing renal pyramids

c)

Renal pelvis

3.

The cavity-like reservoir at the center of the kidney

d)

Ureter

4.

The tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder

e)

Nephrons

5.

Microscopic tubules that produce urine

88.

The function of nephrons in the kidney is:

a)

to filter blood and form urine

b)

to produce insulin

c)

to transport oxygen

d)

to digest proteins

89.

Match the male reproductive organs with their functions:

a)

Produces sperm and sex hormones

1.

Testis

b)

Stores sperm as they mature

2.

Epididymis

c)

Conducts and stores sperm

3.

Vas deferens

d)

Contributes secretions to semen

4.

Seminal vesicle

e)

Contributes secretions to semen

5.

Prostate gland

90.

What are the female gonads in the mammalian reproductive system?

a)

Ovaries

b)

Testes

c)

Uterus

d)

Fallopian tubes

91.

Describe the anatomy and physiology of a spinal reflex arc.

a)

A spinal reflex arc involves sensory neurons, interneurons in the spinal cord, and motor neurons, allowing quick responses without brain involvement.

b)

A spinal reflex arc only involves the brain and motor neurons, bypassing the spinal cord entirely.

c)

A spinal reflex arc consists solely of sensory neurons and does not include motor or interneurons.

d)

A spinal reflex arc is responsible for voluntary movements controlled by the cerebral cortex.

92.

Compare the eyes of various invertebrates, particularly those of an arthropod and a squid.

a)

Arthropod eyes are compound, made of many lenses; squid eyes are camera-like, similar to vertebrate eyes.

b)

Both arthropod and squid eyes are compound, made of many lenses.

c)

Arthropod eyes are camera-like, similar to vertebrate eyes; squid eyes are compound.

d)

Both arthropod and squid eyes lack lenses and are simple light-sensitive spots.

93.

Relate the ability to distinguish foods to the senses of smell and taste.

a)

Smell and taste work together to identify and distinguish flavors in food.

b)

Only the sense of sight is used to distinguish flavors in food.

c)

The ability to distinguish foods depends solely on texture.

d)

Taste alone is responsible for identifying all flavors in food.

94.

Which part of the brain is responsible for higher mental capabilities and is divided into right and left cerebral hemispheres?

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Medulla oblongata

d)

Thalamus

95.

Trace the path of light from outside the eye to the retina.

a)

Cornea → Aqueous humor → Pupil → Lens → Vitreous humor → Retina

b)

Cornea → Lens → Aqueous humor → Pupil → Vitreous humor → Retina

c)

Cornea → Pupil → Lens → Aqueous humor → Vitreous humor → Retina

d)

Cornea → Vitreous humor → Lens → Pupil → Aqueous humor → Retina

96.

Which cerebral lobe processes nerve impulses from an eye?

a)

Occipital lobe

b)

Frontal lobe

c)

Temporal lobe

d)

Parietal lobe

97.

Match the following parts of the human eye with their functions:

a)

Protects and supports eyeball

1.

Sclera

b)

Refracts light rays

2.

Cornea

c)

Absorbs stray light rays

3.

Choroid

d)

Contains receptors for sight

4.

Retina

e)

Make black-and-white vision possible

5.

Rod cells

98.

The function of the tympanum in the grasshopper is:

a)

to detect sound vibrations

b)

to help in digestion

c)

to aid in flying

d)

to assist in reproduction

99.

Match the parts of the human ear with their correct function:

a)

Collects sound waves

1.

Pinna

b)

Filters air

2.

Auditory canal

c)

Amplifies sound waves

3.

Tympanic membrane and ossicles

d)

Equalizes air pressure

4.

Auditory tube

e)

Rotational equilibrium

5.

Semicircular canals

100.

Which specialized substance produces blood cells and is present in spongy bone?

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Cartilage

c)

Ligament

d)

Tendon

101.

Identify the series of concentric rings in compact bone.

a)

Lamellae

b)

Canaliculi

c)

Osteons

d)

Lacunae

102.

Which bone is the only bone of the skull not immovably fused to another?

a)

Mandible

b)

Maxilla

c)

Frontal bone

d)

Parietal bone

103.

What are ribs that do not have sternal attachment called?

a)

Floating ribs

b)

True ribs

c)

False ribs

d)

Costal ribs

104.

Only the phalanges in the hindlimb of a frog, bird, and cat ever touch the ground, whereas the entire foot of a human touches the ground. This difference exists because:

a)

Humans have a plantigrade posture, while frogs, birds, and cats have digitigrade posture.

b)

Humans have more phalanges than other animals.

c)

Frogs, birds, and cats walk on their heels, while humans walk on their toes.

d)

The bones in the human foot are shorter than those in frogs, birds, and cats.

105.

Match the following terms to their definitions:

a)

Movement of joint parts toward each other

1.

Flexion

b)

Movement of joint parts away from each other

2.

Extension

c)

Movement of a part toward the midline of the body

3.

Adduction

d)

Movement of a part away from the midline of the body

4.

Abduction