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Bio Final Practice Quiz #2

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Identify the seven characteristics of living systems that distinguish them from nonliving systems.

a)

Growth and development

b)

Ability to reproduce

c)

Response to stimuli and regulation (homeostasis)

d)

Organization into one or more cells

e)

Energy use and metabolism

2.

Distinguish between bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes by identifying the domain that contains membrane-bound organelles.

a)

Archaea

b)

Bacteria

c)

Eukaryotes

3.

Identify the domain that typically has peptidoglycan in its cell wall.

a)

Archaea

b)

Bacteria

c)

Eukaryotes

4.

Formulate scientific hypotheses and define how experimental or observational data can test the predictions of those hypotheses: Which statement is a testable scientific hypothesis?

a)

All unobserved swans are white

b)

Plants grow faster under blue light than under red light

c)

Beauty is the most important trait in flowers

5.

Discuss the properties of water molecules that are important for life: Which property most directly explains water’s high surface tension?

a)

Ionic bonds within a single water molecule

b)

Hydrogen bonding among water molecules

c)

Nonpolar covalent bonds between oxygen and hydrogen

6.

Chapter 7: Identify the correct sequence, major inputs and outputs, and cellular locations of the three stages of cellular respiration.

a)

Glycolysis in the cytosol (input: CO2; outputs: glucose); pyruvate oxidation in the lysosome (outputs: lactate); oxidative phosphorylation at the plasma membrane (outputs: NADPH)

b)

Glycolysis in the cytosol (input: glucose; outputs: pyruvate, ATP, NADH); pyruvate oxidation and the citric acid cycle in the mitochondrial matrix (outputs: CO2, NADH, FADH2, ATP/GTP); oxidative phosphorylation at the inner mitochondrial membrane (inputs: NADH/FADH2 and O2; outputs: ATP and water)

c)

Glycolysis in the mitochondrial matrix (input: pyruvate; outputs: CO2 and NADH); citric acid cycle in the cytosol (outputs: glucose); oxidative phosphorylation in the nucleus (outputs: ATP only)

d)

Glycolysis in the cytosol (input: fatty acids; outputs: acetyl-CoA); citric acid cycle in the ER (outputs: O2); oxidative phosphorylation in the chloroplast (outputs: ATP)

7.

Chapter 7: During glycolysis and pyruvate oxidation, what happens to the carbon atoms from one glucose molecule?

a)

They remain as a six‑carbon glucose molecule until the citric acid cycle

b)

They are converted directly into ethanol during pyruvate oxidation

c)

They become two molecules of pyruvate (3 carbons each), then each loses one carbon as CO2 to form acetyl-CoA (2 carbons)

d)

They are completely oxidized to CO2 during glycolysis

8.

Chapter 7: How is energy released by the electron transport chain used to synthesize ATP in mitochondria?

a)

It directly phosphorylates ADP to ATP at the electron carriers

b)

It creates a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane that drives ATP synthase (chemiosmosis)

c)

It splits water to release oxygen needed for ATP formation

d)

It transports glucose into the matrix where ATP is assembled

9.

Chapter 7: What best defines fermentation and explains why it is employed when O2 is absent?

a)

A process that uses the citric acid cycle to make ATP without electron transport

b)

An anaerobic process that regenerates NAD+ by reducing pyruvate (e.g., to lactate or ethanol) so glycolysis can continue

c)

A pathway that increases O2 production to fuel oxidative phosphorylation

d)

A mechanism that stores pyruvate in the peroxisome for later respiration

10.

Chapter 8: Which statement accurately distinguishes light‑dependent from light‑independent reactions of photosynthesis?

a)

Light‑independent reactions generate light energy that powers the photosystems

b)

Light‑dependent reactions in thylakoid membranes produce ATP and NADPH; the Calvin cycle in the stroma uses ATP and NADPH to fix CO2 into sugars

c)

Both sets occur only in the stroma and directly release O2 from sugar oxidation

d)

Light‑dependent reactions occur in the stroma and fix CO2; the Calvin cycle in thylakoids generates ATP and NADPH

11.

Chapter 8: Which components correctly describe photosystems II and I in oxygenic photosynthesis?

a)

Photosystems contain only carotenoids and lack primary electron acceptors

b)

PSII and PSI are identical complexes that use the same reaction center pigment and do not require antenna pigments

c)

Antenna pigment complexes funnel energy to reaction centers (P680 in PSII, P700 in PSI), which pass electrons to primary electron acceptors

d)

Single chlorophyll molecules (P450) in each photosystem directly fix CO2 without antenna pigments

12.

Chapter 8: How do chloroplast electron transport chains use energy to produce ATP and NADPH?

a)

Electrons move from PSI to PSII to split water; the released oxygen powers ATP formation

b)

Linear electron flow from PSII through cytochrome b6f to PSI builds a proton gradient for ATP synthesis, and PSI reduces NADP+ to NADPH

c)

ATP and NADPH are formed when NADH donates electrons directly to ATP synthase

d)

Cyclic electron flow through PSII produces NADPH while PSI makes ATP by substrate‑level phosphorylation

13.

Chapter 8: In the Calvin cycle, how are CO2, ATP, and NADPH utilized to synthesize sugars?

a)

CO2 reacts with NADPH to form glucose in the reaction center

b)

CO2 is fixed to RuBP by rubisco; ATP and NADPH reduce 3‑phosphoglycerate to G3P; ATP is used again to regenerate RuBP

c)

CO2 is stored in thylakoids; ATP and NADPH split water; RuBP is regenerated without ATP

d)

CO2 is oxidized by PSI; ATP phosphorylates glucose directly; NADPH is exported to mitochondria

14.

Chapter 8: How do C4 and CAM plants minimize photorespiration in hot, dry environments?

a)

Both use rubisco’s oxygenase activity to remove excess CO2

b)

C4 plants rely on cyclic electron flow only; CAM plants halt the Calvin cycle until rainy conditions

c)

C4 plants use spatial separation (PEP carboxylase in mesophyll; Calvin cycle in bundle‑sheath cells) and CAM plants use temporal separation (stomata open at night, malate stored for daytime CO2 release)

d)

Both open stomata widely during midday to increase O2 uptake for rubisco

15.

Chapter 8: Which comparison of photosynthesis and cellular respiration is accurate?

a)

Photosynthesis and respiration are identical except for the organelles in which they occur

b)

Photosynthesis creates ATP by substrate‑level phosphorylation only, while respiration uses light energy to power electron transport

c)

Photosynthesis reduces CO2 to energy‑rich carbohydrates using light energy, whereas respiration oxidizes carbohydrates to CO2 to produce ATP; both use electron transport chains and proton gradients

d)

Both processes oxidize glucose to CO2 but photosynthesis occurs only at night and does not use electron transport chains

16.

Chapter 9: What are the three general steps common to all cell signaling pathways?

a)

Depolarization, repolarization, and hyperpolarization

b)

Reception, transduction, and response

c)

Secretion, endocytosis, and exocytosis

d)

Translation, replication, and transcription

17.

Chapter 9: Which set correctly matches cell‑signaling mechanisms to the typical signaling distance?

a)

Endocrine (gap junctions), synaptic (hormonal circulation), paracrine (internal receptor signaling), autocrine (surface receptor signaling)

b)

Endocrine (long‑distance via bloodstream), paracrine (local diffusion), synaptic (cell‑to‑cell via neurotransmitters), autocrine (self‑signaling)

c)

Paracrine (long‑distance via blood), endocrine (contact‑dependent), synaptic (diffusion through ECM), autocrine (neighbor signaling only)

d)

All signaling mechanisms operate over identical distances and differ only in receptor type

18.

Chapter 9: Which statement best summarizes the principles of G‑protein‑coupled receptor (GPCR) signaling?

a)

GPCRs signal by permanently binding ATP to ion channels without G proteins

b)

Ligand binding activates the GPCR, which promotes GDP‑to‑GTP exchange on a heterotrimeric G protein; the Gα or Gβγ subunits regulate effectors; signaling terminates when GTP is hydrolyzed

c)

Ligand binding causes the receptor to become a transcription factor that directly replicates DNA

d)

G proteins are activated by phosphorylation of the ligand rather than nucleotide exchange

19.

Chapter 9: What is a key difference between signaling pathways that use intracellular receptors versus surface receptors?

a)

Surface receptors enter the nucleus to bind DNA, whereas intracellular receptors stay at the membrane

b)

Intracellular receptors require endocytosis to activate G proteins, while surface receptors do not

c)

Intracellular receptors bind small hydrophobic ligands and often act as transcription factors; surface receptors bind hydrophilic ligands and initiate cytoplasmic signaling cascades

d)

Both receptor types bind only peptide ligands and function exclusively at the plasma membrane

20.

Chapter 9: Which type of ligands commonly bind intracellular receptors?

a)

Large, charged peptide hormones that cannot cross membranes

b)

Small, nonpolar, hydrophobic molecules such as steroid hormones and thyroid hormones

c)

Carbohydrates that bind cell‑surface integrins

d)

Hydrophilic neurotransmitters that act through ion channels only

21.

Chapter 9: What role does ligand polarity play in determining whether a ligand interacts with intracellular versus surface receptors?

a)

Ligand polarity has no influence on receptor location or interaction

b)

Nonpolar ligands can diffuse across membranes to reach intracellular receptors, whereas polar ligands cannot cross easily and therefore bind surface receptors

c)

Polar ligands freely cross membranes and bind intracellular receptors; nonpolar ligands are excluded and bind surface receptors

d)

Only charged ligands can activate any receptor type

22.

Chapter 10: Which statement accurately relates chromosomes and genes, chromatin, and sister chromatids?

a)

Chromatin is an RNA complex containing genes; sister chromatids form only during meiosis

b)

Genes exist only outside chromosomes and are not part of chromatin

c)

Genes are arranged along DNA molecules packaged as chromatin; after DNA replication, each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids joined at the centromere

d)

Sister chromatids are different chromosomes with unrelated genes

23.

Chapter 10: Which sequence correctly lists the phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle and describes the primary accomplishment of each?

a)

G1 (chromosome segregation), S (RNA synthesis), G2 (cell death), M (organelle duplication)

b)

G1 (cell growth), S (DNA replication), G2 (preparation for mitosis), M (mitosis and cytokinesis)

c)

G0 (DNA replication), G1 (mitosis), G2 (fertilization), M (growth)

d)

S (cell growth), G1 (DNA replication), G2 (meiosis), M (metabolic rest)

24.

Chapter 10: Which combination correctly identifies common cell‑cycle dysregulations that lead to cancer and a general treatment mechanism to counteract them?

a)

Overexpression of DNA repair genes; treatments inhibit repair enzymes to increase mutations

b)

Activating mutations in proto‑oncogenes and loss of tumor suppressors disrupt checkpoints; targeted therapies (e.g., kinase or CDK inhibitors) aim to restore control or block hyperactive signaling

c)

Excessive meiosis in somatic cells; treatments promote gamete formation

d)

Enhanced checkpoint activity and increased apoptosis; treatments increase mitogenic signaling

25.

Chapter 11: Which definition correctly distinguishes haploid from diploid?

a)

Haploid cells have two sets of chromosomes; diploid cells have one set

b)

Haploid and diploid cells contain identical chromosome numbers

c)

Haploid cells are only found in plants; diploid cells are only found in animals

d)

Haploid cells contain one set of chromosomes (n), whereas diploid cells contain two sets (2n)

26.

Chapter 11: Which statement correctly distinguishes a haploid cell from a gamete?

a)

All haploid cells are diploid until fertilization

b)

A gamete is a specialized haploid reproductive cell, whereas a haploid cell can be any cell type with one chromosome set

c)

A haploid cell is always a zygote, whereas a gamete is not

d)

Gametes are always diploid, whereas haploid cells are somatic

27.

Chapter 11: Which statement correctly distinguishes a chromatid from a chromosome?

a)

Chromatids exist only in haploid cells, while chromosomes exist only in diploid cells

b)

After DNA replication, a single chromosome consists of two sister chromatids; a chromatid is one of the identical DNA copies

c)

A chromosome is always composed of a single chromatid

d)

A chromatid is an entire genome, whereas a chromosome is a small DNA fragment

28.

Chapter 11: Which statement correctly distinguishes sister chromatids from homologous chromosomes?

a)

Sister chromatids come from different parents; homologous chromosomes are identical copies

b)

Sister chromatids are identical DNA copies of a single chromosome joined at the centromere; homologous chromosomes are a pair from each parent with the same genes but possibly different alleles

c)

Homologous chromosomes are joined at centromeres, whereas sister chromatids are never connected

d)

Sister chromatids have different genes, whereas homologous chromosomes contain identical genes

29.

Chapter 11: Which comparison of mitosis and meiosis is accurate?

a)

Mitosis produces four daughter cells; meiosis produces two identical diploid cells

b)

Mitosis and meiosis both produce haploid gametes in one division

c)

Mitosis involves one division producing genetically identical diploid daughter cells; meiosis involves two divisions producing genetically diverse haploid gametes

d)

Mitosis increases genetic diversity via crossing over; meiosis does not

30.

Chapter 11: During meiosis I and meiosis II, how do chromosome movements differ between mother and daughter cells?

a)

Meiosis I separates sister chromatids; meiosis II separates homologous chromosomes

b)

Meiosis I separates homologous chromosomes into different daughter cells; meiosis II separates sister chromatids

c)

Neither division changes chromosome associations

d)

Both divisions separate homologous chromosomes only

31.

Chapter 11: When and how does meiosis reduce ploidy?

a)

Ploidy is reduced during meiosis II when sister chromatids pair

b)

Ploidy is unchanged throughout meiosis

c)

Ploidy is reduced from diploid to haploid during meiosis I when homologous chromosomes segregate to different daughter cells

d)

Ploidy increases during meiosis I due to chromosome replication

32.

Chapter 11: Which comparison highlights a key difference between meiosis and mitosis?

a)

Meiosis has a single division; mitosis has two divisions

b)

Meiosis includes homologous recombination and independent assortment that increase genetic variation; mitosis does not

c)

Mitosis always produces haploid spores; meiosis always produces diploid clones

d)

Both processes require fertilization to complete division

33.

Chapter 11: Which mechanisms generate genetic variability during meiosis and fertilization?

a)

Elimination of centromeres and irreversible chromatid fusion

b)

Crossing over during prophase I, independent assortment of homologs at metaphase I, and random fertilization

c)

Cytokinesis patterns and spindle elongation

d)

DNA replication without proofreading and fixed chromosome alignment

34.

Chapter 11: Which error during meiosis and its consequence are correctly paired?

a)

Premature cytokinesis causing triploidy in all gametes

b)

Nondisjunction of homologous chromosomes leading to aneuploidy such as trisomy

c)

Kinetochores binding microtubules correctly, causing chromosomal loss

d)

Excessive crossing over leading to tetraploidy

35.

Chapter 12: Which choice correctly distinguishes a character from a trait in genetics vocabulary?

a)

Characters are determined by proteins only; traits are determined by RNA only

b)

A character is a heritable feature (e.g., flower color), whereas a trait is a specific variant of that character (e.g., purple)

c)

Traits are non‑heritable, while characters are environmental

d)

A character is a specific variant, whereas a trait is the general feature

36.

Chapter 12: Which choice correctly distinguishes genotype from phenotype?

a)

Genotype is the physical appearance; phenotype is the DNA sequence

b)

Genotype is the genetic makeup (allele combination); phenotype is the observable expression of the genes

c)

Genotype describes environmental effects; phenotype describes chromosome number

d)

Genotype changes every mitosis; phenotype never changes

37.

Chapter 12: Which statement correctly defines allele, dominant allele, and recessive allele?

a)

Alleles are proteins; dominance refers to higher protein concentration only

b)

An allele is a variant of a gene; a dominant allele determines the phenotype in heterozygotes; a recessive allele is masked in heterozygotes

c)

Dominant alleles always produce lethal phenotypes; recessive alleles never do

d)

An allele is a whole chromosome; dominant alleles exist only in homozygotes; recessive alleles exist only in haploids

38.

Chapter 12: Which choice correctly distinguishes homozygous from heterozygous?

a)

Homozygous means two different alleles; heterozygous means identical alleles

b)

Homozygous applies only to dihybrids; heterozygous applies only to monohybrids

c)

Homozygous means two identical alleles for a gene; heterozygous means two different alleles

d)

Homozygous refers to phenotype only; heterozygous refers to genotype only

39.

Chapter 12: Which statement correctly distinguishes a monohybrid cross from a dihybrid cross?

a)

Monohybrid crosses require testcrosses; dihybrid crosses do not

b)

A monohybrid cross follows one gene with two alleles; a dihybrid cross follows two genes simultaneously

c)

Monohybrid crosses occur in diploids; dihybrid crosses occur only in haploids

d)

A monohybrid cross involves two genes; a dihybrid involves one

40.

Chapter 12: What best defines gene markers in genetics?

a)

Proteins that mark the location of ribosomes on mRNA

b)

Identifiable DNA sequence features (e.g., SNPs, microsatellites) used to track inheritance of linked genes or loci

c)

Metabolic intermediates that tag chromosomes for degradation

d)

Any visible trait regardless of genetic basis

41.

Chapter 12: How does a testcross reveal whether an individual with a dominant phenotype is homozygous or heterozygous?

a)

Cross with a heterozygote; a 3:1 recessive:dominant ratio indicates homozygous dominant

b)

Cross the individual with another dominant; all recessive offspring indicate homozygous dominant

c)

Cross the individual with a homozygous recessive; a 1:1 dominant:recessive offspring ratio indicates heterozygosity, whereas all dominant offspring indicate homozygous dominant

d)

Self‑fertilize the individual; any recessive phenotype proves homozygosity

42.

Chapter 12: What does Mendel’s Principle of Segregation state, and how is it explained by chromosome behavior in meiosis?

a)

Allele segregation is caused by crossing over in meiosis II

b)

Allele pairs separate during gamete formation so each gamete carries one allele; this reflects separation of homologous chromosomes in meiosis I

c)

Alleles always remain paired in gametes; separation occurs only after fertilization

d)

Allele pairs segregate during mitosis rather than meiosis

43.

Chapter 12: What does Mendel’s Principle of Independent Assortment state, and how did Mendel’s experiments lead to it?

a)

Independent assortment occurs only in mitosis; Mendel inferred it from monohybrid crosses

b)

Alleles of different genes always travel together; dihybrid crosses showed complete linkage in all cases

c)

Alleles of different genes assort independently during gamete formation when genes are on different chromosomes; dihybrid cross results supported independent assortment

d)

Independent assortment states that one gene controls all traits; Mendel observed single‑gene inheritance only

44.

Which statement best describes how linked genes exhibit a different pattern of inheritance than independently assorting genes?

a)

They never recombine and therefore always show 0% recombination.

b)

They tend to be inherited together because they reside on the same chromosome and show recombination frequencies less than 50%.

c)

They assort independently because crossing over always separates them in every meiosis.

d)

They exhibit recombination frequencies exactly equal to 50%, indicating complete independence.

45.

Which statement accurately describes how sex-linked genes on the X chromosome are inherited differently in males and females?

a)

X-linked alleles are never expressed in females due to X-inactivation.

b)

Males are hemizygous for X-linked genes and express recessive alleles from a single X, whereas females typically require two copies to express a recessive trait.

c)

Females are hemizygous for X-linked genes and therefore always express recessive alleles.

d)

X-linked traits are transmitted only from fathers to sons.

46.

In a pedigree chart, which observation most strongly suggests an autosomal recessive trait?

a)

All offspring of an affected parent are affected regardless of the other parent’s genotype.

b)

Affected individuals are present in every generation and both sexes are equally affected.

c)

Affected offspring often appear from two unaffected parents and the trait can skip generations.

d)

Only males are affected and the trait is passed from mothers to sons.

47.

Which experimental evidence directly demonstrated that DNA, not protein, is the genetic material in living organisms?

a)

Meselson–Stahl experiment demonstrating semiconservative replication.

b)

Chargaff’s rules showing base-pair ratios differ among species.

c)

Hershey–Chase blender experiment showing DNA from phage enters bacteria and directs phage production.

d)

Griffith’s experiment showing transformation without identifying the transforming principle.

48.

During DNA replication, what is the polarity of newly synthesized DNA and RNA primers relative to the template?

a)

RNA primers are synthesized in the 353' \to 5' direction and extended in the same direction.

b)

New strands are synthesized in the 535' \to 3' direction while reading the template in the 353' \to 5' direction.

c)

DNA polymerases synthesize both DNA and RNA in either direction depending on the template.

d)

New strands are synthesized in the 353' \to 5' direction while reading the template in the 535' \to 3' direction.

49.

Which enzyme correctly matches its role in leading and lagging strand replication?

a)

Ligase unwinds the helix; primase seals nicks; DNA polymerase I synthesizes the leading strand; helicase adds RNA primers.

b)

Helicase unwinds the double helix; primase synthesizes RNA primers; DNA polymerase III extends strands; ligase seals nicks between Okazaki fragments.

c)

Topoisomerase adds RNA primers; helicase seals nicks; DNA polymerase III removes primers.

d)

Primase extends Okazaki fragments; ligase synthesizes primers; helicase proofreads new DNA.

50.

Which finding provided evidence for the one gene–one enzyme hypothesis?

a)

Meselson–Stahl showed semiconservative replication of DNA.

b)

Beadle and Tatum showed that specific gene mutations in Neurospora blocked single steps in metabolic pathways that could be rescued by adding the missing intermediate.

c)

Chargaff showed species-specific base composition in DNA.

d)

Hershey–Chase showed DNA enters bacteria and directs phage production.

51.

Which statement best defines transcription and translation?

a)

Transcription synthesizes RNA from a DNA template; translation synthesizes a polypeptide using mRNA as the template.

b)

Transcription synthesizes DNA from an RNA template; translation synthesizes RNA from a polypeptide.

c)

Transcription and translation both synthesize DNA from RNA templates.

d)

Transcription synthesizes proteins directly; translation synthesizes DNA using tRNA.

52.

Which statement correctly contrasts transcription in eukaryotes and bacteria?

a)

Eukaryotes use multiple RNA polymerases and require general transcription factors at promoters; bacteria use a single RNA polymerase with sigma factor.

b)

Bacteria use multiple RNA polymerases with transcription factors; eukaryotes use a single polymerase with sigma factor.

c)

Both eukaryotes and bacteria require no protein factors to initiate transcription.

d)

Eukaryotic transcription occurs in the cytoplasm; bacterial transcription occurs in the nucleus.

53.

Which event is part of mRNA production in eukaryotes during RNA processing?

a)

Introns are removed and exons are spliced together, with addition of a 5' cap and a poly(A) tail.

b)

Exons are removed and introns are spliced together without any end modifications.

c)

A 3' cap is added and introns are translated into peptide tags.

d)

RNA processing is absent; mRNAs are used exactly as transcribed.

54.

Which statement correctly distinguishes translation initiation in eukaryotes from that in bacteria?

a)

Eukaryotic ribosomes typically recognize the 5' cap and scan to the start codon; bacterial ribosomes bind the Shine–Dalgarno sequence on mRNA.

b)

Both eukaryotic and bacterial ribosomes recognize the Shine–Dalgarno sequence.

c)

Bacterial initiation requires a 5' cap; eukaryotes use a Shine–Dalgarno sequence.

d)

Initiation is identical in both systems and does not involve mRNA features.

55.

Which change in a protein-coding gene is a nonsense mutation?

a)

A base substitution that converts a sense codon into a stop codon.

b)

A base substitution that changes one amino acid to another without altering protein length.

c)

A base substitution that preserves the same amino acid due to redundancy.

d)

An insertion or deletion of three nucleotides that adds or removes one amino acid.

56.

In operon regulation, what is the role of the operator relative to the promoter?

a)

The operator is a DNA site where a regulatory protein (repressor) binds to block RNA polymerase from transcribing genes downstream of the promoter.

b)

The operator is the site where RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription.

c)

The operator encodes the repressor protein.

d)

The operator is an mRNA sequence that recruits ribosomes.

57.

Which statement accurately describes negative and positive control of the E. coli lac operon?

a)

Negative control: the lac repressor binds the operator when lactose is absent; positive control: CAP–cAMP activates transcription when glucose is low.

b)

Negative control: CAP–cAMP binds the operator when glucose is high; positive control: the repressor activates transcription when lactose is present.

c)

Negative control: the lac repressor activates transcription in the presence of lactose; positive control: CAP–cAMP represses transcription when glucose is low.

d)

Negative control: sigma factor binds the operator; positive control: lactose removes RNA polymerase from the promoter.

58.

At which regulatory level in eukaryotes does alternative splicing operate?

a)

Post-transcriptional regulation of pre-mRNA processing.

b)

Transcriptional regulation of promoter choice.

c)

Translational regulation of ribosome activity.

d)

Post-translational regulation of protein folding.

59.

Which statement best explains how chromatin structure affects a eukaryotic gene’s activity?

a)

Histone acetylation generally opens chromatin to promote transcription, whereas certain histone methylation patterns can repress transcription.

b)

Histone acetylation compacts chromatin to repress transcription, while methylation always activates transcription.

c)

Chromatin structure has no impact on gene expression in eukaryotes.

d)

DNA supercoiling only occurs in prokaryotes and cannot affect eukaryotic transcription.

60.

Which is an example of post-transcriptional regulation of gene expression in eukaryotes?

a)

MicroRNA-mediated repression of specific mRNAs affecting their stability or translation.

b)

Enhancer-bound transcription factors increasing RNA polymerase recruitment.

c)

CAP–cAMP activation of the lac operon in bacteria.

d)

DNA replication initiation at origins during S phase.

61.

Which statement correctly explains genetic recombination by bacterial conjugation?

a)

A donor cell transfers DNA, often an F plasmid or chromosomal segment, to a recipient through a conjugation pilus, resulting in new genetic combinations.

b)

Naked DNA is taken up from the environment without cell-to-cell contact.

c)

Bacteriophages package bacterial DNA and deliver it to new cells during infection.

d)

Cells fuse and form diploid zygotes to recombine homologous chromosomes.

62.

Which statement defines transformation and its role in bacterial genetic recombination?

a)

Bacteria can incorporate naked DNA from the environment into their genome, producing genetic recombinants.

b)

DNA is transferred via a conjugation pilus.

c)

Phage infection delivers viral genomes only, never bacterial DNA.

d)

Transformation requires viral capsids to package donor DNA.

63.

Which statement defines transduction and its role in bacterial genetic recombination?

a)

Bacteriophages mediate transfer of bacterial DNA between cells, generating recombinants.

b)

Naked DNA is taken up from the environment.

c)

DNA is transferred through direct cell-to-cell contact via a pilus.

d)

Transduction occurs only with eukaryotic viruses and not with bacteriophages.

64.

Which statement accurately defines a virus and summarizes common types of viral structure?

a)

A virus consists of a nucleic acid genome enclosed by a protein capsid, with structures that may be helical, icosahedral, or enveloped.

b)

A virus is a cell with a nucleus and mitochondria that lacks a cell wall.

c)

All viruses are non-enveloped and have identical icosahedral capsids.

d)

Viruses contain only proteins and lipids without any nucleic acid genome.

65.

Which statement distinguishes a virulent bacteriophage from a temperate bacteriophage and summarizes the infective cycle of a temperate phage?

a)

Virulent phages perform only a lytic cycle; temperate phages can enter a lysogenic cycle in which their genome integrates into the host and can later induce the lytic cycle.

b)

Both virulent and temperate phages are strictly lysogenic and never lyse cells.

c)

Temperate phages are always lytic and cannot integrate into host genomes.

d)

Virulent phages integrate into host genomes permanently and never lyse cells.

66.

Which reason best explains why some viral infections of animals are difficult to treat?

a)

Viruses rely on host cellular machinery, offer few unique drug targets, and often mutate rapidly, reducing the effectiveness of antivirals.

b)

Antibiotics are universally effective against viral enzymes.

c)

Viruses do not replicate inside host cells and are easy to target.

d)

All animal viruses have identical replication strategies, making one drug sufficient for all.

67.

Define gene cloning and describe how to clone a gene from a genome using a bacterial plasmid. Which sequence of steps best describes the standard plasmid-based cloning workflow from gene to cloned copies?

a)

Cut plasmid and target DNA with matching restriction enzymes; ligate the gene into the plasmid; transform competent bacteria; select transformants with antibiotic; grow colonies to amplify the cloned gene

b)

Use RNA polymerase to insert the gene into a plasmid; heat-shock cells without selection; pick any colony and assume cloning succeeded

c)

Mix intact genomic DNA with plasmids and incubate; any gene will spontaneously enter the plasmid; plate without antibiotics to avoid selection bias

d)

Electroporate naked genomic DNA into bacteria; the genome integrates into the plasmid during replication without enzymes

68.

Describe the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and explain how this technique can amplify a specific DNA segment from a genome, such as a gene. Which component most directly confers specificity to the segment amplified?

a)

Short DNA primers complementary to sequences flanking the target

b)

Thermostable DNA polymerase that resists denaturation

c)

Magnesium ions that enable polymerase catalysis

d)

dNTPs that provide building blocks for synthesis

69.

Describe how DNA technology can be used to test for human genetic disorders. Which approach is most appropriate for rapidly detecting a known pathogenic point mutation in a patient sample?

a)

PCR amplification followed by allele-specific probe hybridization or sequencing

b)

Light microscopy of blood smears to visualize the mutation directly

c)

Growing the patient’s cells in culture to observe colony morphology

d)

Measuring total DNA concentration with a spectrophotometer

70.

Discuss how DNA profiling can convict or exonerate a criminal suspect. Which statement best explains why short tandem repeat (STR) profiling is powerful in forensic identification?

a)

Multiple independent STR loci vary greatly among individuals, producing a highly distinctive multilocus profile

b)

STRs are located only in coding regions, so they directly reveal a suspect’s phenotype

c)

STR profiles change rapidly within an individual over time, allowing time-of-crime estimation

d)

STR analysis requires whole-genome sequencing, making false matches impossible

71.

Explain the Sanger method of DNA sequencing. Which feature of Sanger sequencing enables determination of the template sequence?

a)

Chain-terminating dideoxynucleotides create length-varied fragments that are separated to read base order

b)

Nanopore current changes are measured as DNA passes through a pore to call bases

c)

Random cloning of fragments followed by restriction mapping reveals sequence

d)

Antibody binding to bases reveals the base identity directly under a microscope

72.

Compare the strengths and weaknesses of information derived from examining an organism’s genome, transcriptome, proteome, metabolome, or microbiome. Which datasets most directly report active cellular processes at the moment of sampling (select all that apply)?

a)

Transcriptome

b)

Proteome

c)

Metabolome

d)

Genome

e)

Microbiome

73.

Compare and contrast the evolutionary theories proposed by Lamarck and Darwin. Which key difference correctly distinguishes the two frameworks?

a)

Lamarck emphasized inheritance of acquired characteristics, whereas Darwin emphasized natural selection acting on heritable variation

b)

Both proposed natural selection as the sole driver, but Lamarck considered it stronger

c)

Darwin argued traits acquired during an organism’s lifetime are inherited, Lamarck rejected this

d)

Lamarck and Darwin both denied any role for heritable variation

74.

Contrast the explanatory power of observing different species in their natural environments with the explanatory power of genomic studies that reveal the genetic basis of differences between those species. Which statement best captures this contrast?

a)

Field observations reveal ecological interactions, behavior, and selection pressures, whereas genomics identifies specific genetic variants and pathways underlying phenotypic differences

b)

Genomics replaces the need for field data because DNA sequences alone reveal all ecological relationships

c)

Field observations mainly document DNA sequence, while genomics measures behavior in the wild

d)

Neither approach provides causal insights; both are purely descriptive

75.

Analyze the genetics of a population using the Hardy–Weinberg model of genetic equilibrium to determine whether a gene locus appears to be undergoing evolutionary change. Which observation suggests the locus is evolving?

a)

Observed genotype frequencies differ significantly from Hardy–Weinberg expectations given the allele frequencies

b)

Population is large with random mating and no selection

c)

Allele frequencies remain constant across generations

d)

No mutation, migration, or drift is detected

76.

Compare and contrast the mechanisms and effects of the five agents of evolutionary change in populations. Which of the following are recognized agents of evolutionary change (select all that apply)?

a)

Mutation

b)

Gene flow (migration)

c)

Genetic drift

d)

Natural selection

e)

Nonrandom mating

77.

Explain why small population size and genetic drift can undermine efforts to conserve endangered species. Which statement best explains this risk?

a)

Drift in small populations accelerates loss of genetic diversity and can fix deleterious alleles, reducing adaptive potential

b)

Small populations always experience stronger natural selection that eliminates harmful alleles

c)

Genetic drift increases heterozygosity and thus guarantees resilience

d)

Conservation success depends only on habitat size, not population genetics

78.

Compare the effects of directional, stabilizing, disruptive, and sexual selection. Which description correctly identifies disruptive selection?

a)

Selection favors extreme phenotypes at both ends and reduces intermediate phenotypes

b)

Selection favors one extreme, shifting the mean

c)

Selection favors intermediate phenotypes, reducing variance

d)

Mate choice leads to differential reproductive success based on traits that attract partners

79.

Describe circumstances under which natural selection can maintain a balanced polymorphism. Which scenario is most consistent with long-term maintenance of multiple alleles at a locus?

a)

Heterozygote advantage maintains both alleles because heterozygotes have the highest fitness

b)

Directional selection consistently favors a single allele across environments

c)

Genetic drift in very large populations increases allele fixation

d)

High mutation rate alone guarantees equal allele frequencies

80.

Compare and contrast three species definitions and identify the advantages and disadvantages of each. Which statement correctly pairs a species concept with a key limitation?

a)

Biological species concept: difficult to apply to asexual organisms and fossils

b)

Morphological species concept: never subjective because all traits are equally informative

c)

Phylogenetic species concept: requires no data on relationships among taxa

d)

Biological species concept: primarily based on shared ecological niche rather than reproductive isolation

81.

Categorize different types of reproductive isolating mechanisms in terms of when they prevent two gene pools from mixing, and describe how they establish reproductive isolation. Which is a prezygotic isolating barrier?

a)

Temporal isolation due to different mating seasons

b)

Hybrid sterility in offspring

c)

Hybrid inviability after fertilization

d)

Hybrid breakdown in later generations

82.

Explain the two stages of allopatric speciation and the circumstances under which it is likely to occur. Which description best captures the typical sequence and setting?

a)

Geographic isolation followed by genetic divergence via drift and/or selection, often in small, isolated populations

b)

Sympatric divergence due to polyploidy, mainly in large, panmictic populations

c)

Hybridization merges populations, then reproductive isolation evolves

d)

Geographic isolation is unnecessary; gene flow promotes speciation

83.

Analyze the evolutionary processes that can promote genetic divergence in allopatric populations and describe how population size affects those processes. Which statement is most accurate?

a)

Smaller populations experience stronger genetic drift, and different environments impose distinct selection, promoting divergence when gene flow is absent

b)

Large populations always diverge faster because drift is stronger

c)

Gene flow between isolated populations accelerates divergence

d)

Population size has no effect on drift or selection

84.

Formulate hypotheses about the circumstances that triggered adaptive radiations and mass extinctions and explain their effect on long-term changes in biodiversity. Which statement best reflects their relationship?

a)

Mass extinctions reduce diversity short term but can create ecological opportunity that triggers adaptive radiations, increasing diversity over time

b)

Adaptive radiations always decrease diversity by eliminating competitors

c)

Mass extinctions permanently reduce diversity with no subsequent recovery

d)

Adaptive radiations occur only when environments remain unchanged

85.

Cite experimental evidence to support the idea that the genetic instructions that induce the formation of important anatomical structures, such as light-sensing organs or appendages, have been conserved over time and are shared among a diverse array of animals. Which finding best supports this claim?

a)

The Pax6/eyeless gene drives eye development across distant taxa; misexpression can induce ectopic eyes

b)

Eye formation requires unique, unrelated genes in each animal lineage

c)

Conserved Hox genes are absent from animals with eyes

d)

Appendage development genes evolve too rapidly to be conserved

86.

Describe the Linnaean system of classification and explain its limitations. Which limitation is commonly cited?

a)

Rank-based hierarchy can obscure evolutionary relationships and may not reflect true phylogeny

b)

It uses DNA sequences for every taxon, making it infallible

c)

It rejects the concept of genera and species entirely

d)

It requires monophyly for all ranks, preventing any misclassification

87.

Analyze a phylogenetic tree for a group of organisms, and describe the evolutionary history it portrays. Which interpretation is correct?

a)

Nodes represent common ancestors; sister taxa share a more recent common ancestor with each other than with more distant taxa

b)

Trees depict a ladder of progress from primitive to advanced forms

c)

Longer branches always mean higher fitness

d)

Tips that are adjacent on the page are always closest relatives regardless of branching

88.

Evaluate whether a group of organisms represents a monophyletic, polyphyletic, or paraphyletic taxon. Which definition correctly matches paraphyletic?

a)

A taxon that includes a common ancestor and some, but not all, of its descendants

b)

A taxon that includes all descendants of a common ancestor

c)

A grouping that combines taxa from multiple unrelated lineages without their most recent common ancestor

d)

A clade defined by unique synapomorphies with complete descendant inclusion

89.

Generate a parsimonious phylogenetic tree using cladistic methods to analyze a matrix of character states in a set of organisms. Which criterion selects the most parsimonious tree?

a)

The tree requiring the fewest evolutionary changes across all characters

b)

The tree with the most characters mapped regardless of change count

c)

The tree with the longest branches visually

d)

The tree that maximizes the number of taxa per clade

90.

Develop a phylogenetic hypothesis that can explain where in an evolutionary lineage a particular trait evolved. Which approach most appropriately infers the origin of the trait on the tree?

a)

Map the trait onto the phylogeny and place its origin on the branch leading to the most recent common ancestor of all taxa that possess the trait, minimizing extra origins and losses

b)

Assign the trait to the earliest diverging tip regardless of distribution

c)

Place the trait’s origin at every node to avoid assumptions

d)

Infer the trait evolved independently in every taxon that has it