wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

RTP 2600 final exam review

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 2hrs 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the major categories of pulmonary function testing?

a)

dynamic flow rates

b)

lung volumes and capacities

c)

diffusion

d)

all the above

2.

What is the primary issue that characterizes obstructive lung diseases?

a)

increased RAW

b)

decreased RAW

c)

reduced lung cL

d)

increased lung cL

3.

What situations would prevent a patient from safely completing PFTs?

a)

a history of COPD

b)

recent cataract surgery

c)

a pt with stable asthma

d)

pre employment health screening

4.

Which device is used specifically for measuring lung volumes rather than airflow?

a)

pneumotachometer

b)

turbine spirometer

c)

water sealed spirometer

d)

ultrasonic flow sensor

5.

What is the main purpose of body plethysmography?

a)

measures all gas contained in the chest

b)

measures only VC

c)

measures only RV

d)

measures inhaled NO

6.

What pattern of airway resistance and flow is typically seen in COPD?

a)

normal RAW and increased lung cL

b)

decreased lung volumes and normal RAW

c)

normal lung volumes and reduced RAW

d)

increased RAW and reduces expiratory flow rates

7.

What PFT results help confirm a diagnosis of restrictive lung disease?

a)

increased lung cL

b)

reduced lung volumes but normal RAW

c)

increased lung volumes and low RAW

d)

all the above

8.

How should a clinician respond when a patient cannot follow instructions during testing?

a)

proceed with testing and estimate the results

b)

delay testing and consult with the physician

c)

perform a modified version of the test

d)

substitute the PFTs with a CXR

9.

FEV1/FVC is the best indicator of what?

a)

obstructive disease

b)

restrictive disease

10.

An FEV1/FVC less than what confirms obstruction?

a)

<40%

b)

<50%

c)

<60%

d)

<70%

11.

What concerns arise when a patient has a significantly reduced FVC before surgery?

a)

immediate need for bronchodilator therapy

b)

increased risk of post op pulmonary complications

c)

increased likelihood of a cardiac condition

d)

no significant concern

12.

Which measurement reflects how quickly the lungs can move a large amount of air?

a)

FVC

b)

VT

c)

IRV

d)

FRC

13.

How many valid FVC attempts must be recorded for acceptable results?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

14.

  • What measurement reflects the amount of air exhaled in the first second of a forced breath?

a)

MVV

b)

FRC

c)

FEV1

d)

PERF

15.

  • Which values decrease in obstruction but remain normal in restriction?

a)

IRV

b)

FEV1

c)

RV

d)

FEV1/FVC

16.

A decreased FEV₁ and a reduced FEV₁/FVC ratio indicate what?

a)

obstructive disease

b)

restrictive disease

17.

What test requires breathing as quickly and deeply as possible for 12 seconds?

a)

FVC

b)

MVV

c)

DLCO

d)

SVC

18.

What does a low MVV suggest about lung mechanics or airway resistance?

a)

normal lung function

b)

moderate to severe obstructive lung disease

c)

mild restrictive lung disease

d)

increased RAW with normal lung volumes

19.

what is a normal MVV for the average healthy male?

a)

50-80 L/min

b)

90-120 L/min

c)

160-180L/min

d)

200-220 L/min

20.

What is a typical inspiratory reserve volume for an adult?

a)

500 mL

b)

1,200 mL

c)

3,100 mL

d)

4,800 mL

21.

  • Which lung volume remains in the lungs even after maximum exhalation?

a)

FRC

b)

TLC

c)

RV

d)

VC

22.

  • Which capacity represents the total amount of air the lungs can hold?

a)

TLC

b)

VC

c)

FRC

d)

IC

23.

Which lung volumes tend to increase in obstructive diseases due to air trapping? Select all that apply

a)

RV

b)

VT

c)

FRC

d)

IRV

24.

what does increased FRC and RV suggest?

a)

obstruction

b)

restriction

25.

Which volumes decrease in restrictive conditions such as scoliosis or pulmonary fibrosis? Select all that apply

a)

decreased VC

b)

decreased RV

c)

increased VC

d)

increased TLC

26.

What does an elevated RV/TLC percentage suggest about lung mechanics?

a)

obstructive disease

b)

restrictive disease

27.

With restrictive lung disease, would volumes and capacities be increased or decreased?

a)

decreased

b)

increased

c)

normal

28.

What criteria define a significant improvement after bronchodilator use?

a)

5% increase in FEV1

b)

A 10% increase in FVC

c)

greater than 12% in FEV1 or FVC and at least a 200mL increase in FEV1

d)

no significant change in FEV1

29.

In what situations is a bronchial challenge helpful?

a)

confirming a PE

b)

assessing lung cancer progression

c)

identifying airway hyper responsiveness

d)

measuring ABGs

30.

  • How much of a drop in FEV₁ indicates a positive methacholine response?

a)

a decrease in FEV1 of 10% or more

b)

a decrease in FEV 1 of 20% or more

c)

increase in FVC by 15%

d)

increase in TLC by 12%

31.

Which lung volume test uses Boyle’s law?

a)

Plethysomography

b)

He dilution

c)

Nitrogen washout

d)

single-breath technique

32.

  • What patient conditions make methacholine testing unsafe? Select all that apply

a)

severe airflow obstruction (< 50%)

b)

recent MI

c)

well-controlled asthma

d)

known aortic aneurysm

33.

  • Which medications must be withheld prior to bronchial challenge testing?

a)

beta 2 agonist

b)

cromolyn sodium

c)

caffeine

d)

methylxanthines

34.

  • Why is a saline baseline inhalation performed first?

a)

to induce bronchospasm

b)

to establish the control level

c)

reverse hyper responsiveness

d)

to test the nebulizer

35.

  • What should be done when a patient shows a 20%+ decrease in FEV₁ during methacholine testing?

a)

stop the test and give a bronchodilator

b)

proceed to the next dose

c)

repeat the current dose

d)

switch to histamine challenge testing

36.

A 10 y.o child is referred for bronchial challenge testing. Which of the following is true?

a)

methacholine is the best choice for a child

b)

the child is too young for methacholine testing

c)

histamine challenge is more appropriate for this pt

d)

an exercise challenge must be performed

37.

  • What does a reaction occurring hours after antigen exposure represent?

a)

a false positive reaction

b)

a late reaction

c)

an immediate reaction

d)

none of the above

38.

  • Why might nitrogen washout take longer in patients with obstructive disease?

a)

increased airway obstruction leads to prolonged nitrogen elimination

b)

the test was performed incorrectly

c)

the pt has a restrictive lung disease

d)

this is normal lung function

39.

  • Why does DLCO decrease in emphysema?

a)

increased alveolar surface area

b)

loss of alveolar surface area

c)

thickened ACM

d)

increased o2 diffusion

40.

  • Why is DLCO reduced in pulmonary fibrosis?

a)

increased lung cL

b)

a thickened ACM

c)

increased RAW

d)

increased RV

41.

What conditions can cause DLCO to increase

a)

Emphysema

b)

PE

c)

Polycythemia

d)

pulmonary fibrosis

42.

  • What is considered a normal percentage for FEV1/FVC?

a)

less than 50%

b)

60-70%

c)

83% or greater

d)

95-100%

43.

  • Which measurement best assesses small-airway function?

a)

PEFR

b)

FEV1

c)

FEF 25-75%

d)

FRC

44.

  • What does the “yellow zone” in personal peak flow indicate?

a)

immediate danger, seek emergency care

b)

asthma is stable with no intervention needed

c)

asthma is worsening, action is required to prevent an attack

d)

lung function is improving

45.

  • Why does alveolar ventilation increase during physical activity?

a)

increased Hbg concentration

b)

decreased Vt

c)

increased respiratory muscle activity and tidal volume

d)

decreased cardiac output

46.

  • How much does alveolar ventilation typically rise from rest to maximal exertion?

a)

6-30 L/min

b)

6-120 L/min

c)

6-60 L/min

d)

6-200 L/min

47.

  • Which test best determines a patient’s functional capacity and future health risk?

a)

CPET

b)

ABG analysis

c)

6MWT

d)

PFTs

48.

  • How do you calculate maximum heart rate from age?

a)

220-age

b)

220 x age

c)

220 + age

d)

220/ age

49.

  • What physiologic adaptations occur with regular aerobic conditioning? Select all that apply

a)

increased VO2 max

b)

lower resting HR

c)

improved muscle oxygen utilization

d)

decreased SV

50.

  • What does a reduced peak VO₂ and early anaerobic threshold indicate?

a)

normal aerobic capacity

b)

pulmonary restriction

c)

cardiovascular limitation

d)

respiratory muscle fatigue

51.

  • Why do pH and PaCO₂ fall during intense activity?

a)

PE

b)

lactic acidosis from intense exertion

c)

respiratory alkalosis

d)

metabolic alakalosis

52.

  • What does reduced walking distance on a 6MWT suggest?

a)

reduced functional capacity

b)

good exercise tolerance

c)

risk of acute respiratory failure

d)

need for bronchodilator adjustment

53.

  • Why does DLCO rise significantly during maximal exercise?

a)

hyperinflation

b)

enhanced alveolar capillary gas exchange

c)

hypoventilation

d)

reduced perfusion

54.

Which components should be included in pulmonary rehabilitation?

a)

smoking cessation support and immunization updates

b)

o2 therapy if needed

c)

proper hydration

d)

all the above

55.

True or false: Methacholine is a direct stimulant in bronchial challenge testing?

a)

true

b)

false

56.

what is polysomnography?

a)

a sleep study using multiple physiologic measurements

b)

measure RR during REM sleep

c)

it only evaluates muscle tone

d)

it analyzed REM sleep disorders only

57.

  • How much of sleep is normally spent in Stage N2 in the young adult?

a)

3-8%

b)

15-20%

c)

20-30%

d)

45-55%

58.

  • Which sensor detects eye movements for REM identification?

a)

EOG

b)

EEG

c)

EMG

d)

ECG

59.

  • What muscular changes occur during REM sleep?

a)

deep skeletal muscle activity is present

b)

diaphragm muscles stop working

c)

EEG shows slow-wave patterns

d)

most skeletal muscles are temporarily paralyzed

60.

  • What is the purpose of the Maintenance of Wakefulness Test (MWT)?

a)

evaluates excessive daytime sleepiness

b)

diagnose periodic limb movement disorder

c)

analyze REM rebound

d)

determine nighttime sleep efficiency

61.

  • What test should follow an inconclusive overnight sleep study?

a)

CPET

b)

BiPAP titration

c)

ECG

d)

multiple sleep latency test (MSLT)

62.

  • True or false: A split-night study consists of diagnosis in the first night and therapeutic intervention the second night

a)

true

b)

false

63.

  • What condition is most likely indicated by REM in multiple MSLT nap trials?

a)

OSA

b)

narcolepsy

c)

periodic limb movement disorder

d)

insomnia

64.

  • Which sleep stage is most involved in physical and hormonal restoration?

a)

REM

b)

N1

c)

N2

d)

N3

65.

  • How does aging affect sleep patterns?

a)

increased REM sleep

b)

decreased awakenings

c)

increased sleep fragmentation

d)

increased stage N3

66.

  • What role does non-REM sleep have in healing and recovery?

a)

memory and emotion

b)

decreases 02 demand in the brain

c)

promotes physical growth and healing

d)

eliminates REM related disorders

67.

  • What disorder is marked by sudden episodes of falling asleep?

a)

hypersomnia

b)

narcolepsy

c)

sleep apnea

d)

insomnia

68.

  • Which disorder is linked to iron deficiency?

a)

narcolepsy

b)

central sleep apnea

c)

REM disorder

d)

restless leg syndrome

69.

  • How does body temperature normally change during non-REM sleep?

a)

increases slightly

b)

decreased by 1-2 degrees Celsius

c)

remains constant

d)

fluctuates based on environment

70.

  • What lifestyle measures can help treat sleep apnea?

a)

UPPP

b)

CPAP

c)

hypo glossopharyngeal stimulation

d)

positional therapy

71.

  • Which sleep disorder is more likely after cerebral trauma?

a)

restless leg syndrome

b)

chronic insomnia

c)

non-hereditary narcolepsy

d)

central sleep apnea

72.

  • What condition causes nighttime tingling with the urge to move the legs?

a)

hypersomnia

b)

restless leg syndrome

c)

cataplexy

d)

OSA

73.

  • Which sleep stage is commonly reduced in older adults with insomnia?

a)

N3

b)

REM

c)

N1

d)

N2

74.

Which medications may suppress REM and N3? sleep

a)

antihistamines

b)

corticosteroids

c)

hypnotics

d)

diurectics

75.

  • What services are typically delivered in post acute respiratory care?

a)

ER trauma care

b)

long-term MV

c)

organ transplant coordination

d)

advance radiologic imaging

76.

  • Which organization accredits subacute facilities?

a)

CDC

b)

the joint commission

c)

American lung association

d)

American medical association

77.

  • Which government agency regulates and funds alternative care settings?

a)

CMS

b)

FDA

c)

OSHA

d)

NIH

78.

  • What defines subacute care centers?

a)

they only treat terminally ill pts

b)

they provide inpatient care for stable pts requiring complex treatment

c)

they are exclusively outpatient clinics only

d)

they only serve pediatric populations

79.

  • Which conditions are targeted under CMS readmission reduction penalties?

a)

asthma

b)

COPD

c)

diabetes

d)

TB

80.

  • What level of resources should respiratory therapists expect in assisted living?

a)

minimal paperwork and administrative tasks

b)

extensive- hospital level technology and equipment

c)

direct emergency supervision at all times

d)

fewer resources and a more independent work environment

81.

  • What must be arranged before discharging a patient on oxygen?

a)

the patient is transferred by ambulance

b)

patient owns their own pulse ox

c)

the home meets safety standards and DME is arranged

d)

patient completes a 6MWT

82.

  • Which planning strategies reduce rehospitalization for COPD patients?

a)

coordinating DME delivery only

b)

early identification of risks and interdisciplinary planning

c)

recommending outpatient PT

d)

providing a prescription and sending them home

83.

  • What responsibilities fall under DME suppliers?

a)

diagnosing respiratory conditions

b)

providing equipment, insurance processing and follow-up

c)

replacing hospital respiratory staff

d)

approving the patients discharge

84.

What factor has negatively impacted respiratory care services in alternative sites due to cost constraints?

a)

increase in insurance coverage

b)

DMEPOS competitive bidding program

c)

physician shortages

d)

advances in portable ventilators

85.

  • What combined approach best supports a COPD patient with oxygen needs and sleep issues?

a)

arrange for a sleep test, coordinate with a DME provider, and ensure interdisciplinary discharge planning

b)

prescribe sleeping pills and delay further evolutions until follow-up

c)

schedule a CPET and discontinue 02 therapy to test exercise tolerance

d)

recommend early bedtime and monitor progress remotely

86.

  • What sequence of testing helps confirm exercise-induced asthma with fatigue when resting PFTs are normal?

a)

6MWT only

b)

ABG at rest and CXR

c)

bronchoprovocation with methacholine, followed by CPET and a sleep study if needed

d)

DLCO testing and MVV

Similar Resources on Wayground

Class Etiquettes

90 questions

Class Etiquettes

quiz

Worksheet

•

University