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PSY1102-FINAL

Total questions: 58

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which sequence correctly lists the three stages of prenatal development?

a)

Embryo → Fetus → Zygote

b)

Zygote → Embryo → Fetus

c)

Fetus → Embryo → Zygote

d)

Blastocyst → Fetus → Embryo

2.

The period of the zygote ends when:

a)

The neural tube forms

b)

Implantation in the uterine wall occurs

c)

All major organs are fully developed

d)

The fetus begins to move

3.

A defining characteristic of the embryonic period is:

a)

Cell division without specialization

b)

Formation of major organs and body structures

c)

The baby flipping

d)

The first detectable brain activity

4.

Teratogens are defined as:

a)

Genetic mutations

b)

Nutrients required for organ growth

c)

Environmental agents that harm prenatal development

d)

Protective factors in pregnancy

5.

Prenatal exposure to alcohol is most strongly associated with:

a)

Elevated birth weight

b)

Enhanced cognitive performance

c)

Early motor development

d)

Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorders

6.

Assimilation occurs when:

a)

Adjusts old schemas to fit new information

b)

Uses existing schemas to interpret new information

c)

Abandons a schema entirely

d)

Fails to achieve cognitive balance

7.

Piaget’s Stages of Cognitive Development

Which stage involves logical reasoning about concrete events?

a)

Sensorimotor

b)

Preoperational

c)

Concrete operational

d)

Formal operational

8.

Mary Ainsworth is known for studying…

a)

Memory development

b)

Attachment styles

c)

Language acquisition

d)

Prenatal growth

9.
  • According to Bowlby, the primary function of attachment is to:

a)
  1. Promote early cognitive development through social imitation

b)
  1. Ensure proximity to a caregiver who provides safety and protection

c)
  1. Facilitate the formation of peer relationships in early childhood

d)
  1. Encourage independence by reducing reliance on caregivers

10.

Identity moratorium is MOST associated with…

a)

Exploration of values and goals

b)

Motor coordination

c)

Loss and confusion

d)

Confidence and knowledge of self

11.

A key feature of Alzheimer’s disease is…

a)

Improved problem-solving

b)

Rapid vision improvement

c)

Increased motor speed

d)

Memory loss and cognitive decline

12.

Which method follows the same individuals over long periods?

a)

Cross-sectional

b)

Experimental

c)

Longitudinal

d)

Survey

13.

The Flynn Effect refers to…

a)

Rising average IQ scores over time

b)

Declining intelligence over generations

c)

Eliminating test bias

d)

A measure of emotional control

14.

Binet and Simon developed a test to…

a)

Measure personality

b)

Predict moral behavior

c)

Test athletic ability

d)

Identify children needing educational support

15.

Which researcher is known for early attempts to measure intelligence?

a)

Maslow

b)

Galton

c)

Harlow

d)

Rogers

16.

A major concern in intelligence testing is…

a)

Cultural bias

b)

Perfect fairness

c)

No differences across populations

d)

Everyone interprets items the same

17.

Spearman proposed that intelligence is based on…

a)

Creative ability

b)

Multiple unrelated abilities

c)

Emotional awareness

d)

A general mental ability (g)

18.

According to Carl Rogers, well‑being depends on congruence. This means...

a)
  1. Receiving consistent reinforcement from the environment

b)
  1. Mastering one's area of expertise

c)
  1. Reducing emotional expression to maintain stability

d)

Alignment between the real and ideal self

19.

Sofia has to prepare an important presentation. Instead of panicking, she tells herself: “I’ve already succeeded in difficult presentations; I’m capable of doing well on this one.”
Which option illustrates the self‑system according to Bandura?

a)
  • Superego

b)

Confidence

c)

Self-efficacy

d)

Self-fulfilling prophecy

20.

Emotional intelligence involves…

a)

High IQ

b)

Brain size

c)

Managing and understanding emotions

d)

Solving math problems

21.

Gardner’s theory includes…

a)

Mathematical reasoning

b)

Spatial and musical intelligence

c)

Statistical and routine intelligence

d)

Academic and emotional intelligence

22.
  • Lucas fails an exam and says, “Next time, I’m going to take control of my studies and prepare better.”
    According to Rotter, which concept is illustrated here?

a)

External locus of control

b)

Learned helplessness

c)

Defensive attribution

d)

Internal locus of control

23.
  • The interactionist perspective argues that intelligence results from:

a)
  1. Fixed hereditary factors that operate independently of experience

b)
  1. Genetic predispositions interacting with environmental influences

c)
  1. Environmental stimulation that can fully compensate for biological limitations

d)
  1. Social reinforcement shaping cognitive abilities through conditioning alone

24.

Personality is best defined as:

a)

Inherited traits that remain unchanged across the lifespan

b)

Enduring patterns of thoughts, emotions, and behaviors

c)
  1. Behaviors that individuals display only in socially demanding situations

d)
  1. Thoughts and emotions shaped entirely by immediate context

25.

Freud believed personality is shaped mainly by:

a)

Conscious choices

b)

Cultural values and our true intentions

c)

Adult learning and affirmation of self

d)

Childhood conflicts and unconscious motives

26.

Which structure operates on the pleasure principle?

a)

Ego

b)

Superego

c)

Id

d)

Conscious mind

27.

According to Rogers, people grow best when they receive…

a)

Punishment

b)

Social praise

c)

Unconditional positive regard

d)

Peer approval

28.

Bandura’s self-system emphasizes:

a)

Biological instincts

b)

Self-efficacy and reciprocal determinism

c)

Dream interpretation

d)

The unconscious mind

29.

Rotter’s concept of locus of control refers to:

a)

Attribution of success to internal traits and failure to external causes

b)

Control on regulation of emotions and feelings on a daily basis

c)

Control of self over unconscious wants

d)

Beliefs about control over life outcomes, whether internal or external

30.

Behavioral genetics studies…

a)

How childhood shapes personality

b)

How genes and environment influence personality

c)

How society and friends help to create personality

d)

How cultural expectations develop personality

31.

The evolutionary perspective says personality traits exist because they…

a)

Allow individuals for cultural conformity

b)
  1. Develop primarily through observational learning

c)

Increased survival or reproduction

d)
  1. Reflect adaptations to environments

32.

Eysenck’s trait theory includes which factor?

a)

Psychoticism

b)

Openness

c)

Agreeableness

d)

Creativity

33.

The Five-Factor Model includes…

a)

Openness

b)

Intelligence

c)

Motivation

d)

Humor

34.

Social psychology studies…

a)

Internal organs

b)

How people think, feel, and act in social contexts

c)

How people speak, share and learn from one another

d)

How genetics affects people's feelings

35.

Attribution theory focuses on how people…

a)

Form habits

b)

Explain causes of behavior

c)

Remember information

d)

Learn language

36.

A self-fulfilling prophecy occurs when:

a)
  1. An expectation influences behavior in a way that prevents the expected outcome

b)

People who refuse to change behavior

c)

A belief leads to behavior that makes the belief come true

d)

Group pressure forces conformity

37.

Milgram’s experiments demonstrated…

a)

People ALWAYS obey authority

b)

People obey authority even when harming others

c)

People refuse to shock strangers

d)

People always rebel

38.

Attitudes include…

a)

Behavior and feelings

b)

Thoughts, opinions and feelings

c)

Only personal opinions

d)

Thoughts, feelings and behaviors

39.

Cognitive dissonance occurs when…

a)

Beliefs and behaviors conflict

b)

Memory improves

c)
  1. Stress is due to external pressure rather than internal conflict

d)

Stress decreases

40.

Interpersonal attraction is influenced by…

a)
  1. Opposing attitudes that create cognitive stimulation

b)

Proximity, similarity and attractiveness

c)

Only physical appearance and competition

d)
  1. Random chance more than any psychological factor

41.

Prosocial behavior refers to…

a)

Harming others

b)

Ignoring others

c)

Helping others

d)

Creating opportunities

42.

What is considered “abnormal” behavior in psychology?

a)

Anything uncommon

b)

Deviance, deranged, discontinued, danger

c)

Difference, distress, dangerous, delirious

d)

Deviance, distress, dysfunction, danger

43.

A psychological disorder is defined as…

a)

Behavior that violates social norms, regardless of impact

b)
  1. A pattern of thoughts or behaviors that is unusual but still adaptive

c)

A significant disturbance in thoughts, feelings, or behaviors

d)

Everyday stress and mental load

44.

Why is word choice important when discussing mental health?

a)

To reduce stigma and promote accuracy

b)

To avoid scientific terms

c)

To make disorders sound a little less worse

d)

To make it easier to understand

45.

Neurodevelopmental disorders usually appear…

a)

Only in old age

b)

During childhood

c)

After puberty

d)

Only in adulthood

46.

Autism Spectrum Disorder is characterized by…

a)

Aggression and delusions

b)

Hallucinations

c)

Social communication deficits and repetitive behaviors

d)

Memory loss

47.

Positive symptoms of schizophrenia include…

a)

Memory loss

b)

Low mood

c)

Lack of motivation

d)

Hallucinations and delusions

48.

PTSD often involves…

a)

Euphoric mood followed by uncontrollable anger

b)

Excessive sleep

c)

Intrusive memories, avoidance, hypervigilance

d)

Improved concentration

49.

Factitious disorder involves…

a)

Unintentional symptoms

b)

Delusions about illness

c)

Intentionally producing symptoms for attention

d)

Lying for fun about something serious with no real reason

50.

Which approach focuses on changing maladaptive thoughts?

a)

Psychodynamic

b)

Cognitive-behavioral

c)

Humanistic

d)

Biological

51.

Psychopharmacotherapy refers to:

a)

Medication used to treat disorders

b)

Brain stimulation therapy

c)

Talk therapy

d)

Psychoanalysis

52.

Stress is best described as:

a)
  1. Negative emotion that occurs during daily life

b)

A response to perceived threats or challenges

c)
  1. A purely physical reaction to environmental threats

d)
  1. A response caused only by major life‑changing events

53.

Which type of stress can be beneficial and motivating?

a)

Distress

b)

Chronic stress

c)

Traumatic stress

d)

Eustress

54.

Stressors are:

a)

Psychological disorders

b)

Genetic abnormalities

c)

Events that trigger a stress response

d)

Hormones

55.

The amygdala is key in stress because it:

a)

Rapidly detects threats and triggers fear responses

b)
  1. Suppresses emotional responses to prevent overactivation

c)
  1. Regulates long‑term hormonal balance in the endocrine system

d)
  1. Interprets stressors only after the cortex has fully analyzed them

56.

Which hormone is most associated with long-term stress?

a)

Serotonin

b)

Dopamine

c)

Cortisol

d)

Insulin

57.

The diathesis-stress model argues that:

a)

Disorders result only from environment

b)

Vulnerability + stress = risk of disorder

c)

Genetics alone determine outcomes

d)

Stress has no effect

58.

Chronic stress accelerates aging partly by:

a)

Shortening telomeres

b)

Lengthening telomeres

c)

Strengthening bones

d)

Increasing muscle mass