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Review Chemistry A Level (Nov 2025)

Total questions: 102

Worksheet time: 4hrs 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Chemical Formula used for Iron (III) oxide is

a)

FeO

b)

Fe2O3

c)

FeSo4

2.

Na2CO3 represents

a)

Sodium bicarbonate

b)

Sodium carbonate

c)

Sodium Chloride

d)

Calcium Carbonate

3.

Chemical formula of copper sulfate

a)

CuSO4

b)

Cu2SO4

c)

CuSO3

d)

none of these

4.

What is the IUPAC name of N2O3?

a)

Nitrogen trioxide

b)

Dinitrogen oxide

c)

Dinitrogen trioxide

d)

Nitrogen oxide

5.

A compound consists of 72.2% magnesium(Mg) and 27.8% nitrogen(N) by mass. What is the empirical formula?

[RAM: N = 14, Mg = 24]

a)

Mg4N3

b)

MgN2

c)

Mg3N2

d)

MgN

6.
What is the correct formula for the compound, lithium oxide?
a)
LiO
b)
Li2O
c)
LiO2
d)
Li2O2
7.

The correct chemical name of Cu(OH)2 is

a)

copper hydroxide

b)

copper(I) hydroxide

c)

copper(II) hydroxide

d)

cupric hydroxide

8.
Which pair has the same empirical formula?
a)
NaCrO4 and Na2Cr2O7
b)
C2H4O2 and C6H12O6
c)
C3H6O3 and C2H6O2
d)
CH4 and C2H6
9.
Using the following equation:
Fe2O3(s) + 3H2(g) → 2Fe(s) + 3H2O(l)
How many moles of iron can be made from  6 moles H2? 
a)
4 moles Fe
b)
6 moles Fe
c)
9 moles Fe
d)
2 moles Fe
10.

The combustion of propane is given by the equation:

C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) ==> 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(l)

What volume of carbon dioxide in dm3 is formed by burning 30 dm3 of propane?

a)

50

b)

60

c)

90

d)

150

11.

Determine the mass of calcium hydroxide produced when calcium carbide reacts with 0.64 g of water according to the following equation

CaC2 + 2H2O --> Ca(OH)2 + C2H2

[RAM: H = 1, C = 12, O = 16, Ca = 40]

a)

10.31 g Ca(OH)2

b)

41.31 g Ca(OH)2

c)

1.32 g Ca(OH)2

d)

31 g Ca(OH)2

12.

How many moles of nitrogen gas are in 135 dm3 of nitrogen gas at Standard Temperature and Pressure (STP)?

[Molar volume of gas at STP = 22.4 dm3 mol-1]

a)

9.64 moles of N2

b)

5.53 moles of N2

c)

6.03 moles of N2

d)

4.82 moles of N2

13.

Fill in the blank space to balance the chemical equation.

2KI + ____Cl2 → 2KCl + I2

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

14.

Which of the following shows the balanced chemical equation? (Kelantan 2020, Q20)

a)

H2O2 --> 2H2O + O2

b)

2NaOH + H2SO4 --> Na2SO4 + H2O

c)

C3H8 + 5O2 --> 3CO2 + 4H2O

d)

HNO3 + CaCO3 --> Ca(NO3)2 + CO2 + H2O

15.

Diagram shows a box of aspirin which can relieve fever and pain. If the molecular formula of aspirin is C9HXO4, determine the value of x. (SPMRSM 2020, Q20)

(a)  

16.

The molecular formula of sodium nitrate and magnesium chloride are NaNO3 and MgCl2 respectively. What is the molecular formula of magnesium nitrate? (Penang 2020, Q2)

a)

MgNO2

b)

Mg(NO3)2

c)

Mg2NO3

d)

Mg2(NO2)3

17.

Which of the following gases contains 0.4 mol of atoms at room temperature and pressure?

[1 mol of gas occupies the volume of 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure] (Perak, Q4)

a)

4.8 dm3 He

b)

4.8 dm3 H2

c)

4.8 dm3 SO3

d)

4.8 dm3 CO2

18.

A compound with formula XCO3 has a relative formula mass of 125. What is the relative atomic mass of X? [Relative atomic mass of C = 12 and O = 16] (Perlis 2020, Q21)

a)

24

b)

40

c)

59

d)

65

19.

Calculate the volume of carbon dioxide gas produced for a complete combustion of 30 g of ethane gas at STP. [Relative atomic mass: H = 1, C = 12, 1 molar volume 22.4 dm3 mol-1 at STP] (Melaka 2020, Q44)

a)

22.4 dm3

b)

44.8 dm3

c)

67.2 dm3

d)

89.6 dm3

20.

35.0 mL of a solution is diluted to a final volume of 62.0 mL. The diluted solution has a concentration of 1.65 mol/L. What was the concentration of the original solution?

a)

1.56 mol/dm3

b)

1.96 mol/dm3

c)

3.16 mol/dm3

d)

2.92 mol/dm3

21.
Given the following reaction, 2 NaClO3 (s) --> 2NaCl (s) +3 O2 (g)  12.00 moles of NaClO3 will produce how many grams of O2?
a)
256 g of O2
b)
576 g of O2
c)
288 g O2
22.
CH4 + 2 O2 → CO2 + 2 H2O
How many moles of carbon dioxide are produced from the combustion of 110 g of CH4?
a)
13.7 mol
b)
2.75 mol
c)
6.11 mol
d)
6.85 mol
23.
2Al + 3H2SO4 -> Al2(SO4)3 + 3H2
How many grams of aluminum sulfate would be formed if 250g H2SO4 completely reacted with aluminum?
a)
0.85 g
b)
290 g
c)
450 g
d)
870 g
24.
2Al + 3H2SO4 -> Al2(SO4)3 + 3H2
How many grams of aluminum sulfate would be formed if 250g H2SO4 completely reacted with aluminum?
a)
0.85 g
b)
290 g
c)
450 g
d)
870 g
25.
Fe2O3 + 3H2 → 2Fe + 3H2O
About how many grams of H2O will be produced from 150 grams of Fe2O3? 
a)
50 grams H2O
b)
60 grams H2O
c)
5000 grams H2O
d)
6000 grams H2O
26.
A 15.67 g sample of a hydrate of magnesium carbonate was heated to drive off the water. The mass was reduced to 7.58 g. What is the formula of the hydrate?
a)
MgCO3 · 5H2O
b)
MgCO3 · 4H2O
c)
MgCO3 · 6H2O
d)
MgCO3 · 1H2O
27.

A student calculated the number of moles of methane (CH4) present in a 100g sample of a gaseous mixture. If the student determined that there’s 0.6 moles of methane present in the sample, what is the percent composition of methane in the sample?

a)

0.096%

b)

9.6%

c)

0.9%

d)

90%

28.

What is the empirical formula of a compound that is 81.82% carbon and 18.18% hydrogen?

a)

C3H8

b)

CH4

c)

C2H2

d)

C4H10

29.
Cl2 + 2 KBr → Br2 + 2 KCl
How many grams of potassium chloride can be produced from 356 g of chlorine and 356 g of potassium bromide?
a)
749 g
b)
223 g
c)
479 g
d)
814 g
30.

Caproic acid, which is responsible for the foul odor of dirty socks, is composed of C, H, and O atoms. Combustion of a 0.225-g sample of this compound produces 0.512 g CO2 and 0.209 g H2O. What is the empirical formula of caproic acid?

a)

CH2O

b)

C2H2O

c)

C3H6O

d)

C3H4O2

31.

What is the limiting reactant if 10 moles of NH3 react with 30.0 moles of NO?

4NH3+ 6NO --> 5N2 + 6H2O

a)

NH3

b)

NO

c)

N2

d)

water

32.

In a lab, a scientist calculates that he should produce 12.3 grams of product in his experiment. When he is finished collecting his product, it weighs 10.1 grams. What is his percent yield?

a)
82%
b)
0.82%
c)
10.1 %
d)
100%
33.
When does a chemical reaction stop?
a)
When the lab is finished
b)
When the excess reactant is used up
c)
When the limiting reactant is used up
d)
Chemical reactions never stop
34.
Mole ratios are obtained from the
a)
balanced chemical equation
b)
periodic table
c)
molar mass
35.
What is a Limiting Reagent?
a)
speeds up a reaction
b)
what you run out of first
c)
what you have left over
d)
slows down a reaction
36.
For the reaction represented by the equation 2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2, how many grams of hydrogen are produced is 120. g of sodium and 80. g of water are available?
a)
4.5 g
b)
200 g
c)
80. g
d)
45 g
37.
The graph above shows the ionization energy values as the elements are arranged on the periodic table. Which conclusion cannot be drawn from the graph?
a)
The ionization energy drops significantly as you move down a group because the valence electrons are in a shell further from the nucleus.
b)
The ionization energy increases gradually as you move right across a period because the valence electrons are in a shell further from the nucleus.
c)
The ionization energy increases gradually as you move right across a period because you are adding more protons.
d)
The ionization energy increases when the valence electrons are more attracted to the nucleus.
38.
 After the atom is ionised, it then requires more energy to remove a second electron because the second electronis nearer the nucleus.
a)
False
b)
True
c)
Not sure
39.

When going down a group, the atomic size increases so the first IE __________.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

constant

d)

I am not sure

40.

When across a period, the atomic size decreases so the first IE ___________.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

constant

d)

i am not sure

41.

Four successive ionisation energies (IE) of element E are shown.

Element E is in Period 3 of the Periodic Table.

In which group of the Periodic Table is E?

a)

14

b)

15

c)

16

d)

17

42.

For the element sulfur, which pair of ionisation energies has the largest difference between them?

a)

third and four ionisation energies

b)

fourth and fifth ionisation energies

c)

fifth and sixth ionisation energies

d)

sixth and seventh ionisation energies

43.

Which of these elements has the highest fifth ionisation energy?

a)

C

b)

N

c)

P

d)

Si

44.

The fifth to eighth ionisation energies of four elements in Period 3 of the Periodic Table are shown.

Which row refers to chlorine?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

45.

Which of the following electron configurations gives rise to the largest increase between the second and third ionisation energies?

a)

1s2 2s2 2p2

b)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2

d)

1s2 2s2 2p1

46.

Which element can have the following ionization energies: 250, 500, 2500, 2800?

a)

K

b)

Mg

c)

O

d)

F

47.
What electron configuration matches an oxygen atom?
a)
1s22s22p63s2, 3p64s23d104p5
b)
1s22s22p4
c)
1s22s22p6
d)
1s22s22p63s23p64s23d1
48.
Which electron configuration belongs to Chlorine (Cl)?
a)
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5
b)
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6
c)
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p7
49.

If an element is said to have an outermost electronic configuration of ns2np3, it is in what group in the periodic table?

a)

a) Group 3A

b)

b) Group 4A

c)

c) Group 5A

d)

d) Group 7A

50.

Rubidium has two naturally occurring isotopes, 85Rb (relative mass 84.9118 amu) and 87Rb (relative mass 86.9092 amu). The abundance of 87Rb is 27.8%, If rubidium has an average atomic mass of 85.47 amu, what is the % abundance of 85Rb (in percent)?

a)

27.9%

b)

72.1%

c)

74.63%

d)

34.29%

51.

An element has three isotopes. Given the abundances and relative masses, calculate the average atomic mass and determine (from the periodic table) which element it is.


Abundances | Relative masses

0.005% | 234.04 amu

0.720% | 235.04 amu

99.275% | 238.05 amu

a)

Uranium (#92, Atomic Mass: 238.03 amu)

b)

Fluorine (#9, Atomic Mass: 19.00 amu)

c)

Mercury (#89, Atomic Mass: 200.59 amu)

d)

Polonium (#84 209 amu)

52.
Four isotopes of lead include lead-204, lead-206, lead-207, and lead-208.  The average atomic mass of lead is 207.2.  Which isotope of lead is likely to be the most abundant.
a)
204
b)
206
c)
207
d)
208
53.

Why is the ionisation energy of sodium lower than that of magnesium, even though both are metals in the same period?

4 lines
54.

An element E has 2 electrons in its outermost shell and belongs to period 3. Predict: (i) Its group number (ii) Nature of oxide it forms (iii) Its metallic or non-metallic character

4 lines
55.

The atomic numbers of four elements A = 3, B = 7, C = 10, and D = 12. (a) Identify the group and period of element B. (b) Which elements are likely to form ionic compounds? (c) Arrange the elements in increasing order of metallic character. (d) Which of these elements has a complete octet in the ground state? (e) Justify your answer using their electronic configurations.

4 lines
56.

The elements X, Y, and Z belong to the same period of the Modern Periodic Table. X is a metal, Y is a metalloid, and Z is a non-metal. (a) Write the trend in their metallic character across the period. (b) Which of them will form a cation and why? (c) Which one has the highest ionisation energy? (d) Predict the nature of their oxides. (e) What kind of bond is expected between X and Z?

4 lines
57.

An ion X has 8 protons, 8 neutrons and 10 electrons.

An ion Y has 11 protons, 9 neutrons and 10 electrons.

What is the formula of the ionic compound formed by ion X and Y?

a)

XY

b)

X2YX_2Y  

c)

XY2XY_2  

d)

X2Y2X_2Y_2  

58.

What is the formula of ammonium phosphate?

a)

(NH3)3PO4

b)

(NH4)3PO4

c)

(NH4)2PO4

d)

(NH3)2PO3

59.

Explain why solid sodium chloride does not conduct electricity while aqueous solution of sodium chloride does.

4 lines
60.
Nitrogen will do what to gain a stable octet?
a)
Lose 3
b)
Gain 3
c)
Lose 1
d)
Gain 2
61.

What is the difference between ionic and covalent bonds?

a)

Ionic bonds involve the sharing of electrons, while covalent bonds involve the transfer of electrons.

b)

Ionic bonds are formed between two nonmetals, while covalent bonds are formed between a metal and a nonmetal.

c)

Ionic bonds involve the transfer of electrons, while covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons.

d)

Ionic bonds are weaker than covalent bonds and are formed in gases only.

62.

Which of the following is NOT a step in forming an ionic bond?

a)

One atom shares its electrons with another one

b)

One atom donates an electron to another atom

c)

The atoms become charged ions

d)

The oppositely charged ions attract each other

63.

Select all of the statements below that are correct to describe the structure and properties of ionic compounds...

a)

They have high melting and boiling points

b)

They have a lattice structure

c)

The ions are held together by intermolecular forces

d)

They can conduct electricity when molten

e)

They can conduct electricity when solid

64.

Which of these statements are true about simple molecular lattices?

Tick ALL the correct statements.

a)

Methane is a gas at room temperature because the bonds between the atoms are weak.

b)

Ethane has a higher boiling point than methane because there are stronger London Forces between the molecules.

c)

Carbon dioxide has a higher boiling point than methane because its atoms are held together by double bonds rather than single bonds.

d)

Methane is a gas at room temperature because the intermolecular forces between the molecules are weak.

65.

Which of these statements is true about giant covalent lattices?

Tick ALL the correct statements.

a)

Diamond has a high melting point because the atoms are all joined by covalent bonds in a lattice.

b)

Diamond has a high melting point because there are strong covalent bonds between its molecules.

c)

Diamond can conduct electricity as it has delocalised electrons.

d)

Diamond is insoluble

66.

Which of these statements are true about giant metallic lattices?

Tick ALL the correct statements.

a)

Copper metal is held together by the attraction between the copper ions.

b)

Copper has a high melting point because there are strong forces of attraction between the copper ions and the free moving outer shell.electrons.

c)

Copper metal conducts electricity because the copper electrons are free to move.

d)

Copper has a high melting point because there are lots of intermolecular forces to break.

67.

Which of these statements are true about giant ionic lattices in solution?

Tick ALL the correct statements.

a)

The ions are separated.

b)

The sodium chloride molecules beak apart when they dissolve.

c)

The sodium and chloride ions move around in Na+ Cl– pairs.

d)

The solution conducts electricity because electrons can pass through the solution.

68.

Identify the substance below with the strongest inter-molecular attractive force

a)
b)
c)
d)
69.

What type of structure does Silicon (IV) oxide have?

a)

giant ionic

b)

macromolecular

c)

giant metallic

d)

simple molecular

70.

If the atoms that share electrons have an unequal attraction for the electrons, the bond is called

a)

nonpolar

b)

polar

c)

ionic

d)

dipole

71.

What is the formula for dioxygen pentachloride?

a)

OCl4

b)

O2Cl5

c)

O5Cl2

d)

O4Cl

72.

Sp2 hybridization

a)

A hybridization where one s orbital and two p orbitals combine to form three sp² hybrid orbitals, typically resulting in a trigonal planar shape.

b)

A hybridization involving one s orbital and three p orbitals leading to a tetrahedral geometry.

c)

A hybridization that combines two s orbitals and one p orbital resulting in a linear arrangement.

d)

A hybridization where two p orbitals combine to form two sp hybrid orbitals, resulting in a bent shape.

73.

Sp3 hybridization

a)

A type of hybridization involving one s orbital and three p orbitals to form four sp³ hybrid orbitals, resulting in a tetrahedral shape.

b)

A hybridization that involves two s orbitals and two p orbitals, resulting in a linear shape.

c)

A process where only p orbitals are mixed to form two new orbitals, resulting in a bent shape.

d)

A type of hybridization involving one s orbital and two p orbitals to form three sp² hybrid orbitals, resulting in a trigonal planar shape.

74.

Lone pair

a)

A pair of valence electrons that are not involved in bonding and belong exclusively to one atom.

b)

A pair of electrons shared between two atoms in a covalent bond.

c)

A single electron that is free to bond with other atoms.

d)

A pair of electrons that are involved in ionic bonding.

75.
Choose the correct shape for this molecule:
a)
Trigonal planar
b)
Trigonal pyramidal
c)
Tetrahedral
d)
Linear
76.
Choose the correct shape for this molecule:
a)
Bent
b)
Trigonal pyramidal
c)
Trigonal planar
d)
Linear
77.
Choose the correct shape for this molecule:
a)
linear
b)
Trigonal pyramidal
c)
Bent
d)
Tetrahedral
78.
Choose the correct shape for this molecule:
a)
Tetrahedral
b)
Trigonal pyramidal
c)
Bent
d)
Trigonal planar
79.
Which of the following is NOT an ionic compound:
a)
CaO
b)
NaOH
c)
BaCl2
d)
Br2
80.

Which of the following statements is true about exothermic reactions?

a)

Exothermic reactions absorb heat from the surroundings.

b)

Exothermic reactions release heat to the surroundings.

c)

Exothermic reactions have a positive ΔH (energy change).

d)

Exothermic reactions decrease the temperature of the surroundings.

81.

In an exothermic reaction, what happens to the temperature of the surroundings?

a)

It decreases.

b)

It remains the same.

c)

It increases.

d)

It fluctuates.

82.

What is the minimum energy needed for a reaction to occur called?

a)

Bond energy

b)

Activation energy

c)

Reaction energy

d)

Thermal energy

83.

In endothermic reactions, what happens to the temperature of the surroundings?

a)

It increases.

b)

It decreases.

c)

It remains the same.

d)

It fluctuates.

84.
This chart shows what type of reaction?
a)
exothermic
b)
combustion
c)
endothermic
d)
mesothermic
85.
This chart shows what type of reaction?
a)
endothermic
b)
mesothermic
c)
exothermic
d)
hotothermic
86.
As 120 g of hot milk cools in a mug, it transfers 20, 000 J of heat to the environment. What is the temperature change of the milk? The specific heat of milk is 2.6 J/g·°C. (Q=mcΔT)
a)
64 °C
b)
1.56 °C
c)
640 °C
d)
cannot be determined
87.
If 25 J are required to change the temperature of 5.0 g of substance A by 2.0°C, what is the specific heat of substance A? 
a)
250 J/g C
b)
10 J/g C
c)
63 J/g C
d)
2.5 J/g C
88.
What would be the effect on the particles if more heat is supplied to the system?
a)
They would slow down
b)
They would stop moving
c)
They would speed up
d)
There would be no effect
89.

What is the equation for calculating heat?

a)

c = m ×q×ΔTc\ =\ m\ \times q\times\Delta T  

b)

m = c×q×ΔTm\ =\ c\times q\times\Delta T  

c)

q = c×m×ΔTq\ =\ c\times m\times\Delta T  

d)

ΔT=c×m×q\Delta T=c\times m\times q  

90.

The molar enthalpy needed to change liquid water to water vapor is 40.7 kJ/mol at 100oC. How much heat is gained/lost by the system when 6.00g of water vapor is condensed?

a)

13.6 kJ

b)

-13.6 kJ

c)

-40.7 kJ

d)

40.7 kJ

91.

A quantity of water is heated from  25.0 oC25.0\ ^oC  to  36.4 oC36.4\ ^oC  by absorbing 325 J of heat energy. what is the mass of the water? (c = 4.184 J/g oC)

a)

15.5 g

b)

6.81 g

c)

1.27 g

d)

28.5 g

92.

You should use scratch paper and a calculator

If you add 50 J of energy to a piece of iron, and the temperature rises (changes) by 25.0°C, what is the mass of the iron? (Iron has a specific heat of 0.10 J/g°C)

a)

25 g

b)

30 g

c)

20 g

d)

50 g

93.
Which direction is heat flowing in the picture?
a)
from the hand to the ice
b)
from the ice to the hand
c)
heat is not being transferred
d)
there is no way to tell
94.
If a 8.50g ice cube at -10o C sits out on the counter, completely melts, and then warms to room temperature (25o C) how much energy did the ice cube absorb? Use C = 2.108 J/goC for ice, C = 4.184 J/goC for water, and Hf = 334 J/g.
a)
179.18 J
b)
2839 J
c)
889.1 J
d)
3907.3 J
95.
How much energy is required to completely boil away 150g of 10o C water? Use C = 4.184 J/goC for water, and Hv = 2260 J/g.
a)
56,484 J
b)
339,000 J
c)
395,484 J
d)
385,484 J
96.

A spirit burner is used to burn 1.6 g of ethanol which heats 150 cm3 of water up by 41.0 oC. Calculate q (the energy change of the water). c = 4.18 J g-1 K-1

a)

25707 J

b)

274 J

c)

196878 J

d)

2100 J

97.

A student mixes 35 cm3 of 2.4 mol dm-3 NaOH and 35 cm3 of 2.4 mol dm-3 HCl and observes the temperature of the mixture rise. What value should be used for m in q=mcΔT?

a)

35 g

b)

70 g

c)

2.4 mol dm-3

d)

4.18

98.

A spirit burner is used to burn 1.6 g of ethanol which heats 150 cm3 of water up by 41.0 oC. What is the value of m which should be used in q = mcΔT?

a)

1.6 g

b)

150 g

c)

41 oC

d)

4.18

99.

50 cm³ of 1.0 mol/dm³ HCl is mixed with 50 cm³ of 1.0 mol/dm³ NaOH. The temperature rises by 6.0 °C. Assume the solution has a mass of 100 g and specific heat capacity 4.18 J g⁻¹ K⁻¹. What is the heat released?

a)

251 J

b)

1,880 J

c)

2,510 J

d)

4,180 J

100.

50 cm³ of 1.0 mol/dm³ HCl is mixed with 50 cm³ of 1.0 mol/dm³ NaOH. The temperature rises by 6.0 °C. Assume the solution has a mass of 100 g and specific heat capacity 4.18 J g⁻¹ K⁻¹. What is the enthalpy change of neutralization per mole of water formed?

a)

-25.1 kJ mol⁻¹

b)

-50.2 kJ mol⁻¹

c)

-100.4 kJ mol⁻¹

d)

-12.6 kJ mol⁻¹

101.

A spirit burner loses 0.45 g of methanol (CH₃OH) when heating 100 g of water by 10 °C. (c = 4.18 J g⁻¹ K⁻¹). What is the energy absorbed by the water? Ar of C:12; H:1; O:16

a)

418 J

b)

4,180 J

c)

8,360 J

d)

41,800 J

102.

A spirit burner loses 0.45 g of methanol (CH₃OH) when heating 100 g of water by 10 °C. (c = 4.18 J g⁻¹ K⁻¹). What is the enthalpy change of combustion of methanol (Mr = 32 g/mol)?

a)

-297 kJ mol⁻¹

b)

-464 kJ mol⁻¹

c)

-555 kJ mol⁻¹

d)

-832 kJ mol⁻¹

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