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TYPES OF WCMS

Total questions: 61

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which factor typically makes open source CMS platforms less costly over time?

a)

Higher costs for advanced custom modules

b)

Mandatory yearly enterprise license fees

c)

Bundled premium vendor support plans

d)

Usually free licensing and maintenance

2.

A company needs advanced customisation and is willing to pay for vendor services. Which CMS type most likely fits this scenario?

a)

Free blogging platform with ads

b)

Open source CMS with community help

c)

Proprietary CMS with paid customisation

d)

Static site with no CMS features

3.

Which statement best contrasts support in open source versus proprietary CMS?

a)

Both rely only on peer forums for help

b)

Both require hiring the original creator

c)

Open source relies on community, proprietary relies on vendor

d)

Open source has fixed SLAs, proprietary has none

4.

Select all features that commonly favour open source CMS choices.

a)

Easier to port between hosts

b)

Lower ongoing maintenance costs

c)

Advanced customisation always included by default

d)

Large developer community

5.

Which security view aligns with typical CMS trade-offs?

a)

Both types never require patch management

b)

Proprietary may be secure but still needs updates

c)

Open source is always insecure by design

d)

Security never depends on plugins or core updates

6.

A team plans to migrate content frequently between platforms. Which risk is most associated with proprietary CMS?

a)

Open licensing that ensures migration

b)

Built-in automated multi-host mirroring

c)

Complex export and developer dependence

d)

Unlimited data portability guarantees

7.

Which are noted disadvantages of open source CMS?

a)

Not all platforms are equal

b)

Custom builds may be costlier

c)

More spam targeting

d)

Guaranteed to handle every requirement

8.

Which advantage is more commonly attributed to proprietary CMS offerings?

a)

Unlimited customisation at no cost

b)

Better support from dedicated developers

c)

Complete lack of vendor involvement

d)

Community-only updates with no roadmap

9.

Which statement best defines a web server in the context of WCMS architecture?

a)

A device that only caches files on a LAN

b)

A program that stores cookies inside a browser

c)

A database that manages user accounts only

d)

A system that hosts a website on the internet

10.

Which components are typically part of a web server stack?

a)

Server operating system

b)

Physical server hardware

c)

Software to facilitate HTTP communication

d)

Client-side spreadsheet software

11.

In the client-server model for web browsing, what is the correct order of the HTTP request-response cycle?

a)

Browser requests a page, server sends back the page

b)

Browser sends a page, server requests another page

c)

Server requests a page, browser sends back a page

d)

Server caches a page, browser stores server settings

12.

What is the primary function of a web server regarding website content delivery?

a)

Encrypt every client device without certificates

b)

Create graphics for website user interfaces locally

c)

Replace client browsers in peer-to-peer networks

d)

Deliver website content to end users over the internet

13.

Which scenario best illustrates the advantage of community when using a theme framework?

a)

Unlimited hosting resources included

b)

Automatic SEO ranking without effort

c)

Cheaper because no fees are charged

d)

Faster help due to many active users

14.

A developer chooses a theme framework to reduce setup time by using pre-made widgets and modules. Which benefit is being leveraged?

a)

Price for updates and support

b)

Framework limitations requiring patches

c)

Learning curve with framework lingo

d)

Built-in functionality for quicker setup

15.

Which of the following are common disadvantages of theme frameworks? Select all that apply.

a)

Unnecessary code from unused features

b)

Recurring costs for updates and support

c)

Steep learning curve for framework terms

d)

Higher code quality following best practices

16.

Why might a team still prefer a framework despite some limitations?

a)

Better code quality by enforcing practices

b)

Complete freedom without constraints

c)

Eliminates all development challenges

d)

No need to ever update anything

17.

Which scenario best illustrates Business-to-Business (B2B) e-commerce?

a)

Two neighbors trading used books on an auction site

b)

A commuter paying for music streaming on phone

c)

A retailer buying supplies from a wholesaler online

d)

A shopper ordering groceries from a mobile app

18.

What primarily distinguishes Business-to-Consumer (B2C) e-commerce from Consumer-to-Consumer (C2C) e-commerce?

a)

Companies sell goods directly to consumers

b)

Consumers resell goods to manufacturers

c)

Businesses exchange inputs with each other

d)

Wireless devices are required for access

19.

Which option correctly matches the model to the description?

a)

C2C: consumers sell directly to each other

b)

M-commerce: e-commerce via wireless technology

c)

B2B: companies deliver services to consumers

d)

B2C: auction sites linking individual users

20.

An online marketplace where individual users list items and bid against each other is classified as:

a)

Consumer-to-Consumer (C2C) model

b)

Business-to-Business (B2B) model

c)

Business-to-Consumer (B2C) model

d)

Mobile-commerce (M-commerce)

21.

M-commerce is best defined as:

a)

Retail activity where users sell to users

b)

Retail activity where firms trade with firms

c)

Retail activity requiring desktop-only access

d)

Retail activity accessed using wireless technology

22.

Which statement about the freemium revenue model is most accurate?

a)

Premium access is free but ads fund everything

b)

Basic services are free while advanced features cost

c)

Only business customers pay for basic content

d)

All services are free with no paid upgrades

23.

In the freemium model, what is a key business challenge?

a)

Uncertainty of converting free users into paying

b)

Difficulty delivering digital content to consumers

c)

Lack of wireless networks for mobile commerce

d)

Complexity of B2B inputs across suppliers

24.

Select all examples that demonstrate a freemium approach.

a)

Flickr selling a premium plan without ads

b)

A wholesaler portal for retailer bulk purchases

c)

Skype charging for certain premium services

d)

Spotify offering free tier with ads and paid unlimited

25.

Which pairing of platform and freemium feature is correct?

a)

Flickr: premium plan includes high-definition video

b)

Spotify: limited play time on free tier

c)

Auction site: premium features for manufacturers

d)

Skype: entirely free with no paid features

26.

A startup launches a free basic app to attract many users, then offers a subscription for advanced tools. Which revenue model fits this plan?

a)

M-commerce only model

b)

Freemium revenue model

c)

B2C e-commerce model

d)

C2C peer-to-peer model

27.

Which statement best describes e-cash in digital payments?

a)

It derives from cryptocurrency concepts

b)

It only works with magnetic stripe cards

c)

It is printed paper issued by banks

d)

It requires physical coins for validation

28.

A smart card (chip card) is primarily a ______.

a)

stored value card with a microprocessor chip

b)

wireless router for home internet

c)

magnetic stripe loyalty punch card

d)

plastic ID without embedded electronics

29.

How can smart cards typically be read during transactions?

a)

Through chip slots or short-range NFC

b)

By scanning long-range satellite links

c)

Using handwritten signatures only

d)

Via audio tones over telephone lines

30.

Which options are advantages claimed for smart card transactions?

a)

Data must always travel unencrypted

b)

Payments require cryptocurrency mining

c)

No extra data beyond what is needed

d)

Encrypted transactions resist hacking

31.

Which are common examples of smart cards used for payments?

a)

Paper vouchers and coupons

b)

Debit card magnetic stripe only

c)

Bitcoin, Litecoin, Dogecoin

d)

NETS Cashcard, Motoring Card, FlashPay

32.

Which statement best defines a privacy policy in an organization?

a)

A budget report for information technology resources

b)

A statement describing how client data is gathered and used

c)

A plan for software updates and hardware upgrades

d)

A checklist for daily network maintenance tasks

33.

What are core purposes of a security policy for an organization? Select all that apply.

a)

Describe how to gather and disclose client personal data

b)

Handle situations when security incidents occur

c)

Protect the organization from computer security threats

d)

Publish customer reviews about company services

34.

Why should an organization identify all assets and potential threats to those assets?

a)

To reduce software license fees each quarter

b)

To prepare targeted protection and incident responses

c)

To outsource all IT operations to vendors

d)

To increase social media engagement metrics

35.

Which step best describes the first security layer in a typical 2FA login process?

a)

Typing a backup recovery code

b)

Approving a push notification only

c)

Scanning a fingerprint on the phone

d)

Entering a username and a password

36.

What is the role of the second security layer in 2FA after the password is accepted?

a)

Verify your identity with another factor

b)

Log you out after inactivity

c)

Encrypt all files on the device

d)

Store your credentials in the browser

37.

A one-time password (OTP) used in 2FA is best characterized by which statement?

a)

Shared across all accounts

b)

Typed only during registration

c)

Valid for a single use only

d)

Reusable for a full day

38.

Which options are valid benefits of using 2FA in organizations?

a)

Improved security by requiring a second factor

b)

Increased productivity through secure remote access

c)

Higher helpdesk costs due to more password resets

d)

Reduced fraud by preventing identity theft

39.

Why does two-factor authentication decrease the chance of unauthorized access?

a)

Emails are blocked from external senders

b)

All devices are automatically whitelisted

c)

Passwords become infinitely long by default

d)

Attackers need both factors to impersonate a user

40.

Which statement about OTP delivery in 2FA aligns with common practice?

a)

Codes are guessed from previous logins

b)

Codes are stored permanently in the browser

c)

Codes are printed on the user’s ID badge

d)

Codes are sent to a registered device or email

41.

Select all outcomes that 2FA helps achieve for a business over time.

a)

Elimination of all cyber risks entirely

b)

Lower helpdesk and security management costs

c)

More flexible access to corporate resources

d)

Guaranteed prevention of phishing forever

42.

Which example best fits owned media for a brand?

a)

Influencer shoutout post

b)

Third‑party news article

c)

Customer word of mouth

d)

Company website and blog

43.

Which benefit is most associated with owned media?

a)

Guaranteed rapid growth

b)

Highest credibility always

c)

Immediate reach at scale

d)

Longer lifespan and control

44.

Which challenge commonly affects paid media campaigns?

a)

Hard to measure outcomes

b)

Takes years to scale up

c)

No control over messaging

d)

Audience clutter and fatigue

45.

Select all that describe earned media.

a)

Customers become the channel

b)

Often most credible to audiences

c)

Brand pays to place messages

d)

Can be negative for the brand

46.

How do the roles differ across media types?

a)

Owned builds relationships; paid amplifies; earned results

b)

Owned buys reach; paid nurtures; earned purchases

c)

Owned relies on virality; paid builds trust; earned controls

d)

Owned guarantees scale; paid guarantees loyalty; earned directs

47.

Which scenario best represents a Business-to-Business (B2B) transaction?

a)

A factory buying steel from a mining company

b)

A student ordering a burger from a food truck

c)

A family purchasing groceries at a supermarket

d)

Two neighbors trading used phones on Marketplace

48.

Select all scenarios that are Business-to-Consumer (B2C).

a)

An agency selling ads to a car manufacturer

b)

A supermarket selling milk to households

c)

Buying sneakers from an online store

d)

Reselling a used laptop on eBay

49.

Consumer-to-Consumer (C2C) commerce is BEST characterized by which features?

a)

Wholesalers distribute products to national chains

b)

Retailers sell inventory to the general public daily

c)

Corporations sign long-term supply contracts with vendors

d)

Private individuals trade goods directly or via mediators

50.

Which pair correctly matches transaction type to a fitting example?

a)

B2B — a software firm hiring a marketing agency

b)

C2C — a restaurant serving lunch to commuters

c)

B2C — two startups exchanging industrial equipment

d)

B2B — a teen selling sneakers on Facebook

51.

Which statement best describes Search Engine Optimization (SEO)?

a)

Optimizing a website to match relevant search keywords

b)

Buying banner ads to boost short-term campaign reach

c)

Posting daily updates on every social platform

d)

Sending promotional emails to existing subscribers

52.

When should the process of optimizing a website for search engines ideally begin?

a)

Just before launching paid ads

b)

Only once traffic drops significantly

c)

After the first advertising campaign

d)

Early during website construction

53.

Which action directly supports SEO for a business website?

a)

Sharing posts to increase social mentions

b)

Including business-relevant keywords in on-site content

c)

Sending transactional emails after purchases

d)

Streaming ads on multiple video platforms

54.

Which benefits are commonly associated with video marketing?

a)

Guaranteed placement at the top of search results

b)

Ability to run across many online platforms

c)

Higher engagement with appealing video ads

d)

More shares than regular text and image ads

55.

Which platform is listed as popular for video advertising?

a)

Slack

b)

Reddit

c)

LinkedIn

d)

YouTube

56.

A brand wants more organic shares on social networks. Which approach aligns with this goal?

a)

Buy more print ads for local newspapers

b)

Add more keywords without improving content

c)

Send only direct promotional emails weekly

d)

Create engaging video ads for social platforms

57.

Which statement about email marketing is accurate?

a)

It replaces the need for websites entirely

b)

It risks messages landing in spam folders

c)

It is among the most cost-effective promotion methods

d)

It markets brands and businesses through emails

58.

Which are common types of email marketing mentioned?

a)

Sponsored billboards

b)

Cold calls

c)

Transactional emails

d)

Direct emails

59.

What is a primary use of email marketing for a company?

a)

Replace all social media advertising

b)

Guarantee first position in search rankings

c)

Increase billboard impressions across highways

d)

Highlight product offers and send newsletters

60.

Which action best describes how direct emails obtain recipients for promotional messages?

a)

Rely on search engines to forward customer contacts

b)

Send messages only to existing social media followers

c)

Wait for random inbox discoveries by potential buyers

d)

Collect, rent, or buy prospect email address lists

61.

Which items are typical contents of a direct promotional email?

a)

A unique promotional code for checkout

b)

A product catalogue or featured items

c)

A time-limited discount or special offer

d)

A lengthy company annual report