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Networking Exam

Total questions: 59

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What kind of attack targets a server’s OS?

a)

Keylogger

b)

Phishing

c)

Social engineering

d)

Rootkit

2.

In a DDoS attack, the flood of messages to the target website come from blank 1 servers.

a)

infected

b)

uninfected

c)

spoofed

d)

the hacker’s

3.

Which of the following does NOT provide physical security?

a)

Access badge

b)

Firewall

c)

Video camera

d)

Tamper detection

4.

Which of these devices does NOT prevent access to a protected area?

a)

IPS

b)

Firewall

c)

Keypad

d)

IDS

5.

Which of the following is the most secure password?

a)

p@SSw0rd

b)

St@rw@r$

c)

07041776

d)

yellowMonthMagneficant

6.

Which of these encryption techniques does NOT rely on a key?

a)

Polyalphabetic substitution-based cipher

b)

Data Encryption Standard

c)

Monoalphabetic substitution-based cipher

d)

Transposition-based cipher

7.

Which principle, if adequately followed, ensures a person cannot write their own employee evaluation report?

a)

Shared responsibility model

b)

Separation of duties

c)

Defense in depth

d)

Principle of least privilege

8.

A digital signature supports which component of the CIA triad?

a)

Accountability

b)

Availability

c)

Confidentiality

d)

Integrity

9.

After a digital signature is created, what information is needed to access the hash stored in the digital signature?

a)

The signer’s private key

b)

The signer’s public key

c)

The document’s hash

d)

The lawyer’s private key

10.

Which protocol is used to secure HTTP?

a)

TLS

b)

SSH

c)

RDP

d)

IPsec

11.

You have forgotten your password, so you call the help desk and ask the representative to retrieve your password. After a few moments, the help desk representative tells you your forgotten password. What do you now know about the company’s password storage method?

a)

Passwords are encrypted.

b)

Passwords aren’t hashed.

c)

Passwords are hashed.

d)

Passwords aren’t encrypted.

12.

Which of the following characteristics can a firewall NOT use to filter network traffic?

a)

Port number

b)

IP address

c)

Protocol

d)

Username

13.

Which of the following is NOT an acceptable risk response strategy?

a)

Avoid

b)

Evaluate

c)

Integrity

d)

Accept

14.

Which AWS resource filters traffic to an EC2 instance?

a)

Firewall

b)

Security group

c)

NACL

d)

Proxy server

15.

What data classification should be applied to your company’s bank statements?

a)

Sensitive

b)

Public

c)

Protected

d)

Private

16.

You receive an email from a business associate that has been encrypted with your public key. What information is needed to decrypt the message?

a)

Your associate’s public key

b)

Your associate’s private key

c)

Your private key

d)

Your public key

17.

You receive a document from a business associate that has been encrypted with their private key. Where will your browser look to retrieve the required key to decrypt the message?

a)

The browser’s digital certificate

b)

A CA

c)

The DNS server

d)

A CRL

18.

What security is provided by FHSS?

a)

Obscurity

b)

Encryption

c)

Confidentiality

d)

Hashing

19.

Which authentication technique allows a student to use their Microsoft account to access their LMS (learning management system) for schoolwork?

a)

MFA

b)

SSO

c)

RWX

d)

FIM

20.

What component stored in a block ensures the integrity of data recorded in the blockchain?

a)

The transactional data

b)

The previous block’s hash

c)

The next block’s hash

d)

The block’s owner

21.

What type of cloud network traffic incurs fees?

a)

Traffic between two VMs in the same subnet

b)

Ingress traffic to a storage bucket

c)

Egress traffic from a database

d)

Traffic between two VMs in the same VPC

22.

Which of the following is a legitimate CIDR block for a subnet? Choose TWO.

a)

172.300.7.0/25

b)

192.168.4.0/24

c)

10.10.10.0/33

d)

192.168.168.0/10

23.

Which of the following concepts is ensured by redundant routers and switches?

a)

VPC

b)

HA

c)

SDN

d)

AZ

24.

Which IP address belongs within the CIDR block 172.25.1.0/23?

a)

172.25.2.10

b)

192.25.1.100

c)

172.25.0.254

d)

192.24.1.0

25.

Which tier is most protected?

a)

Logic tier

b)

Subnet tier

c)

Data tier

d)

Presentation tier

26.

Which cloud stack layer corresponds to IaaS services?

a)

Physical layer

b)

Network layer

c)

Virtualization layer

27.

Which technology is used to improve vNIC performance?

a)

SDDC

b)

NFV

c)

RFC 1918

d)

SR-IOV

28.

How do you change applicable routes in an Azure VNet?

a)

Delete system routes.

b)

Edit system routes.

c)

Create a new VNet with different system routes.

d)

Override system routes with custom routes.

29.

What factor is improved by SR-IOV?

a)

Security

b)

Performance

c)

Availability

d)

Adaptability

30.

Which cloud platform’s VPC or VNet can extend beyond a single region?

a)

Azure

b)

VMware

c)

GCP

d)

AWS

31.

When a router receives multiple possible routes for the same network connection from three different routing protocols, what information will the router use to choose the route it adds to its routing table?

a)

Autonomous system

b)

Convergence time

c)

Overhead

d)

Administrative distance

32.

With which network type does a single organization most likely own all the equipment?

a)

WAN

b)

SD-WAN

c)

CAN

d)

MAN

33.

What technique will ensure a message arrives at its destination even if a router along the path loses power?

a)

Backup

b)

Best path

c)

Failover

d)

Multiplexing

34.

Which of the following is NOT an optimal application of a MAN?

a)

Long-haul connection across states

b)

High-speed disaster recovery site

c)

Interconnection between corporate data center and ISP

d)

Real-time transaction backup

35.

Which device determines the best path for a message traversing the Internet?

a)

Switch

b)

Fiber cable

c)

Router

d)

Multiplexor

36.

Which algorithm is often used to help calculate the least-cost path on a network?

a)

Lempel-Ziv

b)

DWDM

c)

Dijkstra

d)

MU-MIMO

37.

Which routing protocol requires that routers transmit their routing tables every 30 seconds?

a)

EIGRP

b)

OSPF

c)

IS-IS

d)

RIP

38.

Which routing protocol has the fastest convergence time?

a)

EIGRP

b)

OSPF

c)

RIPv2

d)

IS-IS

39.

How does OSPF advertise its routing information?

a)

It listens for update requests from each of its neighbors.

b)

It floods other routers with link state packets when something changes.

c)

It measures the delay or cost to each neighboring router.

40.

As you’re designing your network across multiple, private WAN connections, you realize you need to choose a secure routing protocol for your AS. Which of the following would NOT be a reasonable choice to consider?

a)

BGP

b)

IS-IS

c)

EIGRP

d)

RIPv2

41.

What type of protocol is BGP?

a)

Distance vector

b)

Hybrid

c)

Link state

d)

Path vector

42.

Which routing protocol is limited to 15 hops?

a)

RIPv2

b)

EIGRP

c)

OSPF

d)

BGP

43.

Which of the following is NOT an example of some variation of FDM?

a)

5G

b)

MIMO

c)

CWDM

d)

Cable television

44.

Which multiplexing technique uses a round-robin pattern?

a)

SM

b)

CWDM

c)

Stat TDM

d)

Sync TDM

45.

Which multiplexing technique requires addressing to identify each data stream?

a)

CDM

b)

Stat TDM

c)

Sync TDM

d)

FDM

46.

What type of medium is required to support WDM?

a)

Wi-Fi

b)

Cable TV

c)

Fiber

d)

Cellular

47.

If data has a large number of one type of symbol, which type of compression would be the most effective?

a)

Lempel-Ziv technique

b)

MP3

c)

Quantization

d)

Run-length encoding

48.

Which of the following is NOT a phase of JPEG compression?

a)

Run-length encoding

b)

Lempel-Ziv technique

c)

Quantization

d)

Discrete cosine transformation

49.

Given the following bit string, what run-length encoding would result? 0000 0001 0000 0110 0000 0000 00

a)

0111 0101 0000 1011

b)

7 5 0 11

c)

4 3 4 1 1 4 4 2

d)

0 1 0 6 0 0 0

50.

Your company transitions a dozen servers to the cloud instead of purchasing several new servers to replace aging equipment. The monthly cost of these cloud-hosted servers that can grow with the business is significantly lower than the anticipated cost of purchasing new hardware that would have, at first, greatly exceeded the current needs of the business. What feature of the cloud has your company taken advantage of?

a)

Broad network access

b)

Measured service

c)

Multitenancy

d)

Cross-platform compatibility

51.

When you speak to Alexa, you initiate the processing of code that runs in the cloud without creating a new server to do so. Which cloud service model most likely provides the service that processes this code?

a)

SaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

IaaS

d)

DBaaS

52.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a cloud-within-a-cloud deployment model?

a)

Unlimited scalability

b)

Minimal cost

c)

Platform familiarity

d)

Seamless migration

53.

To deploy a series of test environments in the cloud, you want a script that will design and configure several servers, some network infrastructure, and firewall rules. What process will produce the script you need?

a)

Automation

b)

Self-healing infrastructure

c)

Multitenancy

d)

Orchestration

54.

Which document can ensure you will receive compensation if your company’s Internet service has an extended outage?

a)

GDPR

b)

NDA

c)

SLA

d)

HIPAA

55.

Multitenancy enables what cloud characteristic?

a)

Rapid elasticity

b)

Broad network access

c)

On-demand self-service

d)

Resource pooling

56.

Which document might require an NDA before you can read it?

a)

SSAE 18

b)

SOC 2

c)

ISO/IEC 27001

d)

SAS 70

57.

As you’re developing your hybrid cloud, you move a handful of servers and two applications to the cloud. Both applications need to communicate with a database that will remain on-prem. What technology will allow the applications to communicate with the database without human intervention?

a)

VPN

b)

CLI

c)

GUI

d)

API

58.

For what purposes does the IoT often use cloud technologies? Choose TWO.

a)

Virtualization

b)

Storage

c)

Compute

d)

Communication

59.

During which step of the troubleshooting process should you back up data?

a)

While testing your theory as to the probable cause

b)

While identifying the problem

c)

While verifying full system functionality

d)

While establishing a plan of action