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Intensive Care Unit Overview

Total questions: 108

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which location best supports rapid transfer of postoperative patients to intensive care?

a)

Adjacent to the recovery room corridor

b)

Across from administrative offices

c)

On a different hospital campus

d)

Next to outpatient family lounges

2.

Which hospital service should have straightforward elevator access to the ICU to reduce delays in critical care?

a)

Emergency department arrivals

b)

Medical records archive

c)

Physical therapy suite

d)

Hospital cafeteria services

3.

Which components are fundamental when planning an ICU within a hospital building?

a)

Dedicated ICU patient space

b)

Isolation from operating division

c)

Convenient access from emergency

d)

Proximity to recovery functions

4.

A hospital plans to place the ICU far from the operating division to ensure quiet. What is the most significant risk of this decision?

a)

Slower transfer of unstable patients

b)

Increased pharmacy inventory costs

c)

Higher HVAC energy consumption

d)

Reduced visitor parking availability

5.

Which ICU primarily cares for premature or ill newborns?

a)

Burn ICU for severe skin burns

b)

Coronary care unit for cardiac adults

c)

Pediatric ICU for older children

d)

Neonatal ICU for newborn patients

6.

Which units are MOST likely to manage complex heart conditions requiring intensive monitoring?

a)

Coronary care unit caring for cardiac cases

b)

Neonatal ICU for preterm infants

c)

Cardiothoracic ICU after heart surgery

d)

Burn ICU for thermal injuries

7.

A 6-year-old child with severe pneumonia needs ventilator support. Which unit is most appropriate?

a)

Pediatric ICU for critical children

b)

Neonatal ICU for premature infants

c)

Surgical ICU for perioperative adults

d)

Medical ICU for stable outpatients

8.

Which statement BEST describes the role of intensive care nursing?

a)

Focusing only on postoperative dressing changes

b)

Administering vaccines in community clinics

c)

Providing continuous care to unstable critical patients

d)

Delivering routine care to stable ward patients

9.

Which cases are typically admitted to the Surgical ICU rather than the Medical ICU?

a)

Adults with minor chest infections

b)

Newborns with low birth weight issues

c)

Patients with chronic stable hypertension

d)

Postoperative patients needing intensive monitoring

10.

Which ICU device continuously tracks vital signs like heart rate and blood pressure at the bedside?

a)

Ultrasound machine

b)

Ventilator device

c)

Monitoring system

d)

Portable X-ray unit

11.

Which equipment provides mechanical breathing support to patients who cannot ventilate adequately on their own?

a)

Defibrillator unit

b)

Monitoring system

c)

ABG analyzer

d)

Ventilator machine

12.

Which device delivers controlled electric shocks to treat dangerous cardiac rhythm disturbances?

a)

Ventilator system

b)

Portable X-ray

c)

Ultrasound machine

d)

Defibrillator device

13.

Which tool captures bedside radiographic images without transporting the patient out of the ICU?

a)

Portable X-ray unit

b)

Monitoring console

c)

ABG analyzer

d)

Defibrillator cart

14.

Which imaging modality in the ICU uses high-frequency sound waves to visualize internal organs and vessels?

a)

Portable X-ray unit

b)

Ultrasound machine

c)

Ventilator system

d)

Defibrillator device

15.

Which analyzer measures arterial pH, PaO2, and PaCO2 for rapid respiratory and metabolic assessment?

a)

Portable X-ray

b)

Ultrasound scanner

c)

ABG analysis device

d)

Monitoring system

16.

Select the devices primarily used for diagnostic imaging at the bedside in an ICU.

a)

Ventilator device

b)

Ultrasound machine

c)

Defibrillator unit

d)

Portable X-ray unit

17.

Which pair correctly matches the ICU device with its main function?

a)

Defibrillator — mechanical ventilation support

b)

Monitoring system — continuous vital sign tracking

c)

Ventilator — cardiac rhythm defibrillation

d)

ABG analyzer — ultrasound image generation

18.

A patient in respiratory failure requires immediate support to maintain gas exchange. Which equipment is indicated?

a)

Monitoring system console

b)

Defibrillator device

c)

Ventilator machine

d)

Portable X-ray unit

19.

Which measurements are typically obtained from an arterial blood gas (ABG) in critical care?

a)

PaO2 value

b)

pH level

c)

PaCO2 value

d)

Serum sodium

20.

Which location best supports rapid emergency response for an ICU?

a)

Adjacent to administrative offices and billing

b)

Near emergency department with short travel routes

c)

In a quiet wing far from high-traffic areas

d)

On an upper floor reached by public elevators

21.

Why should through-traffic to other hospital areas be avoided around the ICU?

a)

It improves cafeteria revenue from visitors

b)

It lowers building maintenance and energy use

c)

It helps expand outpatient clinic scheduling

d)

It reduces efficient access and protects privacy

22.

Select the design priorities for ICU external placement.

a)

High public foot traffic through the unit

b)

Efficient access for critical equipment

c)

Direct adjacency to radiology and lab only

d)

Minimal travel time for emergency teams

23.

In the ICU diagram, which path is intended to minimize cross-traffic between staff and visitors?

a)

Staff movement routed through the waiting area

b)

Visitor access routed through the staff station

c)

A single shared corridor around all patient rooms

d)

Separate circulation corridors for staff and visitors

24.

Which area in the ICU layout most directly supports staff coordination at shift changes?

a)

Waiting area near visitor entry

b)

Isolation room adjacent to patients

c)

Handover room near the staff station

d)

Back-to-back unit expansion

25.

Select all spaces that function primarily as support areas rather than patient or visitor zones.

a)

Support rooms in the central core

b)

Isolation room for infection control

c)

Staff station at circulation hub

d)

Waiting area near visitor entry

e)

Patient room with ensuite facilities

26.

What is the likely purpose of the dashed area labeled possible swing beds and shared facilities?

a)

Flexible capacity for surge admissions

b)

Dedicated lounge for long-stay visitors

c)

Permanent storage for nonclinical supplies

d)

Administrative offices for unit leadership

27.

Which component is a core spatial element within an ICU layout to support patient care workflow?

a)

Patient area bays for beds

b)

Public cafeteria seating

c)

Administrative billing office

d)

Outpatient dermatology rooms

28.

Which services are typically positioned near the ICU to support clinicians’ tasks?

a)

Retail pharmacy storefront

b)

Services for doctors

c)

Nursing services

d)

Supporting clinical services

29.

Which item best describes stores specified for ICU supplies management?

a)

Separated clean and non-clean stores

b)

Single mixed-use supply room

c)

Open hallway storage shelves

d)

Off-site centralized warehouse

30.

Which ICU model refers to care integrated within broader hospital services rather than a stand-alone unit?

a)

Independent intensive care

b)

Integrated intensive care

c)

Generalized concentrated care

d)

Hot floor model layout

31.

Select the ICU models recognized for organizing services and patient care.

a)

Integrated intensive care

b)

Hot floor model

c)

Generalized concentrated care

d)

Ambulatory step-down clinic

32.

What is a general functional requirement regarding ICU bed capacity?

a)

Exactly eight beds with no isolation

b)

No limit on the number of beds

c)

At least twenty beds are required

d)

The unit must not exceed twelve beds

33.

What is the recommended feature for the ICU entrance to reduce infection transmission risk?

a)

Entrance through a controlled lobby

b)

Direct door from main corridor

c)

Open archway with no doors

d)

Shared entrance with emergency

34.

Which statement best links access control and infection prevention in ICU design?

a)

Shared public lobby improves wayfinding

b)

Wide open access reduces air stagnation

c)

Removing doors speeds staff response

d)

Lobby access helps control entry and infection

35.

Which zone immediately surrounds the ICU bed and includes life-support equipment access?

a)

Patient zone around the bed

b)

Entryway zone by sliding doors

c)

Caregiver zone near workstation

d)

Family zone at bedside

36.

What is the primary purpose of the caregiver zone in an ICU room?

a)

Locate bathroom and sanitizer

b)

Enable patient personal storage

c)

Provide long-term family stays

d)

Perform clinical tasks safely

37.

An ICU unit should have no fewer than how many ICU beds in a hospital, with a maximum of how many per unit?

a)

At least 8, not more than 20

b)

At least 6, not more than 14

c)

At least 2, not more than 6

d)

At least 4, not more than 10

38.

Which areas are typically designated in an ICU room layout? Select all that apply.

a)

Retail zone

b)

Family zone

c)

Caregiver zone

d)

Patient zone

e)

Staging area

39.

Bed spacing in an ICU should ensure safe access on multiple sides. Which option best describes this design goal?

a)

Clearances allow staff and equipment movement

b)

Decor enhances patient satisfaction only

c)

Narrow access limits infection transmission

d)

Bed placed against wall for privacy

40.

Which statement best describes how coronary care bed numbers vary across facilities?

a)

They are fixed at ten beds in all centers

b)

They range from four to eight in small units

c)

They rarely exceed twelve in large hospitals

d)

They depend only on available nursing staff

41.

Which factors should be addressed during the service planning stage for a coronary care unit?

a)

Integration with adjacent ICU or HDU spaces

b)

Exact patient diagnoses for each future admission

c)

Need for swing beds to allow temporary expansion

d)

Target bed numbers for different facility sizes

42.

In a small hospital, what is the most appropriate strategy to handle unexpected surges in coronary care demand?

a)

Install permanent twenty-bed capacity immediately

b)

Use swing beds linked to ICU or HDU areas

c)

Transfer all patients to regional outpatient clinics

d)

Delay admissions until beds become available

43.

Which ICU layout best exemplifies a racetrack design with patient beds along the perimeter and a central nursing area?

a)

Triangular ICU with corner bays

b)

Circular ICU with central services

c)

Rectangular ICU with side corridors

d)

Square ICU with split cores

44.

In the rectangular ICU layout, where are nursing stations most likely positioned to maintain visibility to beds?

a)

Distributed randomly between rooms

b)

Outside the unit in adjacent hall

c)

At the center along the long axis

d)

At both ends near exits

45.

Which configurations are most consistent with placing supportive services in a central core while patient rooms line the outer edges?

a)

Rectangular ICU with external core

b)

Square ICU with central block

c)

Triangular ICU with inner hub

d)

Circular ICU with central core

46.

A design goal is shortest walking distance from nursing stations to any bed. Which layout most directly achieves equal access distances?

a)

Circular plan with central hub

b)

Triangular plan with single hub

c)

Rectangular plan with dual hubs

d)

Square plan with four sub-cores

47.

Which feature best characterizes an open ICU layout compared to a closed ICU layout?

a)

Dedicated anterooms for every patient room

b)

Beds in shared bays with movable partitions

c)

Each bed in fully enclosed private rooms

d)

Negative-pressure rooms for airborne isolation

48.

In an open ICU, what typical bed-space area is planned per patient?

a)

About 15 square meters per bed

b)

About 20 square meters per bed

c)

About 8 square meters per bed

d)

About 11 square meters per bed

49.

Which design choice most directly improves infection prevention in ICUs?

a)

Closed rooms with separate air and doors

b)

Open bays with curtain separations only

c)

Shared equipment between adjacent beds

d)

Centralized sinks far from patient areas

50.

Select all features commonly associated with a closed ICU design.

a)

Private rooms for each bed

b)

Enhanced visibility from the nurse station

c)

Preferred to reduce cross-transmission risk

d)

Minimal separation using only curtains

51.

What is a typical spacing range between beds in an open ICU bay using partitions?

a)

About 1.5 to 2.4 meters apart

b)

About 0.5 to 1.0 meters apart

c)

About 5.0 to 6.0 meters apart

d)

About 3.0 to 4.0 meters apart

52.

Why might planners still favor an open ICU in some contexts?

a)

Independent HVAC for each patient room

b)

Lower noise and better privacy always

c)

Direct line-of-sight to multiple patients

d)

Superior isolation for infectious diseases

53.

In the diagram of an ICU bedside, which device is primarily used to continuously display vital signs like ECG, SpO2, and blood pressure?

a)

PDMS workstation screen

b)

Bedside multiparameter monitor

c)

Infusion pump stack display

d)

Ventilator control panel

54.

Which equipment in the diagram is dedicated to delivering mechanical ventilation with set tidal volumes and pressures?

a)

PDMS workstation tower

b)

Alternating pressure mattress

c)

Ventilator machine unit

d)

Bedside patient monitor

55.

Several stacked devices labeled on the diagram deliver fluids through large-volume drips. Which label best matches these devices?

a)

Alternating mattress cells

b)

Syringe pumps array

c)

PDMS workstation bay

d)

Infusion pumps rack

56.

Some pumps in the figure are designed for precise low-flow delivery of concentrated drugs via small barrels. Which pumps are these?

a)

Syringe pumps modules

b)

Infusion pumps modules

c)

Monitor transducer panels

d)

Ventilator compressors

57.

What is the primary function of the PDMS workstation indicated in the diagram?

a)

Fluid bolus delivery

b)

Charting and data management

c)

Airway pressure generation

d)

Pressure ulcer prevention

58.

Which items together are most directly involved in respiratory support for the patient shown? Select all that apply.

a)

Alternating pressure mattress

b)

Infusion pumps rack

c)

Bedside multiparameter monitor

d)

Syringe pumps modules

e)

Ventilator with breathing circuit

59.

Which location best enables staff to observe multiple patient rooms simultaneously in this ICU layout?

a)

Hallway outside room 38 only

b)

Supply closets near corner rooms

c)

Medication room with locked storage

d)

Central nursing station with computer stations

60.

Sliding glass doors are marked along certain room fronts. What is the most likely purpose of these doors in an ICU?

a)

Maintain visibility while providing isolation

b)

Reduce noise better than solid walls

c)

Store emergency drugs near beds

d)

House computer servers for monitoring

61.

Which rooms flank the top corridor adjacent to the supply closets in this plan?

a)

Room 24 and Room 26

b)

Room 22 and Room 28

c)

Room 14 and Room 38

d)

Room 30 and Room 32

62.

Where should a nurse go to retrieve commonly used disposables like gloves and IV tubing in this ICU?

a)

Supply closets near patient rooms

b)

Medication room near monitors

c)

Central nursing station desk

d)

Inside each patient bathroom

63.

Computer stations are shown with hatched rectangles around the central station. What workflow advantage do these provide?

a)

Charting and monitoring within direct sightlines

b)

Medication mixing inside sterile hoods

c)

Secure storage of controlled substances

d)

Space for family consultations only

64.

In the floor plan, the orthopedic day care unit indicates a 14-bed capacity. Which planning implication follows from this capacity?

a)

Suggests no separation of clean and dirty

b)

Allows single oversized rooms throughout

c)

Eliminates need for nurse station visibility

d)

Requires clustered bays with shared support

65.

Refer to the diagram showing the orthopedic surgical suite adjacent to the day care unit. Which zones should be directly connected to operating rooms to maintain sterile flow?

a)

Soiled utility and decontamination

b)

Pre-op and PACU bays

c)

Public waiting lounge

d)

Scrub areas and sterile core

66.

The highlighted bay row in the surgical suite shows multiple identical stations in a linear arrangement. What is the most likely function of this row?

a)

Imaging diagnostics control rooms

b)

Post-anesthesia care phase recovery

c)

Long-stay inpatient ward beds

d)

Administrative offices for scheduling

67.

Which task best illustrates how AI like GPT-4 can support intensive care device management?

a)

Ignoring sensor noise to keep settings stable

b)

Randomly cycling modes to test patient response

c)

Suggesting ventilator alarm thresholds from trends

d)

Replacing nurses in all ventilator procedures

68.

In an ICU warning system, what advantage can AI provide over standard threshold-based alarms?

a)

Independent treatment without clinician input

b)

Fewer alarms by disabling notifications

c)

Louder sound to wake more clinicians

d)

Predictive alerts using multi-signal patterns

69.

Which combination reflects appropriate AI-assisted roles in intensive care?

a)

Recommending treatment options from guidelines

b)

Building structured databases from notes

c)

Automating consent for high-risk procedures

d)

Summarizing patient updates for families

70.

A hospital wants to use GPT-4 to improve care quality. Which plan aligns with safe AI integration in the ICU?

a)

Decision support with human oversight and audits

b)

Discarding data logs to protect privacy

c)

Full autonomy for medication administration

d)

Replacing bedside assessments with chat output

71.

In the first diagram, multiple monitors surround a patient in an ICU. What is the most plausible role of the central AI dashboard displayed above the bed?

a)

Controlling building HVAC systems for the entire hospital

b)

Streaming entertainment content for patient comfort

c)

Storing paper records for later transcription

d)

Aggregating multimodal patient signals in real time

72.

Across the images, pervasive ICU sensing is highlighted. Which combination best exemplifies multimodal sensing in this environment?

a)

Wearable accelerometers tracking patient movement

b)

Single manual blood pressure reading by a nurse

c)

Ceiling camera providing continuous video monitoring

d)

ECG traces with pulse oximetry on bedside monitors

73.

In the labeled ICU schematic, accelerometers are placed near the bed. What clinical insight do accelerometers primarily provide?

a)

Estimating sound pressure from alarms and speech

b)

Quantifying patient motion and activity patterns

c)

Measuring oxygen saturation in arterial blood

d)

Recording electrical activity of the myocardium

74.

The diagrams show video monitoring integrated with face analytics. Which capability could AI-assisted video enable without physical contact?

a)

Detecting facial expressions to infer pain levels

b)

Delivering nebulized medication via ventilator

c)

Drawing venous blood for laboratory analysis

d)

Sterilizing equipment with ultraviolet irradiation

75.

Consider the side-by-side robotic ICU scenes. What is a responsible role for clinical robots depicted near the patient?

a)

Operating hospital financial systems from patient rooms

b)

Autonomously prescribing medications without oversight

c)

Assisting clinicians with precise instrument positioning

d)

Replacing human nurses during all critical procedures

76.

In the schematic, a sound pressure level recorder is shown. Why is sound monitoring relevant in an ICU?

a)

High noise can elevate stress and disrupt recovery

b)

Noise ensures alarms are always inaudible to staff

c)

Sound monitoring replaces heart rate measurement

d)

Quiet rooms guarantee infection control compliance

77.

The bottom panel summarizes information streams. Which items are categorized under pervasive patient information enabled by vision?

a)

Facial action unit detection

b)

Invasive arterial blood gas analysis

c)

Facial expression recognition

d)

Face detection and face recognition

78.

Which area in the Central Sterilization Division primarily handles contaminated instruments immediately after arrival?

a)

Supplies storage processes contaminated instruments

b)

Work space processes contaminated instruments

c)

Washing area processes contaminated instruments

d)

Receiving area processes contaminated instruments

79.

Which list best represents the core components of a Central Sterilization Division?

a)

Isolation rooms, ICU bays, morgue, chapel

b)

Triage room, pharmacy, radiology, cafeteria

c)

Procurement office, billing desk, gift shop

d)

Work space, receiving, washing, supplies storage

80.

Where should the Central Sterilization Division be located to optimize workflow within a hospital?

a)

Far from surgery and near public lobby

b)

Adjacent to outpatient parking structures

c)

Very close to operation theatre and maternity

d)

On a separate campus to reduce traffic

81.

Which departments should have easy access to the Central Sterilization Division?

a)

Laundry services

b)

Emergency division

c)

Central storages

d)

Dermatology spa

82.

Which sequence best represents the unidirectional workflow through a Central Sterilization Division to prevent cross‑contamination?

a)

Receiving area → Sterile zone → Contaminated zone → Clean zone

b)

Contaminated zone → Receiving area → Clean zone → Sterile zone

c)

Sterile zone → Clean zone → Contaminated zone → Receiving area

d)

Receiving area → Contaminated zone → Clean zone → Sterile zone

83.

In a properly designed CSD, what is the primary purpose of the contaminated zone?

a)

Initial decontamination and cleaning of used instruments

b)

Packaging and labeling of processed instrument sets

c)

Temporary storage of sterile packs before dispatch

d)

Long‑term storage of high‑value sterile devices

84.

Which areas should be physically separated to maintain barrier control in a CSD?

a)

Contaminated zone and clean zone

b)

Sterile zone and storage racks

c)

Clean zone and sterile zone

d)

Receiving area and sterilization area

85.

Where should packaging and labeling of instrument sets typically occur within the CSD layout?

a)

Inside the contaminated zone near receiving bays

b)

Inside the sterilization area after exposure cycle

c)

Within the clean zone before sterilization processing

d)

Inside the sterile zone adjacent to dispatch doors

86.

Which step should immediately follow receiving soiled returns in the decontamination life cycle?

a)

Dispatching completed orders

b)

Sorting and disassembling devices

c)

Storage of sterile items

d)

Quality control documentation

87.

In a Central Sterilization Division, which activities belong in the dirty area rather than the clean or sterile areas?

a)

Pre-rinsing contaminated devices

b)

Assembling and wrapping trays

c)

Cooling sterile packs

d)

Manual cleaning to remove pathogens

e)

Sorting returned trays

88.

What is the primary purpose of manual cleaning of instruments before further processing?

a)

Speed up sterilizer cycles

b)

Improve packaging efficiency

c)

Remove blood-borne pathogens

d)

Reduce storage space needs

89.

Which sequence best represents the workflow principle shown from DIRTY to CLEAN to STERILE?

a)

Sterilization, receiving, storage

b)

Receiving, cleaning, sterilization

c)

Assembly, dispatching, receiving

d)

Storage, cooling, assembly

90.

Which tasks are performed after cleaning and functionality checks but before sterilization?

a)

Receiving new supplies

b)

Record keeping and maintenance

c)

Cooling of sterile packs

d)

Assembling, packing, and wrapping

91.

Select all activities that occur after items leave the sterilizer but before dispatching orders.

a)

Cooling of sterile packs

b)

Storage of sterilized items

c)

Pre-rinsing contaminated items

d)

Sorting returned trays

e)

Quality control release

92.

Which item is correctly matched with its destination during receiving?

a)

Used linen goes to laundry

b)

Clean trays go to dirty sink

c)

Waste items go to sterile store

d)

Sterile packs go to decontamination

93.

Which action ensures traceability across the decontamination life cycle?

a)

Rinsing with plain water

b)

Using larger trolley wheels

c)

Record keeping throughout

d)

Cooling packs on open benches

94.

In the top-left image, a technician inspects a tray under magnification after automated cleaning. What is the most critical reason for using magnification at this stage?

a)

To verify detergent residue is fully removed

b)

To document instrument serial numbers accurately

c)

To speed up drying through focused illumination

d)

To align instruments for ergonomic packing

95.

Refer to the top-right image showing hinged surgical instruments. Which step should be performed before packing to ensure effective sterilization of these instruments?

a)

Tie instruments together with string

b)

Apply lubricant to ratchets generously

c)

Open hinges and unlock ratchets fully

d)

Wrap instruments in cotton gauze layers

96.

In the bottom-left image labeled Packing, which practice best maintains set integrity during sterilization and storage?

a)

Place maximum instruments to fill the tray

b)

Organize instruments by size and function

c)

Stack heavy items on delicate scissors

d)

Leave sharps uncovered to speed drying

97.

Look at the large image of metal shelving with wrapped packs. What key environmental control supports sterile storage quality?

a)

Bright lighting for easy identification

b)

Frequent rearranging to rotate shelves

c)

Open windows for natural ventilation

d)

Restricted traffic with controlled airflow

98.

Two sink images are shown: a drip sink with bucket grid and a double-bowl sink unit. Which tasks are these most suited for in the decontamination area?

a)

Gross soil removal and manual precleaning

b)

Final sterile rinse of wrapped packs

c)

Long-term soaking of sterile sets

d)

Dilution and disposal of liquid waste

99.

A coiled high-pressure water gun is mounted above a sink. Which precaution is most important when using this device on instruments?

a)

Use splash guards to minimize aerosolization

b)

Hold nozzle extremely close to lumens

c)

Aim directly at electrical connectors

d)

Increase pressure beyond manufacturer limits

100.

Which sequence best represents the unidirectional flow of instruments through a Central Sterilization Division to maintain separation of dirty and clean areas?

a)

Decontamination → Inspection and packing → Sterile storage → Dispatch

b)

Receiving and sorting → Cooling → Decontamination → Dispatch

c)

Inspection and packing → Decontamination → Sterile storage → Cooling

d)

Sterile storage → Decontamination → Inspection and packing → Office

101.

In the decontamination zone, which activity is most appropriate before items enter inspection and packing?

a)

Quarantine storage of sterile packs awaiting release

b)

Labeling and documentation for dispatch to users

c)

Cooling of sterile packs after sterilization

d)

Automated washing and rinsing of contaminated items

102.

The hard barrier principle in a CSD primarily aims to prevent which risk?

a)

Mixing of clean and contaminated traffic streams

b)

Damage to instruments during automated washing

c)

Excessive energy use in sterilizer plant rooms

d)

Incorrect labeling of sterile pack contents

103.

Which rooms are typically located in the support zone adjacent to the departmental corridor in the diagrams?

a)

Waste disposal and cleaner sluice

b)

Male and female change rooms

c)

Sterilizer plant room and cooling

d)

Kitchenette and staff rest room

104.

Where should PPE donning be emphasized according to the workflow layout?

a)

After leaving the inspection and packing area

b)

Within the office next to cooling area

c)

Inside the sterile pack store near dispatch

d)

Before entering the decontamination area from the corridor

105.

Clean items after sterilization follow which path to reach users?

a)

Textile room → Automated washing → Sterile store → Waste disposal

b)

Receiving and sorting → Trolley wash → Office → Dispatch

c)

Inspection and packing → Decontamination area → Holding bay → Dispatch

d)

Sterilizer plant room → Cooling area → Sterile pack store → Dispatch

106.

A CSD serving a 200-bed hospital has a planned area of 110 m². Which best explains why this area is reasonable?

a)

It equals corridor length times sterilizer width only

b)

It is determined solely by the number of sterilizers

c)

It matches the total area of sterile storage rooms

d)

It accommodates work space, cleaning, and receiving zones

107.

The floor plan shows distinct zones: work space at center, sterile supplies storage at left, cleaning at right, and a receiving area near the entrance. Which placements support unidirectional flow from dirty to clean?

a)

Sterile storage positioned away from receiving area

b)

Cleaning located adjacent to central work space

c)

Receiving near corridor entry before cleaning zone

d)

Sterilizers placed between cleaning and work space

108.

Given plan dimensions 13.80 m by 6.00 m plus a 2.10 m corridor outside, what is the approximate internal CSD area if only the 13.80 m by 6.00 m rectangle is counted?

a)

About 124.0 square meters

b)

About 110 square meters

c)

About 82.8 square meters

d)

About 69.0 square meters