WorksheetsPRC-NOTES2MT_P2
Total questions: 161
Worksheet time: 1hrs 21mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Commonly used for antimicrobial susceptibility testing. agar depth is typically 3 to 5 mm
a)
SSA
b)
MHA
c)
HEA
d)
PEA
2.
Ideal pH of Mueller Hinton Agar
a)
7.0 to 7.2
b)
7.2 to 7.4
c)
7.1 to 7.3
3.
mixture of an organism to a substance
a)
Minimum Inhibitory Concentration
b)
Minimum Bactericidal Concentration
c)
Inoculum
4.
Lowest concentration of antibiotics that would prevent bacterial growth.
a)
Minimum Inhibitory Concentration
b)
Minimum Bactericidal Concentration
c)
Inoculum
5.
Lowest concentration of antibiotics that would kill bacteria.
a)
Minimum Inhibitory Concentration
b)
Minimum Bactericidal Concentration
c)
Inoculum
6.
Inoculum too light
a)
Falsely sensitive/susceptible
b)
Falsely resistant
7.
Inoculum too heavy
a)
Falsely sensitive/susceptible
b)
Falsely resistant
8.
Too much moisture on agar
a)
Falsely sensitive
b)
Falsely resistant
9.
Very dry agar surface
a)
Falsely sensitive/susceptible
b)
Falsely resistant
10.
Which of the following are the indicators of AST that deteriorates easily and considered highly sensitive to environmental factors?
a)
Penicillin and Rifampicin
b)
Methicillin and Erythromycin
c)
Penicillin and Methicillin
11.
concentration of microorganisms in tube/microplate dilution
a)
5 x 10^5 CFU/mL
b)
1.5 x 10^8 CFU/mL
12.
concentration of microorganisms in disk diffusion
a)
5 x 10^5 CFU/mL
b)
1.5 x 10^8 CFU/mL
13.
Serial dilution of antibiotic is prepared to each tube wherein a uniform amount of inoculum is added
a)
Tube or microplate dilution
b)
Agar dilution
c)
Disk diffusion
d)
Epsilometer test
14.
Uses Kirby Bauer; MHA
a)
Tube or microplate dilution
b)
Agar dilution
c)
Disk diffusion
d)
Epsilometer test
15.
Varying concentration of antibiotic is incorporated to appropriate plating media
a)
Tube or microplate dilution
b)
Agar dilution
c)
Disk diffusion
d)
Epsilometer test
16.
involves plate, plastic strips (which contain varying concentration of antibiotics) impregnated in culture media. In this case, to determine MIC, you have to look for ellipse inhibition (intercepts)
a)
Tube or microplate dilution
b)
Agar dilution
c)
Disk diffusion
d)
Epsilometer test
17.
McFarland standard is also known as?
a)
Sodium sulfate
b)
Barium thiosulfate
c)
Barium sulfate
d)
Barium sulfide
18.
Increased ____ causes increased resistance of Pseudomonas aeruginosa to aminoglycosides.
a)
Sodium
b)
Potassium
c)
Calcium
d)
Magnesium
19.
Increased Ca+ and Mg+ causes increased resistance to which microoganism?
a)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b)
Staphylococcus aureus
c)
Streptococcus pneumoniae
d)
Escherichia coli
20.
susceptibility with __ 2 concentric rings around the disk, measure the diameter of the outer zone.
a)
aminoglycosides
b)
sulfonamides
c)
beta lactams
21.
use non-frost free freezer at -20 degree Celsius
a)
long term
b)
short term
22.
2 to 8 degree Celsius
a)
long term
b)
short term
23.
beta lactams
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
24.
penicillin
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
25.
carbapenems
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
26.
cephalosphorins
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
27.
monobactams
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
28.
teioplamin
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
29.
vancomycin
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
30.
gentamycin
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
31.
tobramycin
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
32.
kanamycin
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
33.
colistin
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
34.
Daptomycin
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
35.
glycopeptides
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
36.
glycopeptides
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
37.
cycloserine
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
38.
bacitracin
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
39.
Tigeclycline
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
40.
aminoglycosides
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
41.
tetracycline
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
42.
Doxycycline
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
43.
erythromycin
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
44.
Azithromycin
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
45.
Clarithromycin
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
46.
Clindamycin
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
47.
chlorampenicol
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
48.
fusidic acid
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
49.
sulfonamides
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
50.
Nitrofurantoin
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
51.
Nalidixic acid
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
52.
trimethoprim
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
53.
quinolones
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
54.
rifampicin
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
55.
polymyxins
a)
Cell wall synthesis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Nucleic acid Synthesis
d)
Cell membrane function
56.
Inhibits enzymes for peptidoglycan synthesis
a)
Cell wall synthesis inhibitor
b)
Cell membrane synthesis inhibitor
c)
Protein/ribosome synthesis inhibitor
d)
Nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor
57.
Inhibit RNA synthesis
a)
Fluoroquinolones, Nalidixic acid
b)
Nitrofurantoin
c)
Sulfonamide and Trimethoprim
d)
Rifampin
58.
Interfere with folic acid pathway
a)
Fluoroquinolones, Nalidixic acid
b)
Nitrofurantoin
c)
Sulfonamide and Trimethoprim
d)
Rifampin
59.
Damages DNA directly
a)
Fluoroquinolones, Nalidixic acid
b)
Nitrofurantoin
c)
Sulfonamide and Trimethoprim
d)
Rifampin
60.
Inhibits DNA synthesis
a)
Fluoroquinolones, Nalidixic acid
b)
Nitrofurantoin
c)
Sulfonamide and Trimethoprim
d)
Rifampin
61.
Inhibits 30s ribosomal unit
a)
Aminoglycosides (Genta-. Tobra-, Strepto-, Kana-mycin), TIgecycline
b)
Chloramphenicol, Macrolide (Erythromycin, Azithromycin, Clarithromycin, Clindamycin(for anaerobes), Tetracycline, Doxycycline
c)
Linezolid, Tedizolid Streptogramin (Pristinamycin, Quinupristin, Dalfopristin)
62.
Inhibits 50s ribosomal unit
a)
Aminoglycosides (Genta-. Tobra-, Strepto-, Kana-mycin), TIgecycline
b)
Chloramphenicol, Macrolide (Erythromycin, Azithromycin, Clarithromycin, Clindamycin(for anaerobes), Tetracycline, Doxycycline
c)
Linezolid, Tedizolid Streptogramin (Pristinamycin, Quinupristin, Dalfopristin)
63.
Binds to peptidoglycan
a)
Cell wall synthesis inhibitor
b)
Cell membrane synthesis inhibitor
c)
Protein/ribosome synthesis inhibitor
d)
Nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor
64.
Which of the following binds to peptidoglycan?
a)
Penicillin
b)
Aztreonam
c)
Vancomycin
d)
Carbapenem
65.
Binds and disrupts Cell MEMBRANE
a)
Cell wall synthesis inhibitor
b)
Cell membrane synthesis inhibitor
c)
Protein/ribosome synthesis inhibitor
d)
Nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor
66.
Inhibits 30S ribosomal subunit
a)
Cell wall synthesis inhibitor
b)
Cell membrane synthesis inhibitor
c)
Protein/ribosome synthesis inhibitor
d)
Nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor
67.
Inhibit DNA synthesis
a)
Cell wall synthesis inhibitor
b)
Cell membrane synthesis inhibitor
c)
Protein/ribosome synthesis inhibitor
d)
Nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor
68.
Inhibit RNA synthesis
a)
Cell wall synthesis inhibitor
b)
Cell membrane synthesis inhibitor
c)
Protein/ribosome synthesis inhibitor
d)
Nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor
69.
Interfere with folic acid pathway
a)
Cell wall synthesis inhibitor
b)
Cell membrane synthesis inhibitor
c)
Protein/ribosome synthesis inhibitor
d)
Nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor
70.
Damages DNA directly
a)
Cell wall synthesis inhibitor
b)
Cell membrane synthesis inhibitor
c)
Protein/ribosome synthesis inhibitor
d)
Nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor
71.
Inhibits 50S ribosomal subunit
a)
Cell wall synthesis inhibitor
b)
Cell membrane synthesis inhibitor
c)
Protein/ribosome synthesis inhibitor
d)
Nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor
72.
penicillin
a)
beta lactams
b)
glycopeptides
c)
cycloserine
d)
bacitracin
73.
carbapenems
a)
beta lactams
b)
glycopeptides
c)
cycloserine
d)
bacitracin
74.
cephalosporins
a)
beta lactams
b)
glycopeptides
c)
cycloserine
d)
bacitracin
75.
monobactams
a)
beta lactams
b)
glycopeptides
c)
cycloserine
d)
bacitracin
76.
teioplamin
a)
beta lactams
b)
glycopeptides
c)
cycloserine
d)
bacitracin
77.
vancomycin
a)
beta lactams
b)
glycopeptides
c)
cycloserine
d)
bacitracin
78.
too much use may lead to aplastic anemia
a)
aminoglycosides
b)
tetracycline
c)
erythromycin
d)
chloramphenicol
e)
fusidic acid
79.
inhibits bone growth
a)
aminoglycosides
b)
tetracycline
c)
erythromycin
d)
chloramphenicol
e)
fusidic acid
80.
gentamycin
a)
aminoglycosides
b)
tetracycline
c)
erythromycin
d)
chloramphenicol
e)
fusidic acid
81.
kanamycin
a)
aminoglycosides
b)
tetracycline
c)
erythromycin
d)
chloramphenicol
e)
fusidic acid
82.
tobramycin
a)
aminoglycosides
b)
tetracycline
c)
erythromycin
d)
chloramphenicol
e)
fusidic acid
83.
part of "RIPES" therapy for treating Mycobacterium tuberculosis' infections
a)
sulfonamides
b)
trimethoprim
c)
quinolones
d)
rifampicin
84.
lactate included in culture medium for N. gonorrhoeae growth
a)
sulfonamides
b)
trimethoprim
c)
quinolones
d)
rifampicin
e)
polymyxin
85.
colistin
a)
sulfonamides
b)
trimethoprim
c)
quinolones
d)
rifampicin
e)
polymyxin
86.
also incorporated in N. gonorrhoeae medium
a)
colistin
b)
quinolones
c)
rifampicin
d)
trimethoprim
87.
all of the following are carbohydrate sources in triple sugar iron culture medium EXCEPT;
a)
glucose
b)
fructose
c)
sucrose
d)
lactose
88.
pH indicator in TSI
a)
neutral red
b)
phenol red
c)
bromcresol purple
d)
bromothymol blue
89.
H2S indicator in TSI
a)
ferric citrate
b)
ferric ammonium citrate
c)
ferrous sulfate
d)
sodium thiosulfate
90.
sulfur source in TSI
a)
ferric citrate
b)
ferric ammonium citrate
c)
ferrous sulfate
d)
sodium thiosulfate
91.
pattern of streaking in TSI
a)
stab
b)
stab and streak
c)
swirl
d)
streak
92.
TSI
a)
deep
b)
butt and slant
c)
slant only
d)
butt only
93.
Acidic microorganisms color in TSI
a)
purple
b)
yellow
c)
pink
d)
red
e)
green
94.
Alkaline microorganisms color in TSI
a)
purple
b)
yellow
c)
pink
d)
red
e)
green
95.
Yellow/yellow, Gas positive, no blackening
a)
A/AG H2S-(NEGATIVE)
b)
K/AG H2S+(POSITIVE)
c)
K/A H2S-(NEGATIVE)
d)
K/K H2S-(NEGATIVE)
96.
Escherichia coli in TSI
a)
A/AG H2S-(NEGATIVE)
b)
K/AG H2S+(POSITIVE)
c)
K/A H2S-(NEGATIVE)
d)
K/K H2S-(NEGATIVE)
97.
Klebsiella spp. in TSI
a)
A/AG H2S-(NEGATIVE)
b)
K/AG H2S+(POSITIVE)
c)
K/A H2S-(NEGATIVE)
d)
K/K H2S-(NEGATIVE)
98.
Enterobacter spp. in TSI
a)
A/AG H2S-(NEGATIVE)
b)
K/AG H2S+(POSITIVE)
c)
K/A H2S-(NEGATIVE)
d)
K/K H2S-(NEGATIVE)
99.
Red/Yellow, with gas formation and blackening in TSI
a)
A/AG H2S-(NEGATIVE)
b)
K/AG H2S+(POSITIVE)
c)
K/A H2S-(NEGATIVE)
d)
K/K H2S-(NEGATIVE)
100.
Salmonella spp. in TSI
a)
A/AG H2S-(NEGATIVE)
b)
K/AG H2S+(POSITIVE)
c)
K/A H2S-(NEGATIVE)
d)
K/K H2S-(NEGATIVE)
101.
Proteus spp. in TSI
a)
A/AG H2S-(NEGATIVE)
b)
K/AG H2S+(POSITIVE)
c)
K/A H2S-(NEGATIVE)
d)
K/K H2S-(NEGATIVE)
102.
Red/yellow, no gas formation and no blackening.
a)
A/AG H2S-(NEGATIVE)
b)
K/AG H2S+(POSITIVE)
c)
K/A H2S-(NEGATIVE)
d)
K/K H2S-(NEGATIVE)
103.
Shigella spp. in TSI
a)
A/AG H2S-(NEGATIVE)
b)
K/AG H2S+(POSITIVE)
c)
K/A H2S-(NEGATIVE)
d)
K/K H2S-(NEGATIVE)
104.
Red/Red, no gas formation, no blackening
a)
A/AG H2S-(NEGATIVE)
b)
K/AG H2S+(POSITIVE)
c)
K/A H2S-(NEGATIVE)
d)
K/K H2S-(NEGATIVE)
105.
Other gram-negative organisms TSI reaction
a)
A/AG H2S-(NEGATIVE)
b)
K/AG H2S+(POSITIVE)
c)
K/A H2S-(NEGATIVE)
d)
K/K H2S-(NEGATIVE)
106.
first letter in A/AG H2S- indicates..
a)
butt
b)
slant
107.
second letter in A/AG H2S- indicates..
a)
butt
b)
slant
108.
glucose in TSI is seen in..
a)
butt
b)
slant
109.
lactose and sucrose in TSI are seen in..
a)
butt
b)
slant
110.
Butt
a)
glucose
b)
lactose
c)
sucrose
111.
Slant
a)
glucose
b)
lactose
c)
sucrose
112.
color of glucose fermenters
a)
purple
b)
yellow
c)
red/pink
d)
green
113.
color of lactose fermenters in TSI
a)
purple
b)
yellow
c)
red/pink
d)
green
114.
color of non-lactose fermenters in TSI
a)
purple
b)
yellow
c)
red/pink
d)
green
115.
color of non-sucrose fermenters in TSI
a)
purple
b)
yellow
c)
red/pink
d)
green
116.
color of non-glucose fermenters in TSI
a)
purple
b)
yellow
c)
red/pink
d)
green
117.
All Enterobacteruaceae are aerogenic EXCEPT;
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
c)
Proteus spp.
d)
Edwardsiella spp.
118.
can be used to determine the organism to deaminase lysine, decarboxylate lysine and produce H2S
a)
Triple Sugar Iron
b)
Lysine Iron Agar
119.
lysine deaminase
a)
slant
b)
butt
120.
lysine decarboxylase
a)
slant
b)
butt
121.
Positive color in lysine deaminase
a)
red
b)
purple
c)
yellow
122.
Negative color in lysine deaminase
a)
red
b)
purple
c)
yellow
123.
Positive color in lysine decarboxylase
a)
red
b)
purple
c)
yellow
124.
Negative color in lysine decarboxylase
a)
red
b)
purple
c)
yellow
125.
Acidic color indicator in LIA
a)
red
b)
purple
c)
yellow
126.
Alkaline color indicator in LIA
a)
red
b)
purple
c)
yellow
127.
slant in LIA
a)
lysine deaminase
b)
lysine decarboxylase
128.
butt in LIA
a)
lysine deaminase
b)
lysine decarboxylase
129.
H2s indicator in LIA
a)
ferric citrate
b)
ferric ammonium citrate
c)
ferrous sulfate
d)
sodium thiosulfate
130.
pH indicator in LIA
a)
bromcresol purple
b)
bromothymol blue
c)
phenol red
d)
neutral red
131.
The only H2S producing microorganism that becomes negative for H2S in LIA due to insufficient amount of sodium thiosulfate on the said culture medium.
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Salmonella arizonae
c)
Proteus
d)
Citrobacter
132.
Purple/purple with blackening.
a)
K/K, H2S+(POSITIVE)
b)
K/A H2S-(NEGATIVE)
c)
R/A, H2S-(NEGATIVE
133.
Negative for lysine deaminase, positive for lysine decarboxylase
a)
K/K, H2S+(POSITIVE)
b)
K/A H2S-(NEGATIVE)
c)
R/A, H2S-(NEGATIVE
134.
Salmonella spp. on LIA
a)
K/K, H2S+(POSITIVE)
b)
K/A H2S-(NEGATIVE)
c)
R/A, H2S-(NEGATIVE
135.
Shigella spp. on LIA
a)
K/K, H2S+(POSITIVE)
b)
K/A H2S-(NEGATIVE)
c)
R/A, H2S-(NEGATIVE
136.
Proteus spp. on LIA
a)
K/K, H2S+(POSITIVE)
b)
K/A H2S-(NEGATIVE)
c)
R/A, H2S-(NEGATIVE
137.
Providencia spp. on LIA
a)
K/K, H2S+(POSITIVE)
b)
K/A H2S-(NEGATIVE)
c)
R/A, H2S-(NEGATIVE
138.
Morganella spp. on LIA
a)
K/K, H2S+(POSITIVE)
b)
K/A H2S-(NEGATIVE)
c)
R/A, H2S-(NEGATIVE
139.
Positive for lysine deaminase, negative for lysine decarboxylase
a)
K/K, H2S+(POSITIVE)
b)
K/A H2S-(NEGATIVE)
c)
R/A, H2S-(NEGATIVE
140.
Red/yellow
a)
K/K, H2S+(POSITIVE)
b)
K/A H2S-(NEGATIVE)
c)
R/A, H2S-(NEGATIVE
141.
Negative for lysine deaminase, negative for lysine decarboxylase
a)
K/K, H2S+(POSITIVE)
b)
K/A H2S-(NEGATIVE)
c)
R/A, H2S-(NEGATIVE
142.
Purple/yellow
a)
K/K, H2S+(POSITIVE)
b)
K/A H2S-(NEGATIVE)
c)
R/A, H2S-(NEGATIVE
143.
Chloramphenicol
a)
Generally Bacteriostatic
b)
Generally Bactericidal
144.
Quinopristin/Dalfopristin
a)
Generally Bacteriostatic
b)
Generally Bactericidal
145.
Linezolid
a)
Generally Bacteriostatic
b)
Generally Bactericidal
146.
Tigecycline
a)
Generally Bacteriostatic
b)
Generally Bactericidal
147.
Tetracycline
a)
Generally Bacteriostatic
b)
Generally Bactericidal
148.
Trimethoprim
a)
Generally Bacteriostatic
b)
Generally Bactericidal
149.
Sulfonamide
a)
Generally Bacteriostatic
b)
Generally Bactericidal
150.
Clindamycin
a)
Generally Bacteriostatic
b)
Generally Bactericidal
151.
Erythromycin/Macrolide
a)
Generally Bacteriostatic
b)
Generally Bactericidal
152.
Vancomycin
a)
Generally Bacteriostatic
b)
Generally Bactericidal
153.
Daptomycin
a)
Generally Bacteriostatic
b)
Generally Bactericidal
154.
Colistin
a)
Generally Bacteriostatic
b)
Generally Bactericidal
155.
Metronidazole
a)
Generally Bacteriostatic
b)
Generally Bactericidal
156.
Rifampin
a)
Generally Bacteriostatic
b)
Generally Bactericidal
157.
Levofloxacin
a)
Generally Bacteriostatic
b)
Generally Bactericidal
158.
Tedizolid
a)
Generally Bacteriostatic
b)
Generally Bactericidal
159.
Beta-lactam (-cillin, cephems, and -penem)
a)
Generally Bacteriostatic
b)
Generally Bactericidal
160.
Aminoglycosides (-mycin)
a)
Generally Bacteriostatic
b)
Generally Bactericidal
161.
Fosfomycin
a)
Generally Bacteriostatic
b)
Generally Bactericidal
100 %
