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Pharm Review Questions (Pharm 2)

Total questions: 42

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following medications is incompatible with Vancomycin due to increased risk of nephrotoxicity?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Cisplatin

c)

Hormonal contraceptives

d)

Methotrexate

2.

What is the primary purpose of routine audiometry for clients receiving gentamicin?

a)

To monitor for renal function.

b)

To assess for potential ototoxicity.

c)

To evaluate the effectiveness of the antibiotic treatment.

d)

To detect bacterial resistance.

3.

A client receiving gentamicin presents with symptoms of dizziness and tinnitus. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Assess the client's renal function and report any abnormalities.

b)

Increase the client's fluid intake to prevent dehydration.

c)

Document the symptoms and schedule a follow-up for the next day.

d)

Administer a dose of antihistamine to relieve dizziness.

4.

A patient is prescribed amoxicillin for the treatment of a bacterial infection. Which of the following client teachings should be included to prevent potential complications associated with this antibiotic?

a)

It is important to take the medication with food to enhance absorption.

b)

Monitor for signs of superinfection and report any tarry stools to your provider.

c)

You may stop taking the antibiotic once you feel better to avoid unnecessary use.

d)

This medication can be taken with antacids to reduce stomach upset.

5.

A client with a penicillin allergy is prescribed Amoxicillin. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Administer the medication and monitor for adverse reactions.

b)

Notify the healthcare provider of the allergy before administering the medication.

c)

Educate the client about the possible side effects of Amoxicillin.

d)

Check the client's vital signs before administering the medication.

6.

What is the nurse's priority action when a client refuses prescribed antibiotics due to experiencing nausea?

a)

Assess the client for other causes of nausea.

b)

Document the refusal and notify the provider immediately.

c)

Provide antiemetic medication to reduce nausea.

d)

Offer the antibiotic with food to minimize nausea.

7.

A client was admitted with pyelonephritis and started on IV antibiotics 48 hours ago. At the time of admission, the client’s data were:

Temperature: 102.6°F (39.2°C)

  • Heart rate: 116/min

  • Blood pressure: 98/60 mm Hg

  • WBC: 19,400/mm³

  • Pain at costovertebral angle: 8/10

Which set of findings at 48 hours should the nurse identify as the best indication that antibiotic therapy is effective?

a)

Temperature 99.3°F (37.4°C); heart rate 84/min; blood pressure 118/72 mm Hg; WBC 10,800/mm³; pain 3/10

b)

Temperature 101.9°F (38.8°C); heart rate 110/min; blood pressure 96/60 mm Hg; WBC 20,200/mm³; pain 7/10

c)

Temperature 100.9°F (38.3°C); heart rate 104/min; blood pressure 100/64 mm Hg; WBC 18,900/mm³; pain 8/10

d)

Temperature 99.0°F (37.2°C); heart rate 120/min; blood pressure 88/54 mm Hg; WBC 11,000/mm³; pain 8/10

8.

A nurse is teaching a client about using cromolyn for asthma management. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

I will use cromolyn for acute asthma attacks.

b)

I will use cromolyn regularly to prevent asthma symptoms.

c)

I understand that cromolyn is not a rescue medication.

d)

I will stop using cromolyn if I feel better.

9.

Which contraindication to the inactivated influenza vaccine should the nurse recognize during a client assessment?

a)

History of severe allergic reaction to eggs.

b)

Current upper respiratory infection with mild symptoms.

c)

Age greater than 65 years.

d)

History of mild fever after previous vaccinations.

10.

What long-term adverse effect should the nurse anticipate in a client undergoing extended glucocorticoid therapy for connective tissue disorders?

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Peripheral neuropathy

d)

Increased renal function

11.

Which action should the nurse take when a client with migraine headaches reports no relief after taking prescribed medications?

a)

Recommend over-the-counter pain relievers.

b)

Suggest the client rest in a dark, quiet room.

c)

Advise the client to increase caffeine intake.

d)

Encourage the client to perform light exercise.

12.

Which finding in a client taking carbamazepine should prompt immediate follow-up by the nurse?

a)

Mild dizziness when standing.

b)

A rash developing on the skin.

c)

Increased appetite.

d)

Mild headache.

13.

Which medication should be avoided in a client taking carbamazepine for seizure control?

a)

Levetiracetam

b)

Lamotrigine

c)

Grapefruit juice

d)

Valproic acid

14.

Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for when administering ergotamine for migraine pain management?

a)

Peripheral vasoconstriction leading to gangrene

b)

Hyperglycemia due to increased cortisol

c)

Severe hypotension due to vasodilation

d)

Pulmonary edema due to fluid overload

15.

A patient with alcohol use disorder is experiencing withdrawal symptoms. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?

a)

Administering lorazepam as prescribed.

b)

Seizure precautions

c)

Providing a high-sugar snack for energy.

d)

Provide a low stimulus environment.

16.

A nurse is educating a client on Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

TPN can be administered through a peripheral vein.

b)

TPN includes essential nutrients like glucose, amino acids, and vitamins.

c)

I should monitor for signs of infection at the catheter site.

d)

TPN requires daily monitoring of blood glucose levels.

17.

What is the most critical adverse effect to monitor in a client receiving total parenteral nutrition?

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Anemia

d)

Hypertension

18.

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) therapy and has just returned to the room following physical therapy. The nurse notes that the infusion pump for the client's TPN is turned off. After restarting the infusion pump, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings?

a)
  • Hypertension

b)
  • Excessive thirst

c)
  • Fever

d)
  • Diaphoresis

19.

A client receiving warfarin therapy asks about over-the-counter (OTC) medications. Which advice should the nurse provide?

a)

Avoid taking aspirin or ibuprofen without consulting your healthcare provider.

b)

You can take acetaminophen freely as it does not affect warfarin.

c)

Herbal supplements are safe to use alongside warfarin.

d)

OTC cold medications have no interaction with warfarin therapy.

20.

A nurse is preparing to administer adenosine to a client experiencing supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a)

Administer the medication slowly over 2 minutes

b)

Follow the dose with a rapid 0.9% sodium chloride flush

c)

Place the client in the Trendelenburg position

d)

Administer the medication through a distal peripheral IV site

21.

What action should the nurse take first when administering adenosine to a client with supraventricular tachycardia?

a)

Ensure continuous cardiac monitoring

b)

Administer oxygen via nasal cannula

c)

Monitor blood pressure every 15 minutes

d)

Start an IV infusion of normal saline

22.

A nurse is calculating the flow rate for Lidocaine infusion. If the order is for 2 mg/min and the solution contains 800 mg in 250 mL, what should the flow rate be set to?

a)

37.5 mL/hr

b)

75 mL/hr

c)

50 mL/hr

d)

25 mL/hr

23.

A nurse is calculating a medication dose for a pediatric client. The order states 0.05 mg/kg/day divided into two doses. The child weighs 20 kg. What is the dose per administration?

a)

0.5 mg

b)

1 mg

c)

0.25 mg

24.

A client on levothyroxine reports palpitations and weight loss. What is the priority action for the nurse?

a)

Reassure the client that these symptoms are normal.

b)

Instruct the client to take the medication with food.

c)

Notify the healthcare provider for potential dose adjustment.

d)

Advise the client to increase fluid intake.

25.

A client is prescribed methotrexate for severe psoriasis. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching?

a)

“Increase intake of foods high in folic acid to reduce side effects.”

b)

“You may drink alcohol in moderation.”

c)

“Take this medication on an empty stomach for best absorption.”

d)

“You may receive live vaccines while taking this medication.”

26.

A client with connective tissue disorder is prescribed Methotrexate. What key understanding should the client demonstrate?

a)

Methotrexate will cure their condition immediately.

b)

They must take Methotrexate exactly as prescribed to avoid toxicity.

c)

They can discontinue Methotrexate if they feel better.

d)

It is safe to drink alcohol while taking Methotrexate.

27.

A nurse is assessing a client who has been experiencing vomiting and diarrhea for 3 days. The provider has prescribed IV potassium chloride (KCl) 20 mEq in 100 mL NS. Which of the following findings supports the indication for administering this medication?

a)

ECG showing peaked T waves

b)

Serum potassium 3.2 mEq/L

c)

Urine output 15 mL/hr

d)

Serum creatinine 2.4 mg/dL

28.

A nurse is assessing a client with a recent history of vomiting and reports of weakness. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as signs of hypokalemia? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Muscle weakness

b)

Hypoactive bowel sounds

c)

Tall, peaked T waves on ECG

d)

Irregular pulse

e)

Shallow respirations

29.

A nurse is evaluating a client who has been receiving IV furosemide for acute heart failure. Which of the following findings indicates the medication is effective?

a)

Decrease in potassium level from 4.1 to 3.2 mEq/L

b)

Blood pressure change from 138/88 to 160/94 mm Hg

c)

Reduction in bilateral lung crackles and improved oxygen saturation

d)

Urine output of 20 mL/hr for the past 2 hours

30.

What is a crucial step in safe medication administration?

a)

Double-checking the client's room number before administration.

b)

Verifying the medication order against the MAR.

c)

Administering medication as soon as it is dispensed from the pharmacy.

d)

Documenting administration before giving the medication.

31.

When calculating atropine IV dosing for a pediatric client, what critical factor must the nurse consider?

a)

The child’s weight in kilograms.

b)

The child’s age in months.

c)

The child’s height in centimeters.

d)

The child’s blood pressure.

32.

A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking levothyroxine for 3 weeks. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

a)

Difficulty sleeping

b)

Mild anxiety

c)

Heart rate of 122/min

d)

Reports feeling warmer than usual

33.

What should a nurse anticipate as a priority prescription for a client experiencing hypotension?

a)

Administering intravenous fluids.

b)

Encouraging oral fluid intake.

c)

Recommending bed rest.

d)

Applying a warm compress to the extremities.

34.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is prescribed ferrous sulfate for iron-deficiency anemia. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

“I will take this medication on an empty stomach for best absorption.”

b)

“I can take this with orange juice to help with absorption.”

c)

“It’s normal if my stools turn black while taking this medication.”

d)

“I should take this with my antacid to reduce stomach upset.”

35.

A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV potassium chloride (KCl) for hypokalemia. Which of the following findings requires the nurse to stop the infusion and notify the provider immediately?

a)

Mild burning at the IV site

b)

Heart rate of 58/min

c)

New peaked T waves on the ECG

d)

Serum potassium level of 3.4 mEq/L

36.

The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client with newly diagnosed hypertension. Which of the following medication prescriptions should the nurse expect for initial treatment?

a)

Metoprolol

b)

Lisinopril

c)

Furosemide

d)

Clonidine

37.

Which of the following medications are used for the treatment of a peptic ulcer caused by Helicobacter pylori?

a)

Omeprazole

b)

Clarithromycin

c)

Amoxicillin

d)

Sucralfate

e)

Metronidazole

38.

Which of the following medications decrease gastric acid production?
(Select all that apply.)

a)

Omeprazole

b)

Famotidine

c)

Aluminum hydroxide

d)

Sucralfate

e)

Pantoprazole

39.

Which of the following are adverse effects the nurse should monitor for in a patient taking proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)?
(Select all that apply.)

a)

Bone fractures

b)

Hypomagnesemia

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Constipation

e)

Clostridioides difficile infection

40.

A nurse is teaching a client who has a gastric ulcer and is prescribed sucralfate. Which of the following statements indicates the client understands the teaching?

a)

“I will take this medication with meals to help it coat my stomach.”

b)

I will take this medication 1 hour before meals and at bedtime.”

c)

“I should take my other medications at the same time as sucralfate.”

d)

“This medication reduces stomach acid and provides quick relief.”

41.

A nurse is teaching a client who is prescribed misoprostol to prevent gastric ulcers from long-term NSAID therapy. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

“I should take this medication with food.”

b)

“I will stop taking NSAIDs while I’m using this medication.”

c)

“I should use reliable birth control while taking this medication.”

d)

“I will notify my provider immediately if I think I’m pregnant.”

42.

A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who is exhibiting crackles in the lungs, 2+ pitting edema in the ankles, and reports shortness of breath when lying flat. The provider prescribes IV furosemide. Which assessment finding requires immediate nursing intervention before administering the medication?

a)

. Blood pressure 138/82 mm Hg

b)

Serum potassium 2.9 mEq/L

c)

Urine output 60 mL over the past hour

d)

Respiratory rate 22/min with oxygen saturation 94%