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Accounting Finals Review

Total questions: 130

Worksheet time: 11hrs 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
  1. Cash in bank includes restricted funds deposited in a bank that can be withdrawn upon demand of the entity .

a)

True

b)

False

2.
  1. Share issuance costs shall be charged to Share Premium from the share issuance.

a)

True

b)

False

3.
  1. At the end of reporting period, the company recognizes expenses that were incurred during the period but were not paid.  This is done so that expenses and liabilities are not overstated and profits are not understated.

a)

True

b)

False

4.
  1. Share dividends payable is not a liability but rather presented as addition to share capital in the shareholders' equity section of the statement of financial position.

a)

True

b)

False

5.
  1. Deferred revenue is income already received but not yet earned

a)

True

b)

False

6.
  1. Under the journal entry method, the issuance of share certificate is recorded by a credit to the share capital account.

a)

True

b)

False

7.
  1. Provisions or Estimated Liabilities differ from Other Liabilities because of the uncertainty in the timing of their settlement or the amount needed to settle them.

a)

True

b)

False

8.
  1. Dividends may still be declared by the Board of Directors even if the corporation incurred a net loss for the current year provided there is sufficient balance of retained earnings. 

a)

True

b)

False

9.
  1. When the bonds are sold at a premium, the effective rate is greater than the nominal rate.

a)

True

b)

False

10.
  1. The relationship between current liabilities and current assets is important in evaluating a company's ability to pay off its long-term debt.

a)

True

b)

False

11.
  1. Trade payables are classified as current liabilities when they are expected to be settled within the normal operating cycle or one year, whichever is shorter.

a)

True

b)

False

12.
  1. Cash in bank includes restricted funds deposited in a bank that can be withdrawn upon demand of the entity .

a)

True

b)

False

13.
  1. Contingent liabilities are obligations which exist at the end of the reporting period although their amount is not definite.

a)

True

b)

False

14.
  1. Treasury shares are a company’s own shares that have been issued and reacquired.

a)

True

b)

False

15.
  1. Preference share does not usually carry the right to vote.

a)

True

b)

False

16.
  1. Premiums Payable is an example of a determinable current liability. 

a)

True

b)

False

17.
  1. A company whose current liabilities exceed its current assets may have a solvency problem.

a)

True

b)

False

18.
  1. If an entity cannot distinguish the research phase of an internal project to create an intangible asset from the development phase, the entity treats the expenditure for that project as if it were incurred in the research phase.

a)

True

b)

False

19.
  1. Goodwill is not recognized in accounting unless it is acquired from another business enterprise

a)

True

b)

False

20.
  1. Depletion expense is reported in the income statement as an operating expense.

a)

True

b)

False

21.
  1. When purchasing delivery equipment, sales taxes and motor vehicle licenses should be charged to Delivery Equipment.

a)

True

b)

False

22.
  1. Recording depreciation each period is an application of the matching principle.

a)

True

b)

False

23.
  1. Natural resources are long-lived productive assets that are extracted in operations and are replaceable only by an act of nature.

a)

True

b)

False

24.
  1. Salvage value is not subtracted from plant asset cost in determining depreciation expense under the declining-balance method of depreciation

a)

True

b)

False

25.
  1. The cost of property, plant and equipment comprises its purchase price, including import duties and non-refundable taxes before deducting trade discounts and rebates.

a)

True

b)

False

26.
  1. Additions and improvements to a plant asset that increase the asset's operating efficiency, productive capacity, or expected useful life are generally expensed in the period incurred.

a)

True

b)

False

27.
  1. Recording depreciation on plant assets affects the balance sheet and the income statement.

a)

True

b)

False

28.
  1. Under the double-declining-balance method, the depreciation rate used each year remains constant.

a)

True

b)

False

29.
  1. A loss on the exchange of plant assets occurs when the fair market value of the old asset is less than its book value.

a)

True

b)

False

30.
  1. The cost of a patent should be amortized over its legal life or useful life, whichever is longer.

a)

True

b)

False

31.
  1. When purchasing land, the costs for clearing, draining, filling, and grading should be charged to a Land Improvements account.

a)

True

b)

False

32.
  1. The balances of the major classes of plant assets and accumulated depreciation by major classes should be disclosed in the notes to financial statements.

a)

True

b)

False

33.
  1. Both merchandising and manufacturing companies normally have multiple inventory accounts.

a)

True

b)

False

34.
  1. Specific identification is used for inventories that are not ordinarily interchangeable and those that are segregated for individually unique items.

a)

True

b)

False

35.
  1. Cash discounts are deducted from the list price to arrive at the invoice price.

a)

True

b)

False

36.
  1. An inventory write-down exists when the cost is greater than its net realizable value.

a)

True

b)

False

37.
  1. In all cases when FIFO is used, the cost of goods sold would be the same whether a perpetual or periodic system is used.

a)

True

b)

False

38.
  1. Weighted average cost and moving average cost always produce the same peso amounts for ending inventory

a)

True

b)

False

39.
  1. Radiant, Inc. sells collectible jewelry on consignment from various manufacturers and should include this consigned inventory on its statement of financial position.

a)

True

b)

False

40.
  1. Goods in transit, shipped FOB shipping point, are included in the seller’s statement of financial position at the time of delivery to the common carrier.

a)

True

b)

False

41.
  1. Investment in debt securities at amortized cost is measured by computing its present value using the effective interest method

a)

True

b)

False

42.

In Investment in Equity Securities measured at fair value through profit or loss, if the fair value at year end is greater than carrying amount, there is unrealized gain to be recognized in the Income Statement.

a)

True

b)

False

43.
  1. The investment in associate shall be initially recognized at cost which is fair value plus transaction costs and is subsequently measured at fair value method.

a)

True

b)

False

44.
  1. The treatment of transaction costs incurred in the acquisition of investment in debt securities measured at fair value through other comprehensive income shall be expensed by the entity upon purchase.

a)

True

b)

False

45.
  1. Financial assets held for trading and are popularly known as trading securities  are measured at fair value through profit or loss as required by the standard.

a)

True

b)

False

46.
  1. The Philippine Financial Reporting Standard requires that companies classify financial assets into two measurement categories – amortized cost and fair value

a)

True

b)

False

47.
  1. Investments are debt or equity instruments of another entity mainly held for active income.

a)

True

b)

False

48.
  1. Postdated checks issued by an entity do not qualify cash because postdated checks are not yet presently available for immediate use.

a)

True

b)

False

49.
  1. In cases where there is a conflict between an accounting standard and the Conceptual Framework, the requirement of the Conceptual Framework will prevail over the requirements of the accounting standard.

a)

True

b)

False

50.
  1. Notes to financial statements are considered an integral part of general-purpose reporting.

a)

True

b)

False

51.
  1. The Conceptual Framework forms the foundation of accounting.

a)

True

b)

False

52.
  1. For financial information to be useful, it must be reliable and faithfully represent what it purports to represent.

a)

True

b)

False

53.
  1. Customers' credit balances resulting from overpayments, returns and allowances  and advance collections from customers  are classified as current assets in the statement of financial position.

a)

True

b)

False

54.
  1. When a company already issued and recorded a check to the payee, but the latter has not presented this check to the bank for deposit or encashment for a relatively long period of time, it is known as a stale check.

a)

True

b)

False

55.
  1. Trade receivables are generally classified as current because of the concept of normal operating cycle.

a)

True

b)

False

56.
  1. The note is issued at a premium when the nominal rate is less than its effective rate.

a)

True

b)

False

57.
  1. The present value is the sum of all future cash flows discounted using the nominal rate at the date of issuance of the note.

a)

True

b)

False

58.
  1. Financial statements are prepared on the assumption that the reporting entity will continue in operation for the foreseeable future of time.

a)

True

b)

False

59.
  1. Bank overdrafts occur only in the checking accounts.

a)

True

b)

False

60.
  1. The qualitative characteristic of "timeliness" ensures that financial information is made available before it loses its ability to influence decisions.

a)

True

b)

False

61.
  1. An asset is a present economic resource owned by the entity as a result of past events.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Which of the following is true about bank overdraft?

a)

Classified as a current liability

b)

Classified aaa an addition under the shareholders’ equity section

c)

Classified as a current asset

d)

A debit balance in cash in a bank account

63.

In which of the following accounts are post-dated checks received classified?

a)

Payables

b)

Receivables

c)

Cash

d)

Prepaid expense

64.

Which of the following is the primary reason why a company sells it’s receivables to another entity

a)

To limit it’s legal liability

b)

To accelerate access to amounts collected

c)

To comply with customer agreements

d)

To improve the quality of. It’s credit granting process

65.

Accounts receivable shall be reported at

a)

Present value

b)

Fair value less transaction costs

c)

Net realizable value

d)

Fair value

66.

Under GAAP, which bases of accounting is most commonly used in the preparation of financially statements?

a)

Tax basis

b)

Cash basis

c)

Accrual basis

d)

Modified cash basis

67.

What is the basic requirements for cash and cash equivalent?

a)

Set aside for the payment of long-term debt

b)

Unrestricted in use for current operations

c)

Set aside for the purchase of plant, property and equipment

d)

Deposited in a bank

68.

All of the following are classified as cash equivalents, except

a)

Three month time deposit

b)

Redeemable preference shared acquired 75 days before it’s redemption date

c)

Treasury bills acquired 6 months before it’s maturity

d)

Two year treasury bill acquired 60 days before it’s maturity

69.

What is the treatment for the interest paid by the bank to the depositor's account?

a)

A book reconciling items that is deducted from the book balance.

b)
  1. A book reconciling item that is added to the book balance.

c)

A bank reconciling item that is deducted from the book balance.

d)
  1. A bank reconciling item that is added to the book balance.

70.

What is the objective of financial statements

a)
  1. To assess management stewardship.

b)
  1. To provide information about the economic resources of an entity, claims against the entity, and changes in the economic resources and claims.

c)
  1. To assess future cash flows to the entity.

d)

To satisfy the information needs of primary users.

71.

Which of the following statements best describes "comparability" in the context of useful financial information?

a)
  1. Information is verifiable.

b)

Information is measured and reported in a similar manner across points in time.

c)

Information is measured and reported in a similar manner across entities

d)
  1. Information is relevant.

72.
  1. Which form of receivable financing is equivalent to an absolute sale of accounts receivable?  

a)
  1. Assignment of accounts receivable

b)
  1. Discounting of notes receivable

c)

Factoring

d)
  1. Pledge of accounts receivable

73.
  1. Which of the following items should not be included in “cash”?

a)

Checks from other parties presently in the cash register.

b)
  1. Coins and currency in the cash register.

c)
  1. Amounts on deposit in the checking account at the bank.

d)
  1. Money market placement.

74.
  1. It refers to the residual interest in the assets of the entity after deducting all of the liabilities.

a)

Assets

b)

Equity

c)

Expenses

d)

Income

75.
  1. Which of the following correctly describes bank reconciliation?

a)

A bank reconciliation forms part of an entity's financial statements.

b)

A bank reconciliation is a schedule that accounts for the difference between a cash balance shown on the bank statement and the cash balance shown on the general ledger.

c)
  1. A bank reconciliation is a merger of two competitor banks.

d)

A bank reconciliation is a statement sent by the bank to the depositor on a monthly basis.

76.
  1. Which of the following methods of accounting for doubtful accounts is permitted under GAAP?

a)
  1. Both Direct Write off and Allowance method

b)
  1. Allowance method

c)
  1. Neither Direct Write off nor Allowance method

d)
  1. Direct write off method

77.
  1. Net realizable value is

a)
  1. Selling price plus costs to complete and sell

b)
  1. Selling price

c)
  1. Selling price less costs to complete and sell

d)
  1. Acquisition cost plus costs to complete and sell

78.

Unrealized holding gains or losses on financial assets measured at fair value through profit or loss are reported in

a)

Equity

b)

Other comprehensive income

c)

Income statement

d)

Accumulated other comprehensive income

79.

Which of the following is not a financial asset?

a)

Inventory

b)

Cash

c)

Receivable

d)

Equity investment

80.
  1. In a period when cause are rising, an inventory equities are stable, the inventory method that would result in the highest ending inventory is:

a)

Specific identification

b)

Weighted average

c)

FIFO

d)

Moving average

81.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a perpetual inventory system?

a)
  1. Inventory purchases are debited to a Purchases account.

b)
  1. Inventory records are not kept for every item.

c)
  1. Cost of goods sold is determined as the amount of purchases less the change in inventory.

d)
  1. The cost of goods sold is recorded with each sale

82.
  1. Investments in associates are normally presented under

a)
  1. Current assets

b)
  1. Plant, property and equipment

c)
  1. Non-current assets

d)
  1. Short-term investments

83.
  1. Inventories are initially measured at 

a)

Present value

b)

Amortized cost

c)

Fair value

d)

Cost

84.

Which of the following is not included in the initial measurement of inventories?

a)
  1. Recoverable purchase taxes

b)
  1. Non refundable taxes

c)
  1. Freight, handling, and other directly attributable costs.

d)

Import duties

85.
  1. Under the net method, purchase discount lost is

a)

Charged to interest income

b)

Added to accounts payable

c)
  1. Included as a component of cost of purchases.

d)
  1. Charged as other expense in the Income Statement

86.
  1. It is any contract that evidences residual interest in the assets of an entity after deducting all of the liabilities.

a)

Financial asset measured at fair vlaue

b)

Loan receivable

c)

Debt instrument

d)

Equity instrument

87.
  1. Which of the following is a classification category for financial assets under IFRS 9?

a)

Fair value through profit or loss

b)

Available for sale

c)

Held to maturity

d)

Cost method

88.
  1. Changes in the fair value of an equity instrument classified as Fair Value Through Profit or Loss are recognized

a)
  1. In the other comprehensive income

b)

In profit or loss

c)

Only upon disposal

d)

In retained earnings

89.

Which inventory costing method is not permitted under IFRS?

a)

FIFO

b)

Average Cost

c)

LIFO

d)

Specific Identification

90.
  1. If goods in transit are shipped FOB destination

a)
  1. No one has legal title to the goods until they are delivered.

b)
  1. The seller has legal title to the goods until they are delivered.

c)
  1. The transportation company has legal title to the goods while the goods are in transit.

d)
  1. The buyer has legal title to the goods until they are delivered.

91.
  1. Which of the following costs can be capitalized as part of inventory under IFRS?

a)

Marketing expenses.

b)
  1. Storage costs for finished goods.

c)
  1. Factory rental directly related to production.

d)

Selling and distribution costs.

92.
  1. Research and development costs

a)
  1. are capitalized and then amortized over a period not to exceed 40 years.

b)
  1. are classified as intangible assets

c)
  1. must be expensed when incurred under generally accepted accounting principles.

d)

should be included in the cost of the patent they relate to.

93.
  1. Intangible assets

a)

should be reported as Current Assets on the statement of financial position

b)
  1. should be reported under the heading Property, Plant, and Equipment.

c)
  1. should be reported as a separate classification on the statement of financial position.

d)

are not reported on the balance sheet because they lack physical substance

94.
  1. The cost of successfully defending a patent in an infringement suit should be

a)
  1. added to the cost of the patent.

b)

charged to Legal Expenses.

c)
  1. recognized as a loss in the current period.

d)
  1. deducted from the book value of the patent.

95.
  1. The book value of a plant asset is the difference between the

a)
  1. replacement cost of the asset and its historical cost.

b)
  1. cost of the asset and the amount of depreciation expense for the year.

c)
  1. cost of the asset and the accumulated depreciation to date.

d)
  1. proceeds received from the sale of the asset and its original cost.

96.
  1. In computing depreciation, salvage value is

a)
  1. an estimate of a plant asset's value at the end of its useful life.

b)
  1. the fair market value of a plant asset on the date of acquisition.

c)
  1. subtracted from accumulated depreciation to determine the plant asset's depreciable cost.

d)
  1. ignored in all the depreciation methods.

97.
  1. Expenditures that maintain the operating efficiency and expected productive life of a fixed asset are

a)
  1. expensed when incurred.

b)
  1. debited to the Accumulated Depreciation account.

c)
  1. capitalized as a part of the cost of the asset.

d)
  1. recorded in an asset improvement account.

98.

Identify the item below where the terms are not related.

a)
  1. Copyright - amortization

b)
  1. Equipment - depreciation

c)
  1. Franchise - depreciation

d)
  1. Oil well - depletion

99.
  1. Depreciation is the process of allocating the cost of a plant asset over its service life in

a)
  1. a conservative market-based manner.

b)
  1. an equal and equitable manner.

c)
  1. a systematic and rational manner.

d)
  1. an accelerated and accurate manner.

100.
  1. The cost of land does not include

a)
  1. real estate brokers' commission.

b)
  1. annual property taxes.

c)
  1. accrued property taxes assumed by the purchaser.

d)
  1. title fees.

101.
  1. The most common method of recording depletion for accounting purposes is the

a)
  1. units-of-production method

b)
  1. straight-line method

c)
  1. double declining balance method.

d)
  1. percentage depletion method.

102.

Goodwill can be recorded

a)
  1. only when there is an exchange transaction involving the purchase of an entire business.

b)
  1. when the company acquires a good location for its business.

c)
  1. when customers keep returning because they are satisfied with the company's products.

d)
  1. when the company has exceptional management.

103.

Productive assets that are physically consumed in operations are:

a)

Natural resources

b)

Land

c)

Equipment

d)

Land improvement

104.
  1. A gain or loss on disposal of a plant asset is determined by comparing the

a)
  1. replacement cost of the asset with the asset's original cost.

b)
  1. book value of the asset with the asset's original.

c)
  1. book value of the asset with the proceeds received from its sale.

d)
  1. original cost of the asset with the proceeds received from its sale.

105.
  1. The calculation of depreciation using the double-declining balance method

a)

yields an increasing depreciation expense each period

b)
  1. ignores residual value in determining the amount to which the depreciation rate is applied.

c)
  1. multiplies a declining percentage by a constant carrying amount.

d)
  1. multiplies a constant percentage by the previous year's depreciation expense.

106.
  1. The book value of an asset is equal to the

a)
  1. blue book value relied on by secondary markets.

b)
  1. asset's market value less its historical cost.

c)
  1. asset's cost less accumulated depreciation.

d)
  1. replacement cost of the asset.

107.
  1. Which of the following terms is associated with recognizing a provision?

a)

Probable

b)

Likely

c)

Possible but probable

d)

Remote

108.
  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of a current liability but not a non-current liability?

a)
  1. Transaction or other event creating the liability has already occurred.

b)
  1. Settlement is expected within the normal operating cycle, or within 12 months after the reporting date.

c)
  1. Present obligation that entails settlement by probable future transfer or use of cash, goods, or services.

d)
  1. Unavoidable obligation

109.
  1. Which of the following is an appropriate presentation of treasury shares?

a)
  1. As a deduction at cost from total shareholders’ equity

b)
  1. As a deduction at cost from total liabilities 

c)
  1. As a deduction at cost from retained earnings 

d)
  1. As an investment in the assets section

110.
  1. What is the relationship between present value and the concept of a liability?

a)
  1. Present values are only used to measure non-current liabilities.

b)

Present values are not used to measure liabilities.

c)
  1. Present values are used to measure certain liabilities.

d)

Present values are used to measure all liabilities

111.
  1. The pre-emptive right of an ordinary shareholder is the right to

a)

exclude preference shareholders from voting rights.

b)
  1. share proportionately in any new issues of stock of the same class.

c)
  1. share proportionately in corporate assets upon liquidation

d)

receive cash dividends before they are distributed to preference shareholders.

112.

Which of the following situations may give rise to unearned revenue?

a)
  1. Selling inventory. 

b)
  1. Providing manufacturer warranties 

c)
  1. Providing trade credit to customers. 

d)
  1. Selling magazine subscriptions. 

113.

Which of the following represents the total number of shares that a corporation may issue under the terms of its charter?

a)
  1. issued shares 

b)
  1. authorized shares 

c)
  1. unissued shares 

d)
  1. outstanding shares 

114.
  1. In accounting for shareholders' equity, the accountant is primarily concerned with which of the following?

a)
  1. Recording the source of each of the various elements of shareholders' equity.

b)
  1. Making sure that the directors do not declare dividends in excess of retained earnings.

c)
  1. Distinguishing between realized and unrealized revenue.

d)
  1. Determining the total amount of shareholders' equity.

115.
  1. Bonds issued with scheduled maturities at various dates are called

a)

Term bonds

b)

Serial bonds

c)

Convertible bonds

d)

Callable bonds

116.
  1. After initial recognition, bonds payable shall be measured at

a)
  1. fair value through profit or loss. 

b)

amortized cost using effective interest method.

c)
  1. either amortized cost using effective interest method or fair value through profit or loss.

d)
  1. either amortized cost using effective interest method or fair value through other comprehensive income.

117.
  1. The accounting for warranty cost is based on the matching principle, which requires that the estimated cost of honoring warranty contracts should be recognized as an expense

a)
  1. at the end of the warranty period. 

b)
  1. when the product is brought in for repairs. 

c)
  1. only if the repairs are expected to be made within one year.

d)
  1. in the period in which the product was sold

118.
  1. The pre-emptive right enables a shareholder to

a)
  1. sell ordinary shares back to the corporation at the option of the shareholder.

b)
  1. receive cash dividends before other classes of stock without the pre-emptive right.

c)
  1. share proportionately in any new issues of shares of the same class.

d)

receive the same amount of dividends on a percentage basis as the preference shareholders.

119.
  1. The proceeds from the issue of the bonds payable

a)
  1. may be equal, more or less than the face amount depending on market interest rate.

b)

will always be less than the face amount.

c)
  1. will always be more than the face amount. 

d)
  1. will always be equal to the face amount. 

120.
  1. The cumulative feature of preference shares

a)
  1. requires that preference dividends not paid in any year must be made up in a later year before dividends are distributed to ordinary shareholders.

b)
  1. enables a preference shareholder to accumulate dividends until they equal the par value of the shares and receive the shares in place of the cash dividends.

c)
  1. limits the amount of cumulative dividends to the par value of the preference shares.

d)
  1. means that the shareholder can accumulate preference shares until it is equal to the par value of ordinary shares at which time it can be converted into ordinary shares.

121.

Which of the following methods is commonly used to estimate the useful life of an asset?

a)

Industry standards

b)

Replacement cost method

c)

Market value assessment

d)

Historical cost analysis

122.

  1. What is the primary purpose of a cash flow statement?

a)

To assess the profitability of the company

b)

To report the financial position at a specific date

c)

To show the liquidity position of the company

d)

To provide a summary of revenues and expenses

123.

  1. Which of the following is a key characteristic of a liability?

a)

  1. It is always due within one year.

b)

  1. It can only be settled through the transfer of goods.

c)

  1. It is an obligation that is expected to be settled in cash or other assets.

d)

  1. It represents a future economic benefit.

124.

What is the primary purpose of the statement of cash flows?

a)

To provide information about the financial position of a company.

b)

To summarize the changes in equity for a specific period.

c)

To provide information about cash inflows and outflows during a period.

d)

To show the profitability of a company over a specific period.

125.

  1. Which of the following best describes the matching principle in accounting?

a)

Revenues should be recognized when cash is received.

b)

Expenses should be matched with the revenues they help to generate.

c)

All expenses should be recorded in the period they are paid.

d)

Revenues should be recognized at the end of the accounting period.

126.

Which of the following is a characteristic of financial assets measured at fair value through other comprehensive income?

a)

They cannot be sold before maturity.

b)

They are reported in other comprehensive income until realized.

c)

They are always classified as current assets.

d)

Unrealized gains and losses are recognized in profit or loss.

127.

  1. Deferred tax assets arise when taxable income is greater than accounting income due to temporary differences.

a)

False

b)

True

128.

  1. Inventory is always valued at the lower of cost or market value.

a)

False

b)

True

129.

  1. Operating leases are recorded as assets and liabilities on the balance sheet under the new accounting standards.

a)

False

b)

True

130.

  1. When a company issues bonds at a discount, the effective interest rate is lower than the nominal interest rate.

a)

True

b)

False