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IPP3 Exam 2

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which term is defined as “the probability of detecting a difference that does NOT actually exist”?

a)

Power

b)

Beta

c)

Alpha

d)

Confidence interval

2.

Which term is defined as “data that has categories with no specific order”?

a)

Nominal

b)

Ordinal

c)

Interval

d)

Ratio

3.

Which term is “data with a specific order but without uniform or measurable spacing between values”?

a)

Interval

b)

Ratio

c)

Nominal

d)

Ordinal

4.

Which definition best describes interval data?

a)

Ordered values with equal spacing and a true zero

b)

Values with no true zero

c)

Categories without order

d)

Whole-number counts

5.

Which term describes “data with an absolute zero”?

a)

Ordinal

b)

Ratio

c)

Interval

d)

Nominal

6.

Which term is defined as “data that can take on any value within a range, with infinite measurable points between two values”?

a)

Discrete

b)

Continuous

c)

Ordinal

d)

Nominal

7.

Which term describes “whole number data that cannot include fractions”?

a)

Continuous

b)

Discrete

c)

Nominal

8.

Which term is defined as “a linear measure of the degree of relationship between two variables”?

a)

b)

Correlation coefficient

c)

Hazard ratio

d)

Alpha

9.

Which term means “a range of values in which the true population value is likely to lie”?

a)

p-value

b)

Correlation

c)

Confidence interval

d)

NNT

10.

Which term is defined as “an under- or over-estimation of an effect due to flaws in study design”?

a)

Bias

b)

Confounding

c)

Random error

d)

Power

11.

Which term refers to “a variable outside the exposure that influences the outcome, creating a false association”?

a)

Dependent variable

b)

Independent variable

c)

Confounding variable

d)

Nominal variable

12.

Which term means “the probability of failing to detect a real difference when one actually exists”?

a)

Type I error

b)

Type II error

c)

Confidence interval

d)

Power

13.

Which term describes “the accuracy of the study results within the population that was actually studied”?

a)

External validity

b)

Internal validity

c)

Power

d)

Strength of evidence

14.

Which term means “the ability to generalize trial results to a broader population”?

a)

External validity

b)

Internal validity

c)

Confidence interval

d)

Correlation

15.

Which term is defined as “a graphical method used to estimate survival over time”?

a)

Kaplan-Meier curve

b)

Scatter plot

c)

Logistic regression

d)

Forest plot

16.

Which term describes “the rate at which an event occurs in the treatment group compared with the control group over time”?

a)

Odds ratio

b)

Relative risk

c)

Hazard ratio

d)

Beta

17.

Which term is defined as “the probability that a reported difference is due to random chance”?

a)

Beta

b)

p-value

c)

d)

Power

18.

Which term refers to “a non-parametric test used to analyze paired ordinal data”?

a)

Mann–Whitney U test

b)

Pearson correlation

c)

Wilcoxon Signed-Rank test

d)

T-test

19.

Which term refers to “the average distance of data points from the mean in a normal distribution”?

a)

Standard error

b)

Median

c)

Standard deviation

d)

Mode

20.

Which term describes “skewness in a dataset where the tail extends toward higher values”?

a)

Positively skewed

b)

Negatively skewed

c)

Normal distribution

d)

Bimodal distribution

21.

Which term refers to “a test to compare means across three or more normally distributed groups”?

a)

Fisher’s Exact test

b)

ANOVA

c)

Mann–Whitney

d)

Log-rank test

22.

Which term describes “a non-parametric test used to determine if survival curves significantly differ”?

a)

Log-rank test

b)

Chi-square test

c)

Wilcoxon Signed-Rank

d)

Pearson correlation

23.

Which term describes “the single most frequent value in a distribution”?

a)

Mean

b)

Median

c)

Mode

d)

Range

24.

Which term is defined as “data values that occur in a perfect bell-shaped distribution”?

a)

Skewed distribution

b)

Nominal distribution

c)

Normal distribution

d)

Modal distribution

25.

Which term describes “a ratio of the odds of an event occurring in one group compared with another”?

a)

Relative risk

b)

Hazard ratio

c)

Odds ratio

d)

26.

Which term is defined as “the proportion of individuals with an event in the treatment arm divided by the proportion with the event in the control arm”?

a)

Relative Risk

b)

Absolute Risk

c)

Odds Ratio

d)

Hazard Ratio

27.

Which term describes “the percentage decrease in risk in the treatment group compared with the control group, calculated as 1 – RR”?

a)

Absolute Risk Reduction

b)

Relative Risk Reduction

c)

Number Needed to Treat

d)

Odds Ratio

28.

Which term is defined as “the number of patients that must be treated for one patient to experience harm”?

a)

Number Needed to Treat

b)

Number Needed to Harm

c)

Absolute Risk Reduction

d)

Risk Ratio

29.

Which term is used to describe “the risk of an adverse event at any point in time when comparing treatment vs. control”?

a)

Hazard Ratio

b)

Relative Risk

c)

Odds Ratio

d)

Beta Value

30.

Which term defines “the middle value of a dataset when values are arranged in order”?

a)

Mean

b)

Median

c)

Mode

d)

Standard Deviation

31.

A new drug reduces the rate of migraine attacks from 30% (placebo) to 20% (treatment).

What is the NNT?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

7

d)

10

32.

A medication lowers the incidence of stroke from 12% in the control group to 8% in the treatment group.

What is the NNT?

a)

12

b)

25

c)

33

d)

50

33.

In a trial, 18% of untreated patients experienced heart failure hospitalization, compared with 15% of patients on Drug A.

a)

17

b)

34

c)

67

d)

50

34.

A COPD inhaler reduces annual exacerbations from 40% to 25%.

What is the NNT?

a)

3

b)

6

c)

7

d)

10

35.

A vaccine lowers infection rates from 16% to 4%.

What is the NNT?

a)

5

b)

8

c)

9

d)

12

36.

A pain medication causes dizziness in 14% of users vs 8% on placebo.

What is the NNH?

a)

8

b)

12

c)

16

d)

25

37.

A diabetes drug increases nausea from 15% to 22%.

What is the NNH?

a)

6

b)

9

c)

14

d)

25

38.

A lipid-lowering drug increases myalgia from 2% to 5%.

What is the NNH?

a)

10

b)

33

c)

34

d)

3

39.

An antidepressant increases insomnia from 9% to 14%.

What is the NNH?

a)

6

b)

11

c)

17

d)

20

40.

A new antiviral increases diarrhea from 18% to 30%.

What is the NNH?

a)

12

b)

6

c)

8

d)

9

41.

In a study of pneumonia prevention, 10% of vaccinated patients developed pneumonia compared with 20% of unvaccinated patients.

What is the Relative Risk (RR)?

a)

0.25

b)

0.50

c)

1.00

d)

2.00

42.

A new diabetes drug caused hypoglycemia in 6% of users vs. 3% in the placebo group.

What is the RR?

a)

0.50

b)

1.00

c)

2.00

d)

0.25

43.

In a cardiovascular trial, MI occurred in 12% of the treatment group and 15% of the control group.

RR = ?

a)

0.60

b)

0.80

c)

1.25

d)

2.50

44.

A weight-loss drug caused GI upset in 25% of patients vs 10% on placebo.

RR = ?

a)

0.40

b)

1.50

c)

2.50

d)

3.00

45.

A vaccine prevented flu in 96% of patients (4% got flu). In the placebo group, 10% got flu.

RR = ?

a)

0.40

b)

0.96

c)

9.6

d)

4.0

46.

A medication reduces stroke from 12% in the control group to 9% in the treatment group.

What is the ARR?

a)

1%

b)

2%

c)

3%

d)

6%

47.

A cholesterol drug lowers MI risk from 8% to 5%.

What is the ARR?

a)

1%

b)

2%

c)

3%

d)

5%

48.

A biologic treatment reduces hospitalization from 22% to 17.6%.

ARR = ?

a)

2.4%

b)

3.2%

c)

4.4%

d)

5.2%

49.

A prophylaxis therapy reduces infection from 9% to 6.2%.

ARR = ?

a)

1.8%

b)

2.0%

c)

2.8%

d)

3.0%

50.

A cancer therapy reduces mortality from 12.4% to 9.9%.

ARR = ?

a)

1.5%

b)

2.0%

c)

2.5%

d)

3.0%

51.

Researchers compare systolic BP (mmHg) between two independent groups.

Data are continuous and normally distributed.
Which statistical test is most appropriate?

a)

Mann–Whitney U

b)

Independent t-test

c)

Paired t-test

d)

Chi-square

52.

A study compares proportion of GI bleeding between Treatment and Placebo groups:

Outcome is categorical (yes/no) and sample size is large.

Which test should be used?

a)

Chi-square

b)

Fisher’s Exact

c)

ANOVA

d)

Paired t-test

53.

A pharmacist compares pain scores (1–10) between two groups after a procedure.

Distribution is skewed and the data are ordinal.

Which test should be used?

a)

Mann–Whitney U

b)

Independent t-test

c)

Chi-square

d)

Fisher’s Exact

54.

A pre/post study evaluates A1c (%) before and after therapy in the same individuals.

Data are paired and continuous, normally distributed.

Which test?

a)

Paired t-test

b)

Mann–Whitney U

c)

Wilcoxon Signed-Rank

d)

ANOVA

55.

Three antihypertensives are compared for effect on LDL reduction (mg/dL):

Data are continuous and normal, comparing three groups.

Which test?

a)

Chi-square

b)

ANOVA

c)

Kruskal–Wallis

d)

Pearson correlation

56.

A study evaluates time to hospitalization (days) for two treatments.

Outcome is time-to-event.

Which test?

a)

Mann–Whitney U

b)

Kaplan–Meier with Log-Rank

c)

ANOVA

d)

Chi-square

57.

Infection rates in small sample sizes:

Groups are small (n < 20).

Which test?

a)

Fisher’s Exact

b)

Chi-square

c)

Independent t-test

d)

Paired t-test

58.

Four groups have skewed continuous data (non-normal):

Outcome = non-normal, ordinal, 4 groups.

Which test?

a)

ANOVA

b)

Kruskal–Wallis

c)

Paired t-test

d)

Mann–Whitney U

59.

Relapse rates in three groups:

Categorical outcome, 3 groups.

Which test?

a)

Chi-square

b)

ANOVA

c)

Fisher’s Exact

d)

McNemar’s test

60.

Before/after satisfaction scores (ordinal) for the same patients:

Paired ordinal data.

Which test?

a)

Paired t-test

b)

Wilcoxon Signed-Rank

c)

Mann–Whitney U

d)

Chi-square