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BATU BLOK 11 — ALPHAEOLI 2025 (Worksheet Questions)

Total questions: 93

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A rapid test works by the specimen migrating upward through a cellulose membrane containing labeled antibodies. What is the principle of this test?

a)

Lateral flow assay

b)

Gel precipitation

c)

Evaporation

2.

Blood transfusion procedures require monitoring for patient reactions. What should be done if a patient experiences a harmful transfusion reaction?

a)

Stop the transfusion immediately

b)

Continue the transfusion at a slower rate

c)

Administer a sedative

d)

Replace the blood with intravenous fluids

e)

Increase the transfusion rate

3.

In blood transfusion practice, what does crossmatching mean?

a)

Testing donor blood for various diseases

b)

Identifying the patient’s blood group

c)

Testing donor blood for compatibility with the patient’s blood

d)

Recording the volume of blood transfused

e)

Monitoring transfusion reactions in the patient

4.

In blood processing techniques, which component is typically separated first after blood is collected from a donor?

a)

Plasma

b)

Red blood cells

c)

Platelets

d)

Leukocytes

e)

Serum

5.

The Indonesian Minister of Health Regulation No. 83 of 2014 governs the monitoring of blood quality. What is the primary purpose of this monitoring?

a)

To ensure the safety and quality of blood for transfusion, minimizing contamination and transfusion-transmitted infections

b)

To increase the number of blood donors through public campaigns

c)

To reduce hospital costs associated with blood banking

d)

To improve donor comfort during collection procedures

6.

According to Ministry of Health Regulation No. 83 (2014), the Blood Transfusion Unit (UTD) must begin the blood management process with which stage?

a)

Blood storage

b)

Blood processing

c)

Blood distribution

d)

Blood collection

e)

Blood quality inspection

7.

Affinity is defined as…

a)

An antigen–antibody cross-reaction

b)

Binding of a single epitope–paratope

c)

The strength of all multivalent bonds

d)

Complement activation

8.

A person with high antibody levels undergoes an agglutination test and obtains a false negative. The blood is then diluted and the result becomes positive. What is this phenomenon called?

a)

Pro zone

b)

Post zone

c)

Reduced antibody avidity

d)

Equivalence zone

9.

Based on the definition of hematopoiesis, which term correctly refers to the formation of white blood cells?

a)

Erythropoiesis

b)

Thrombopoiesis

c)

Hemopoiesis

d)

Leucopoiesis

10.

A mature monocyte, when located within tissue, is referred to as which cell?

a)

Macrophage

b)

Mast cell

c)

Erythrocyte

d)

Platelet

11.

During prenatal hematopoiesis, at 2 to 7 months of fetal life, where does hematopoiesis occur?

a)

Yolk sac

b)

Liver and spleen

c)

Sternum bone

d)

Vertebral bone

12.

Bone marrow, the site of hematopoiesis, consists of hematopoietic tissue and stromal cells. Which of the following is NOT a stromal cell type?

a)

Adipocyte

b)

Fibroblast

c)

Osteoblast

d)

Erythroblast

13.

In thrombopoiesis, which cell gives rise to platelets?

a)

Megakaryoblast

b)

Promegakaryoblast

c)

Megakaryocyte

d)

Myeloblast

14.

Granulocyte maturation proceeds as follows: Myeloblast — Promyelocyte — ______ — Metamyelocyte — band — Neutrophil. Which cell should fill the blank?

a)

Prorubricyte

b)

Myelocyte

c)

Megakaryocyte

d)

Rubricyte

15.

A newborn is diagnosed with icterus neonatorum. The most common cause is hemolytic anemia in which erythrocytes easily rupture. Which enzyme test is used to detect the cause of this condition?

a)

SGOT

b)

SGPT

c)

G6PD

d)

Lipase

e)

Amylase

16.

Which complication is most likely to be observed in a woman receiving hormone therapy for menopause?

a)

Cervical carcinoma

b)

Chronic ulcerative colitis

c)

Liver cirrhosis

d)

Pulmonary emphysema

e)

Thromboembolism

17.

Among mature cells, which has the highest proliferative capacity?

a)

Skeletal muscle cell

b)

Neuron

c)

Cardiac muscle cell

d)

Mature red blood cell

e)

Epithelial cell

18.

Which statement is correct?

a)

Vasoconstriction can be caused by the presence of von Willebrand factor

b)

Damaged endothelial cells are thrombogenic

c)

In the intact state, endothelial cells release procoagulant enzymes

d)

Endothelium-derived tissue factor acts as an anticoagulant

e)

Vasoconstriction is a tertiary response in hemostasis

19.

Which of the following is a coagulation factor in the extrinsic pathway of the cascade?

a)

Factor X

b)

Factor II

c)

Factor VII

20.

A tall man with gynecomastia and infertility has karyotype 47,XXY. The diagnosis is:

a)

Turner syndrome

b)

Klinefelter syndrome

c)

Down syndrome

d)

Triple X syndrome

e)

Fragile X syndrome

21.

A variant of chronic lymphocytic leukemia characterized by anemia, leukocytosis, and thrombocytopenia, with lymphocytes showing abundant cytoplasm and a single prominent nucleolus in the center of the cell, is:

a)

AML M3

b)

PLL

c)

Hairy cell leukemia

d)

LGLL

e)

ATLL

22.

A 70-year-old man has difficulty urinating. Digital rectal examination reveals an enlarged prostate, and transurethral resection of the prostate is performed. The histopathology image shows crowded, proliferative prostatic glands. Which adaptive abnormality is present?

a)

Pathologic metaplasia

b)

Pathologic atrophy

c)

Pathologic hypertrophy

d)

Pathologic hyperplasia

e)

Physiologic hyperplasia

23.

A 49-year-old woman undergoes endometrial curettage for abnormal uterine bleeding. The tissue shows endometrial hyperplasia. Which underlying factor most commonly drives this pathologic condition?

a)

Loss of neural innervation

b)

Increased protein deposition

c)

Adequate nutritional balance

d)

Reduced blood supply

e)

Hormonal imbalance

24.

A 32-year-old man presents with maculopapular and nodular skin lesions on the face, elbows, wrists, and knees. The lesions are associated with hypesthesia and anesthesia. Skin biopsy stained for acid-fast bacilli is positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Chagas disease

b)

Cutaneous tuberculosis

c)

Leishmaniasis

d)

Hansen disease (leprosy)

e)

Anthrax

25.

A 22-year-old woman has recurrent clear vesicles on the lip and oral mucosa that resolve spontaneously. A smear from a vesicle is examined microscopically at high power. Which cellular change is expected?

a)

Glassy intranuclear viral inclusion bodies

b)

Neutrophils containing gram-negative diplococci

c)

Mononuclear infiltrate containing protozoan organisms

d)

Periarteriolar infiltrates of lymphoplasmacytic cells

e)

Dysplastic epithelial cells containing human papillomavirus

26.

In hematology analysis using an automated hematology analyzer, blood cells are primarily differentiated based on which parameters?

a)

Size and granules

b)

Size, shape, and cell membrane

c)

Size, cytoplasm, and nucleolus

d)

Size, cytoplasm, and nucleus

27.

In patients with acute leukemia, hematology findings often show the "acute leukemia triad." Which combination represents this triad?

a)

Anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia

b)

Anemia, leukocytosis, thrombocytopenia

c)

Anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytosis

d)

Severe anemia, mild leukocytosis, thrombocytosis

28.

In WHO classification for determining prognosis in hematologic malignancy, cytogenetic testing is used for what primary purpose?

a)

Determining prognosis

b)

Determining therapy

c)

Determining patient history

d)

Determining disease course

29.

Which clinical chemistry parameter can provide information about kidney function?

a)

Urea

b)

Glucose

c)

AST

d)

ALT

e)

Platelets

30.

Bleeding disorders due to abnormal platelet counts can occur in which condition?

a)

Sepsis

b)

Leukemia

c)

Vitamin B12 deficiency

d)

Dengue fever infection

e)

Use of aspirin

31.

A 5-year-old child had contact with a grandmother with tuberculosis. One month later the tuberculin test is positive with fever and nonproductive cough. What chest radiology finding is expected?

a)

Pneumonic consolidation

b)

Cavitation in the upper lobe

c)

Pulmonary nodules, miliary pattern

d)

Hilar lymphadenopathy

e)

Costal dot lesions

32.

In microcytic hypochromic anemia with normal iron status, the physician proceeds with hemoglobin electrophoresis. Which statement about this test is correct?

a)

It identifies cells easily lysed by NaCl at various concentrations

b)

Its purpose is to detect Hb genes undergoing mutation

c)

HPLC is more specific than microcapillary methods

d)

It is a screening test for sickle cells

e)

Its purpose is to detect quantitative and qualitative abnormalities of Hb chains

33.

A 4-year-old girl presents with high fever and a rash for 3 days. The rash consists of red papules starting near the ears and spreading to the trunk and extremities. Oral examination shows ulcerative lesions near Stensen’s duct (Koplik spots). What is the cause?

a)

Varicella-zoster virus infection

b)

Cytomegalovirus infection

c)

Rubella virus infection

d)

Measles virus infection

e)

Epstein–Barr virus infection

34.

Which is not part of the stromal (supporting) tissue?

a)

Fibroblast

b)

Osteoblast

c)

Macrophage

d)

Erythroblast

e)

Adipocyte

35.

Complete blood count shows Hb 77 g/dL, WBC 10,00010{,}000 /mm 3^3 , platelets 250,000250{,}000 /mm 3^3 , MCV below normal, MCH below normal, and RDW increased. Which peripheral blood smear finding is most likely?

a)

Microcytic hypochromic anemia with anisopoikilocytosis

b)

Normocytic normochromic red cells with normal RDW

c)

Macrocytosis with hypersegmented neutrophils

d)

Thrombocytopenia with giant platelets

36.

Which AML subtype is associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation?

a)

AML1

b)

AML2

c)

AML3

d)

AML4

e)

AML5

37.

Which term describes abnormal sperm morphology?

a)

Teratospermia

b)

Azoospermia

c)

Oligospermia

d)

Asthenospermia

e)

Oligoastenospermia

38.

A couple brings their 3-day-old baby due to a red–blue bump on the scalp that keeps enlarging. The doctor considers a condition common in infants and children. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Capillary hemangioma

b)

Wilms tumor

c)

Lymphangioma

d)

Neuroblastoma

e)

Sacrococcygeal tumor

39.

Testes are very small (atrophic) with mild intellectual disability. Karyotype is 47, XXY. What is the diagnosis?

a)

Klinefelter syndrome

b)

Turner syndrome

c)

Marfan syndrome

d)

Patau syndrome

40.

Cell cycle control includes the G1–S checkpoint. Which gene plays a key role at that checkpoint?

a)

RAS

b)

TP53

c)

Retinoblastoma

d)

MAPK

e)

PI3K

41.

What is the end product of fibrinolysis?

a)

Fibrin

b)

D-dimer

c)

Fibrinogen

d)

Plasminogen

42.

A 45-year-old man reports epigastric discomfort and pain. Endoscopy and esophageal biopsy are performed. Pathology diagnoses Barrett’s esophagus, with the esophageal lining changing from complex squamous epithelium to columnar intestinal epithelium. Which adaptive process underlies this change?

a)

Intestinal metaplasia

b)

Hyperplasia

c)

Squamous metaplasia

d)

Atrophy

e)

Hypertrophy

43.

Cell count 10,000 cells/L, glucose 10 mg/dL, PMN 70%, protein 5 g/dL. On synovial fluid examination, these findings indicate what?

a)

Bacterial infection

b)

Non-inflammatory

c)

Inflammatory

d)

Normal

e)

Hemarthrosis

44.

Where does extramedullary hematopoiesis occur?

a)

Liver and spleen

b)

Vertebral bones

c)

Iliac crest bone

d)

Sternum

e)

Yolk sac

45.

Which growth factor is responsible for platelet production?

a)

Erythropoietin

b)

Thrombopoietin

c)

Interleukin-6

d)

Interleukin-1

e)

Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor

46.

Based on the diagram of a mature sperm showing the head, midpiece with mitochondria, and tail, where is the genetic material located in sperm?

a)

Head

b)

Tail

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Midpiece

47.

A 70-year-old man has voiding disturbances. Digital rectal examination reveals an enlarged prostate. He undergoes transurethral resection of the prostate; the anatomic pathology shows changes as described in the case. Which adaptive change is present in this patient?

a)

Pathologic metaplasia

b)

Pathologic atrophy

c)

Pathologic hypertrophy

d)

Physiologic hyperplasia

e)

Pathologic hyperplasia

48.

A 50-year-old woman undergoes liver biopsy. On histopathology, the microscopic image shows multiple clear cytoplasmic vacuoles within hepatocytes consistent with fat accumulation. What is the diagnosis?

a)

Cellular swelling of hepatocytes

b)

Atrophy of hepatocytes

c)

Hyperplasia of hepatocytes

d)

Metaplasia of hepatocytes

e)

Fatty change (lipid degeneration) in hepatocytes

49.

A 7-year-old girl is suspected of having acute leukemia: hemoglobin 6 g/dL, leukocytes 90,000/mm³, platelets 6,000/mm³. Peripheral smear shows 85% blasts, and bone marrow findings support lymphoid lineage. Which confirmatory test best determines the malignant cell series?

a)

Flow cytometry immunophenotyping of blasts

b)

Cytochemical staining for myeloperoxidase and Sudan Black

c)

Conventional karyotyping of bone marrow cells

d)

Serum protein electrophoresis

e)

Repeat peripheral blood smear review

50.

A 2-month-old infant has pulmonary hypoplasia. The most appropriate term for this congenital anomaly is

a)

Malformation

b)

Disruption

c)

Stabilization

d)

Initiation

e)

Sequence

51.

A primigravid woman has enlargement of the uterus due to growth of uterine smooth muscle. This change is classified as

a)

Physiologic hypertrophy

b)

Pathologic hypertrophy

c)

Pathologic hyperplasia

d)

Physiologic hyperplasia

e)

Metaplasia

52.

A response of vascularized tissue that brings cells and molecules of host defense from the circulation to the sites where they are needed to eliminate offending agents is the definition of

a)

Infection

b)

Inflammation

c)

Septic shock

d)

Anaphylaxis

53.

Preparation for a semen specimen includes

a)

Abstinence for 5–7 days

b)

No special preparation

c)

Low-salt diet

d)

Fasting

e)

Exercise

54.

Which metabolic pathway is most related to activation of indirect carcinogens into potent carcinogens?

a)

miRNA

b)

Point mutations

c)

Reactive oxygen species formation

d)

Chromosome breakage

e)

Cytochrome P-450 polymorphism

55.

A male patient has a chronic, non-healing diabetic ulcer. Laboratory tests show elevated ESR and CRP. Which differential count finding is most likely?

a)

Eosinophilia

b)

Neutropenia

c)

Monocytosis

d)

Neutrophilia

e)

Basophilia

56.

A 40-year-old woman presents with fever, productive cough, and dyspnea. Her ESR is increased. An elevated ESR most commonly indicates

a)

Acute dehydration

b)

Acute blood loss

c)

Allergy

d)

Inflammation

57.

Polycythemia can be classified as absolute or relative. Which feature is characteristic of relative polycythemia?

a)

Increased total erythrocyte volume

b)

Decreased hematocrit

c)

Normal hemoglobin concentration

d)

Normal packed red cell volume

e)

Decreased plasma volume

58.

Which test is most commonly used as an initial screening for systemic autoimmune disease?

a)

C3 and C4

b)

Rheumatoid factor

c)

Anti‑dsDNA

d)

Anti‑Ro/SSA

e)

ANA

59.

After occupational exposure to potential HIV infection (such as a needlestick), which early detection procedure should be used?

a)

p24 antigen test

b)

Rapid test

60.

A peripheral blood smear shows a population of erythrocytes with varied abnormal shapes. This condition is called

a)

Megaloblastic change

b)

Anisocytosis

c)

Anisochromia

d)

Poikilocytosis

e)

Polychromatophilia

61.

A 20-year-old woman is in her menstrual cycle. The functional layer of the endometrium undergoes periodic shedding each month. The cell death process occurring in this endometrial tissue is

a)

Necroptosis

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Cannibalism

d)

Metaplasia

e)

Necrosis

62.

A 19-year-old woman with short stature, webbed neck, and widely spaced nipples has which karyotype?

a)

45, X

b)

45, Y

c)

46, XXY

d)

47, XXY

e)

47, XXY+18

63.

A 20-year-old woman is in her menstrual cycle. The functional endometrium sheds periodically each month. Which factor primarily mediates the cell death in this condition?

a)

Caspase 3

b)

p53

c)

Lysozyme enzyme

d)

TNF

64.

A 63-year-old man with a history of progressively worsening congestive heart failure has echocardiography showing mitral stenosis with left atrial dilation. A thrombus is seen in the left atrium. One month later, he reports right flank pain with hematuria. Laboratory tests show increased serum AST. What type of tissue necrosis most characteristically occurs in the heart?

a)

Fat necrosis

b)

Caseous necrosis

c)

Coagulative necrosis

d)

Liquefactive necrosis

e)

Gangrenous necrosis

65.

A 5-year-old boy is examined and found to have underdeveloped testes, short stature with short limbs, and gynecomastia. Which diagnosis is most likely?

a)

Patau syndrome

b)

Klinefelter syndrome

c)

Down syndrome

d)

Edwards syndrome

e)

Turner syndrome

66.

For the same 5-year-old boy with underdeveloped testes, short stature, and gynecomastia, which karyotype abnormality is most consistent with the suspected condition?

a)

48 XX

b)

46 X

c)

47 XXX

d)

47 XXY

e)

45 XY

67.

Which growth factor primarily stimulates erythrocyte production?

a)

Erythropoietin

b)

Thrombopoietin

c)

IL-6

d)

IL-1

e)

G-CSF

68.

A 2-year-old girl has delayed motor development, hypotonia, and poor response to verbal and visual stimuli. Funduscopic examination reveals a cherry-red spot on the retina. Which disease does she most likely have?

a)

Down syndrome

b)

Turner syndrome

c)

Gaucher disease

d)

Tay–Sachs disease

e)

Glycogen storage disease

69.

A 4-year-old boy falls, injuring a fingernail and peeling the overlying skin; the wound is clean and sterile. What is the body's first response?

a)

Accumulation of acute inflammatory cells

b)

Deposition and migration of myofibroblasts

c)

Differentiation and migration of myofibroblasts

d)

Formation of fibrin and clot

e)

Macrophage phagocytosis of cellular debris

70.

During erythropoiesis, what is the term for the enucleated cell with bluish cytoplasm present just before maturation into an erythrocyte?

a)

Rubricyte

b)

Metarubricyte

c)

Rubriblast

d)

Reticulocyte

e)

Prorubriblast

71.

Cellular swelling is a reaction to injury. Which biochemical change most directly causes the swelling?

a)

Increase in cytosolic calcium concentration

b)

Decrease in intracellular pH to 2

c)

Decrease in glycogen levels

d)

Increase in protein glycolysis

e)

Decrease in protein synthesis

72.

Elevation of cytosolic calcium can lead to destruction of nuclear chromatin. Which enzyme is primarily responsible?

a)

Protease

b)

ATPase

c)

Endonuclease

d)

Esterase

73.

A 16-year-old boy presents with bilateral lens subluxation, tall stature, long extremities and fingers, kyphosis, and aortic dilation. Which diagnosis best fits this presentation?

a)

Marfan syndrome

b)

Ehlers–Danlos syndrome

c)

Homocystinuria

d)

Klinefelter syndrome

e)

Osteogenesis imperfecta

74.

Leukocytes can pass through the vessel wall to an inflamed site. Which mediator is involved in this process?

a)

Histamine

b)

Selectins and integrins

c)

Inflammatory cytokines

75.

Given hematology results: low Ht, Hb, and RBC; MCV 60 (microcytic) and MCH 20 (hypochromic). What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Iron deficiency and anemia of chronic disease

b)

Hemolytic anemia and iron deficiency

c)

Thalassemia and …

76.

A patient has epicanthal folds, intellectual disability, and heart disease. Karyotype shows 47, XY, +21 (Trisomy 21). What is the most accurate diagnosis?

a)

Klinefelter syndrome

b)

Turner syndrome

c)

Fragile X syndrome

d)

Down syndrome

e)

Marfan syndrome

77.

Which syndrome is caused by a mutation in the FMR1 gene?

a)

Klinefelter syndrome

b)

Turner syndrome

c)

Fragile X syndrome

d)

Down syndrome

e)

Marfan syndrome

78.

A 78-year-old man with dementia undergoes a CT scan that shows his brain is smaller compared with the brain size of a healthy adult male. Which cellular adaptation underlies the reduced organ size in this patient?

a)

Atrophy

b)

Metaplasia

c)

Anaplasia

d)

Hyperplasia

e)

Hypertrophy

79.

A 31-year-old woman had a myocardial infarction last year. Her total serum cholesterol is 375 mg/dL (normal, less than 200200 mg/dL). She has numerous xanthelasma lesions on her face and premature atherosclerosis. Which diagnosis best fits this case?

a)

Lysosomal storage diseases

b)

Galactosemia

c)

Phenylketonuria

d)

Familial hypercholesterolemia

e)

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

80.

Residents in a household show delayed psychomotor development. Inspection reveals a squalid home environment with poor ventilation and lead piping; the children are ill. Poisoning is most likely due to which substance?

a)

Lead

b)

Sodium hypochlorite

c)

Methanol

d)

Carbon monoxide

81.

In diagnosing systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), ANA test results must always be interpreted within the clinical context. Why is this necessary?

a)

ANA can be positive in healthy individuals

b)

ANA titers can only be measured by ELISA

c)

ANA is specific for SLE and never positive in other diseases

d)

ANA is always negative in drug-induced lupus

82.

When is ENA testing performed?

a)

To establish the diagnosis of bacterial infection

b)

To confirm the presence of specific autoantibodies when ANA is positive

c)

To directly measure complement activity

d)

As a substitute for CRP

83.

A woman with a 6-month history of depression and suicidal ideation ingests 3535\, g of acetaminophen and becomes unconscious. Which antidote is appropriate for this patient?

a)

Naloxone

b)

Flumazenil

c)

N-acetylcysteine

d)

Atropine

84.

In systemic lupus erythematosus, what happens to C4 and C3 in the complement system?

a)

Both decrease

b)

C4 increases and C3 decreases

c)

Both increase

d)

C3 increases and C4 decreases

e)

Both are normal

85.

A 25-year-old pregnant woman is tested at term and found to have HBsAg positive and HBeAg negative. What does this result mean?

a)

Not a hepatitis B virus infection

b)

Hepatitis C virus infection

c)

Acute hepatitis B infection in the recovery phase

d)

Chronic hepatitis B infection with active replication

e)

Previously vaccinated against hepatitis B

86.

What is an advantage of C-reactive protein compared with erythrocyte sedimentation rate when evaluating inflammation in systemic lupus erythematosus?

a)

Detects autoantibodies

b)

More specific for lupus

c)

Not affected by anemia

d)

Screens autoimmune proteins

e)

Detects acute inflammation faster

87.

A person is found unconscious after three days, arrives with respiratory difficulty, temperature 39.639.6^\circ C, pinpoint pupils, and needle marks in the antecubital fossa. Which substance is most consistent with this presentation?

a)

Cocaine

b)

Heroin

c)

Glue

88.

A patient with a neoplasm (tumor) in the intestine undergoes biopsy and examination. Which microscopic criterion must be found in this neoplasm?

a)

Atypical mitosis

b)

Encapsulation

c)

Dysplasia

d)

N:C ratio is 1:6

e)

Metaplasia

89.

A woman presents with a single hypopigmented patch with sharp borders and loss of pain sensation. Biopsy shows few acid‑fast bacilli and dominant lymphocytes. Which immune system response is primarily involved in this condition?

a)

Humoral (antibody) response

b)

CD4+ Th1 T‑cell response

c)

Type I hypersensitivity

d)

Activation of the classical complement pathway

e)

IgE‑mediated hypersensitivity

90.

Disruption of hematopoiesis in the bone marrow in a case of megaloblastic anemia occurs as a result of what underlying mechanism?

a)

Defect in stem cells

b)

Impaired DNA synthesis

c)

Reduced RNA

d)

Decreased thrombopoiesis

e)

Decreased erythropoiesis

91.

Which coagulation factor is part of the extrinsic pathway cascade?

a)

Factor V

b)

Factor II

c)

Factor VII

d)

Factor X

e)

Factor XI

92.

A patient develops an allergic reaction after applying an ointment containing neomycin. The physician explains that the reaction would not occur because the molecule is too small unless it interacts with a specific carrier protein. What term best describes this condition?

a)

Superantigen

b)

Autoantigen

c)

Hapten

d)

Antigenic additive

e)

Conformational antigen

93.

A laboratory report shows IgM positive and IgG negative. What is the most accurate interpretation of this serologic pattern?

a)

Early primary infection or recent exposure

b)

Past infection with established immunity

c)

No evidence of infection or exposure

d)

Late-stage infection with long-standing immunity