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Worksheets

Semester Exam Review

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best defines health?

a)

The absence of illness or injury

b)

A state of complete physical, mental/emotional, and social well-being

c)

The length of time a person is expected to live

d)

The process of identifying one's state of health and taking steps to improve it

2.

The health continuum is used to:

a)

Measure your physical fitness level.

b)

Explain the status of health as it relates to a range from premature death to optimal health.

c)

Rate a person's level of resilience.

d)

Define the four types of communication styles.

3.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three interrelated dimensions of health?

a)

Physical health

b)

Mental and emotional health

c)

Intellectual health

d)

Social health

4.

What is the first step in the DECIDE model for making healthy and informed decisions?

a)

Explore alternatives and options

b)

Consider the consequences

c)

Define the decision to be made or the problem to be solved

d)

Decide and act

5.

In the context of SMART goals, the 'M' stands for Measurable, which means the goal:

a)

Is challenging but not out of reach.

b)

Has results that can be clearly observed or quantified.

c)

Is worthwhile and will meet your needs.

d)

Includes a specific time limit.

6.

The process of working with others to make a decision is known as:

a)

Conflict resolution

b)

Collaborative decision-making

c)

Negotiation

d)

Assertive communication

7.

What does the 'T' in the acronym SMART goals stand for?

a)

Tough

b)

True

c)

Timely

d)

Trusted

8.

What is the most basic level of Maslow's hierarchy of human needs?

a)

Safety needs

b)

Love and belonging needs

c)

Physical needs

d)

Esteem needs

9.

The skill in perceiving, understanding, and managing emotions and feelings is defined as:

a)

Cognitive empathy

b)

Emotional intelligence

c)

Self-esteem

d)

Resilience

10.

Unhealthy patterns of thinking that are often not grounded in reality are called:

a)

Emotional dysregulation

b)

Defense mechanisms

c)

Cognitive distortions

d)

Mental distress

11.

What are the mental defenses people use to avoid conscious conflict, feelings, or thoughts?

a)

Cognitive distortions

b)

Stressors

c)

Mental health conditions

d)

Defense mechanisms

12.

The ability to recover from stressful events and develop coping skills when future challenges arise is called:

a)

Optimism

b)

Resilience

c)

Emotional intelligence

d)

Empathy

13.

People who have a negative mindset are generally pessimistic, tend to give up when facing difficulty, and often fixate on negative thoughts, which is called:

a)

Visualization

b)

Positive reappraisal

c)

Rumination

d)

Cognitive restructuring

14.

What type of empathy involves the ability to see the world from another person’s perspective?

a)

Emotional empathy

b)

Social empathy

c)

Cognitive empathy

d)

Universal empathy

15.

Which statement about self-esteem is a MYTH?

a)

People with low self-esteem are more likely to show off to convince others of their worth.

b)

Social media can affect self-esteem.

c)

People who brag about themselves have healthy self-esteem.

d)

Interactions with others are a factor affecting self-esteem.

16.

Which term describes positive stress that encourages growth and motivation?

a)

Distress

b)

Trauma

c)

Toxic stress

d)

Eustress

17.

What is extreme stress due to deeply disturbing events?

a)

Distress

b)

Trauma

c)

Technostress

d)

Eustress

18.

Which relaxation technique involves imagining oneself in a pleasant environment?

a)

Deep breathing

b)

Progressive muscle relaxation

c)

Visualization

d)

Focused attention

19.

Which of the following is a physical change that occurs during the fight-or-flight response?

a)

Decreased heart rate

b)

Decreased blood flow to the brain

c)

Increased sweating

d)

Relaxed muscle tension

20.

Which is considered the best communication style for effective communication?

a)

Passive

b)

Aggressive

c)

Assertive

d)

Passive-aggressive

21.

In the communication process, how does the receiver indicate to the sender that the message has been received and understood?

a)

By asking a question

b)

By providing a new message

c)

By providing feedback

d)

By interrupting the sender

22.

Which communication style involves clearly stating needs, wants, and feelings without insulting others?

a)

Passive

b)

Aggressive

c)

Passive-aggressive

d)

Assertive

23.

Why do miscommunications occur so easily online?

a)

People tend to type faster than they think.

b)

Nonverbal cues, such as gestures and facial expressions, are not always available.

c)

Messages are usually too long to read completely.

d)

People are usually too distracted when communicating online.

24.

What separates healthy conflict from unhealthy conflict?

a)

The topic of the disagreement

b)

How the conflict is resolved

c)

The number of people involved

d)

The severity of the argument

25.

The type of agreement in which two sides come together and each side gives in a little is called:

a)

Negotiation

b)

Mediation

c)

Arbitration

d)

Compromise

26.

What is the first step in the negotiation process?

a)

Expressing empathy

b)

Analyzing others' perspectives

c)

Identifying the cause of the conflict

d)

Deciding on a compromise

27.

A type of aggressive behavior toward someone that involves a power imbalance and causes the person injury or discomfort is the definition of:

a)

Harassment

b)

Conflict

c)

Bullying

d)

Passive-aggression

28.

What form of social bullying involves spreading hurtful rumors that may or may not be true?

a)

Isolation

b)

Hazing

c)

Gossip

d)

Catfishing

29.

The situation in which a bystander is less likely to intervene and stop harmful behavior because they think someone else will is known as:

a)

Groupthink

b)

The Bystander Effect

c)

Social loafing

d)

Cognitive dissonance

30.

If you are a target of cyberbullying, what is one of the first and most important things you should do?

a)

Write a script to change the conversation

b)

Respond to the person's messages to tell them to stop

c)

Block the person's ability to contact you

d)

Try to solve the conflict offline

31.

Nutrient-dense foods do not contain large amounts of what?

a)

Saturated fats, added sugars, or sodium

b)

Vitamins and minerals

c)

Fiber and protein

d)

Carbohydrates and healthy fats

32.

Which form of malnutrition is caused by consuming too many of some nutrients?

a)

Undernutrition

b)

Food allergy

c)

Overnutrition

d)

Food intolerance

33.

The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend that a healthy eating pattern should limit all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Saturated fats

b)

Sodium

c)

Added sugars

d)

Fruits and vegetables

34.

Which concept describes the intentional combination of two or more incomplete plant-based proteins to provide all the essential amino acids for those on a vegetarian or vegan plan?

a)

Complementary proteins

b)

Complete proteins

c)

Protein synergy

d)

Amino acid stacking

35.

A condition that causes the body's immune system to react to a food as if that food is harmful is known as a:

a)

Cognitive distortion

b)

Food intolerance

c)

Nutrient deficiency

d)

Food allergy

36.

The term for the recommended daily intake amounts for specific nutrients, found on the Nutrition Facts label, is:

a)

Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)

b)

Daily Values (DV)

c)

Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR)

d)

Estimated Energy Requirement (EER)

37.

Which type of foodborne illness is caused by toxins (poisons) produced by bacteria in food?

a)

Foodborne intoxication

b)

Foodborne infection

c)

Cross-contamination

d)

Viral food poisoning

38.

When cooking and preparing foods, what is the minimum amount of time you should wash your hands with hot, soapy water?

a)

5 seconds

b)

10 seconds

c)

20 seconds

d)

30 seconds

39.

To make a healthier food choice in a social situation, a strategy is to:

a)

Eat everything on your plate to be polite.

b)

Lie about having a food allergy.

c)

Secretly throw the unwanted food away.

d)

Pair your refusal of someone's food with a compliment.

40.

To prevent foodborne illnesses, perishable foods should be kept hot—above 140°F—and cold foods should be kept cold—below what temperature?

a)

32°F

b)

40°F

c)

50°F

d)

60°F

41.

What is the rate at which your body uses energy to carry out basic physiological processes such as breathing or digesting?

a)

Metabolism

b)

Homeostasis

c)

Body composition

d)

Caloric density

42.

The ratio of the fat, bone, and muscle that makes up your body is called:

a)

Body Mass Index (BMI)

b)

Body shape

c)

Body composition

d)

Metabolic rate

43.

A diet that often promises significant weight loss in a short period of time and typically involves cutting out entire food groups is known as a:

a)

Balanced diet

b)

Maintenance diet

c)

Crash diet

d)

Fad diet

44.

Which of the following is a healthy strategy for effective weight management?

a)

Completely cutting out your favorite high-calorie foods.

b)

Following an "all-or-nothing" mindset about diet.

c)

Being fully focused on the present moment when you eat (mindful eating).

d)

Limiting all forms of physical activity to conserve energy.

45.

Which of these factors should you consider when developing a dietary or weight-management plan?

a)

Genetic factors

b)

Personal preferences

c)

Socioeconomic factors

d)

All of the above

46.

What is the primary difference between physical activity and exercise?

a)

Physical activity is always more intense than exercise.

b)

Physical activity is always done outdoors, while exercise is done indoors.

c)

Exercise is a specific physical activity that is structured, planned, and intended to increase physical fitness.

d)

Physical activity only benefits physical health, while exercise benefits mental health.

47.

Which component of health-related fitness is directly impacted by physical activity?

a)

Body composition

b)

Reaction time

c)

Coordination

d)

Balance

48.

Which component of health-related fitness refers to the strength and efficiency of your heart and lungs?

a)

Flexibility

b)

Muscular strength

c)

Body composition

d)

Cardiorespiratory fitness

49.

Which of the following is a component of skill-related fitness?

a)

Flexibility

b)

Agility

c)

Muscular endurance

d)

Body composition

50.

True or False: Walking to school and between classes counts as a form of physical activity.

a)

True, but it is not a form of exercise.

b)

False, only structured workouts count as physical activity.

c)

True

d)

False

51.

Activities that consist of sitting or lying down and use very little energy are known as:

a)

Light activities

b)

Moderate activities

c)

Calisthenics

d)

Sedentary behaviors

52.

How do Americans know how much physical activity is recommended for their age group?

a)

By asking their doctor

b)

By calculating their Body Mass Index (BMI)

c)

By following the Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans

d)

By following fitness trends on social media

53.

Which of the following is a benefit of a school resource like a PE class?

a)

It guarantees a perfect body composition.

b)

It encourages engagement in activities you might not typically try.

c)

It eliminates the need for any other daily physical activity.

d)

It only focuses on skill-related fitness components.

54.

What aspect of fitness do muscle stretches primarily improve?

a)

Muscular strength

b)

Cardiorespiratory endurance

c)

Flexibility

d)

Power

55.

To overcome obstacles to physical activity, such as a "lack of time," a practical strategy is to:

a)

Stop going to school or work to free up time.

b)

Only exercise on weekends.

c)

Schedule short bursts of activity throughout the day.

d)

Focus only on high-intensity, structured exercise.

56.

What is the toxic substance that makes all tobacco products, including e-cigarettes and vapes, addictive?

a)

Tar

b)

Carbon monoxide

c)

Nicotine

d)

Formaldehyde

57.

What is the term for the particles and gases left behind after someone smokes or vapes, which can settle on surfaces and be harmful to health?

a)

Secondhand smoke

b)

Sidestream aerosol

c)

Thirdhand Smoke and Aerosol

d)

Mainstream vapor

58.

How does physical activity help a person who is trying to quit tobacco or nicotine use?

a)

It eliminates withdrawal symptoms entirely.

b)

It causes the body to release endorphins, which can improve mood.

c)

It allows the person to substitute one addiction for another.

d)

It distracts the person from their cravings for a short time only.

59.

Why is using tobacco not an effective method for managing mental health conditions like anxiety or depression?

a)

Nicotine is a stimulant and always makes anxiety worse.

b)

Tobacco use is physically exhausting and prevents sleep.

c)

Tobacco use does not address the underlying issue of the mental health condition.

d)

The government prohibits doctors from prescribing nicotine for mental health.

60.

Which of the following is an example of an approved form of Nicotine Replacement Therapy (NRT)?

a)

E-cigarettes and vapes

b)

Herbal cigarettes

c)

Nicotine gum, patch, and lozenge

d)

Medications that stimulate acetylcholine

61.

What is the term for when a body requires increased amounts of a substance to function properly, causing the user to need more to achieve the same feeling?

a)

Addiction

b)

Detoxification

c)

Withdrawal

d)

Tolerance

62.

Which of the following is one of the effective refusal skills for avoiding substance use?

a)

Change the subject

b)

Confront the person aggressively

c)

Guilt-trip the person offering the substance

d)

Pretend to use the substance but discreetly dispose of it

63.

When critically evaluating a media message for substance promotion, which element should you look for?

a)

The ingredients list

b)

The product's side effects

c)

Music, graphics, and modern cultural references

d)

The name of the advertising agency

64.

The consequence of vaping can include increased risk for lung diseases, mood disorders, lack of impulse control, attention issues, and what cognitive impairment?

a)

Improved memory retention

b)

Decreased learning or retention

c)

Increased emotional intelligence

d)

Enhanced problem-solving skills

65.

Which of the following is true about secondhand smoke and aerosol?

a)

It only affects people with asthma.

b)

It is harmless when indoors if windows are open.

c)

It can extend health effects to those around someone who uses tobacco.

d)

It is less dangerous than thirdhand smoke.

66.

What is the addictive drug and active ingredient in all alcoholic beverages?

a)

Methanol

b)

Isopropyl alcohol

c)

Ethanol

d)

Propylene glycol

67.

What is the legal limit for Blood Alcohol Concentration (BAC) for an adult to be considered legally impaired in most US states?

a)

0.05%

b)

0.08%

c)

0.10%

d)

0.15%

68.

The "zero-tolerance policy" for people under 21 years of age means their acceptable BAC level is:

a)

0.02%

b)

0.05%

c)

0%

d)

0.08%

69.

Alcohol affects the cerebral cortex, which is the part of the brain that controls what?

a)

Heart rate and breathing

b)

Coordination and balance

c)

Inhibition and decision-making

d)

Memory formation

70.

What is the term for using alcohol to cope with symptoms of mental health conditions, such as anxiety and depression?

a)

Detoxification

b)

Relapse

c)

Self-medication

d)

Social drinking

71.

What is the first stage of recovery from an Alcohol Use Disorder (AUD), where the body clears itself of alcohol?

a)

Rehabilitation

b)

Detoxification

c)

Counseling

d)

Maintenance

72.

One of the long-term social consequences of alcohol use and abuse is:

a)

Improved academic performance

b)

Increased financial stability

c)

Strained relationships

d)

Reduced risk of accident

73.

In a 12-step recovery program like Alcoholics Anonymous (AA), how does a sponsor help a participant?

a)

By giving them money to buy healthy food

b)

By helping them get a job

c)

By telling them what decisions to make

d)

By providing support, empathy, and accountability

74.

Which government agency is responsible for ensuring medications are safe, effective, and secure from tampering?

a)

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

b)

National Institutes of Health (NIH)

c)

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

d)

Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)

75.

What are the unpleasant physical and psychological symptoms that occur when a person stops taking a medication or drug that they have used for a long time?

a)

Tolerance

b)

Relapse

c)

Withdrawal

d)

Detoxification

76.

Which of the following is the proper way to dispose of unused medications?

a)

Flush them down the toilet.

b)

Throw them directly into the trash can.

c)

Drop them off at a drug take-back location.

d)

Give them to a friend or family member.

77.

Which highly powerful prescription opioid is 50 to 100 times stronger than morphine and is responsible for many overdose deaths?

a)

Oxycodone

b)

Vicodin

c)

Percocet

d)

Fentanyl

78.

Prescription depressants are often abused for what initial effect?

a)

Increased energy and focus

b)

Hallucinations

c)

Relaxation and euphoria

d)

Increased muscle strength

79.

The slang terms speed, uppers, and vitamin R typically refer to the abuse of which type of prescription medication?

a)

Opioids

b)

Depressants

c)

Stimulants

d)

Cold medications

80.

What is the active ingredient in marijuana that causes a psychoactive effect?

a)

Cannabidiol (CBD)

b)

Methylene-dioxy-methamphetamine (MDMA)

c)

Delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol (THC)

d)

Dextromethorphan (DXM)

81.

Club drugs have no serious effects and are not addictive. True or False?

a)

True, they are only dangerous when mixed with alcohol.

b)

False, side effects can include memory loss, delirium, coma, and addiction.

c)

True, as long as they are taken in small doses.

d)

False, they are only addictive if used daily.

82.

Why are some club drugs referred to as "date rape drugs"?

a)

They cause intense aggression in the user, leading to assault.

b)

They are often sold in clubs.

c)

Criminals use them to commit sexual assaults due to side effects like memory loss.

d)

They cause permanent physical injury.

83.

What is the general term for using illegal, addictive drugs?

a)

Medication misuse

b)

Drug abuse

c)

Overnutrition

d)

Substance tolerance

84.

Why are teenagers particularly vulnerable to developing addictions to substances?

a)

They have higher levels of dopamine than adults.

b)

Their brains are still developing in areas that govern decision-making, judgment, and self-control.

c)

They metabolize substances faster than adults.

d)

They have already developed high levels of tolerance.

85.

What term is used when someone takes a medication or drug again after deciding to stop using it?

a)

Detoxification

b)

Self-medication

c)

Relapse

d)

Withdrawal