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POLS 1101 Practice Final Question Set -- 25

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which topic is not directly specified anywhere in the U.S. Constitution?

a)

How many Supreme Court justices

b)

The Electoral College system

c)

The Supremacy of federal law

d)

Specific congressional powers

2.

Hamilton argued in Federalist No. 15 that government remains weak unless it protects the interests of:

a)

The states

b)

Individual citizens

c)

Political elites

d)

The Continental Congress

3.

Supporters of the Constitution were called ______, while opponents were known as ______.

a)

Federalists / Anti-Federalists

b)

Anti-Federalists / Nationalists

c)

Republicans / Federalists

d)

Loyalists / Patriots

4.

Ratification of the Constitution required approval from how many states?

a)

7

b)

9

c)

11

d)

All 13

5.

The Virginia Plan resembled which style of governing?

a)

A strong national system

b)

A loose alliance of states

c)

A monarchy

d)

A one-house legislature

6.

Powers not granted to Congress under Article I, Section 8, belong primarily to the:

a)

States

b)

President

c)

Courts

d)

International treaties

7.

The Necessary and Proper Clause is often used by Congress to:

a)

Justify implied powers

b)

Limit presidential war powers

c)

Restrict commerce

d)

Expand state authority

8.

Which statement correctly fits the constitutional requirements for U.S. Senators?

a)

Must be at least 30 years old and serve six-year terms

b)

Must be 35 years old and serve two-year terms

c)

Must be 25 years old and serve four-year terms

d)

None of these are correct

9.

Which of the following would not be considered Anti-Federalists?

a)

Patrick Henry

b)

George Mason

c)

Alexander Hamilton

d)

Thomas Jefferson

10.

The Virginia Plan said federal power came from the ______, while the New Jersey Plan said it came from the ______.

a)

People / States

b)

States / People

c)

President / Congress

d)

Congress / President

11.

Madison believed that ______ would prevent the national government from becoming too powerful.

a)

Federalism

b)

A large army

c)

A monarchy

d)

Judicial activism

12.

A major flaw of the Articles of Confederation was that the national government:

a)

Had no power to tax

b)

Could easily regulate trade

c)

Had a strong executive

d)

Had too much military power

13.

Powers that stem from the Elastic Clause are called:

a)

Enumerated powers

b)

Implied powers

c)

Reserved powers

d)

Shared powers

14.

Article IV addresses which aspects of interstate cooperation?

a)

Full Faith and Credit

b)

Extradition between states

c)

Regulation of trade

d)

A and B only

15.

The Sherman Antitrust Act was created to regulate:

a)

Child labor

b)

Corporate monopolies

c)

State taxation

d)

Interstate transport

16.

Which of the following is not an enumerated power?

a)

Creating a navy

b)

Printing money

c)

Establishing post offices

d)

Setting rules for military drafts

17.

Enumerated powers refer to powers that are:

a)

Expressly written in the Constitution

b)

Interpreted by the courts

c)

Granted only to states

d)

Necessary to execute judicial rulings

18.

The Supreme Court in McCulloch v. Maryland ruled that Congress could establish a national bank because of:

a)

Reserved powers

b)

Supremacy clause

c)

Necessary and Proper Clause

d)

10th Amendment limits

19.

Which event/case increased state authority?

a)

Plessy v. Ferguson

b)

Nullification Crisis

c)

Civil War Amendments

d)

All of the above

20.

The United Kingdom operates under a ______ structure of government.

a)

Federal

b)

Unitary

c)

Confederal

d)

Parliamentary-democratic

21.

Federalism is a system in which:

a)

All power is held by one central authority

b)

Local governments dominate

c)

Power is divided between national and state governments

d)

Only states make policy

22.

A unitary system features:

a)

Weak central government

b)

Strong national government authority

c)

Equal division of powers

d)

Independent regional authorities

23.

State and local governments traditionally shape policy in which areas?

a)

Zoning and land use

b)

Public safety

c)

Education

d)

All of the above

24.

Which are concurrent powers?

a)

Building roads

b)

Taxation

c)

Establishing courts

d)

All of the above

25.

The national government typically has more resources to address national crises. True / False

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Georgia has rewritten its Constitution approximately how many times?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

10

d)

12

27.

Democrats generally oppose strict voter ID requirements. True / False

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Freedom of the press is protected primarily by the:

a)

1st Amendment

b)

10th Amendment

c)

Fairness Act

d)

Press Protection Clause

29.

Which experiences influence political beliefs early in life?

a)

Patriotic songs

b)

School ceremonies

c)

Family traditions

d)

All of the above

30.

Which group most frequently lobbies government to influence policy?

a)

Interest groups

b)

Public schools

c)

Churches

d)

Local media

31.

Individuals active in community groups but not regular voters are called:

a)

Communalists

b)

Activists

c)

Campaigners

d)

Partisan voters

32.

Which legislation dramatically expanded voting protection for racial minorities?

a)

15th Amendment

b)

19th Amendment

c)

Voting Rights Act of 1965

d)

Civil Rights Act of 1964

33.

The rule requiring broadcast stations to give equal time to opposing political viewpoints was the:

a)

Equal Time Rule

b)

Fairness Doctrine

c)

Media Neutrality Act

d)

Bipartisan Broadcasting Rule

34.

A major purpose of having two chambers of Congress is to:

a)

Increase legislative deliberation

b)

Speed up policymaking

c)

Allow judicial review

d)

Reduce leadership roles

35.

Which is true of the House of Representatives?

a)

Members serve 4-year terms

b)

It begins all revenue bills

c)

It confirms treaties

d)

Members must be at least 30

36.

Manipulating district boundaries for political advantage is known as:

a)

Redistricting

b)

Malapportionment

c)

Reapportionment

d)

Gerrymandering

37.

The most influential leader in the Senate is the:

a)

Majority Leader

b)

Vice President

c)

Majority Whip

d)

Chief Parliamentarian

38.

A representative who votes the way the public prefers acts as a:

a)

Delegate

b)

Trustee

c)

Politico

d)

Guardian

39.

A cloture vote in the Senate:

a)

Ends a filibuster

b)

Removes a senator from office

c)

Confirms nominations

d)

Rewrites a bill

40.

Federal judicial nominees are confirmed by the:

a)

House

b)

Senate

c)

President

d)

Judiciary Committee alone

41.

Members of the House serve terms lasting:

a)

2 years

b)

3 years

c)

4 years

d)

6 years

42.

The president’s role as Chief of State includes:

a)

Symbolic national leadership

b)

Negotiating treaties

c)

Managing budgets

d)

Enforcing laws

43.

A presidential veto may be overridden by:

a)

A simple majority in either chamber

b)

A two-thirds vote in both the House and the Senate

c)

A unanimous Supreme Court decision

d)

The signature of the Vice President

44.

Presidents favor executive agreements because:

a)

They avoid Senate approval

b)

They last longer than treaties

c)

Courts cannot review them

d)

They are easier to enforce

45.

U.S. v. Nixon ruled that:

a)

Executive privilege is limited

b)

Executive orders are unconstitutional

c)

Presidents cannot fire staff

d)

Treaties require House approval

46.

The President’s closest day-to-day political advisers belong to the:

a)

White House Staff

b)

Cabinet

c)

Joint Chiefs

d)

Diplomatic Corps

47.

The executive branch is designed to respond more quickly than Congress. True / False

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Which statement about the Vice President is FALSE?

a)

They once frequently came from opposing parties

b)

They help lead presidential initiatives

c)

They are the official leader of the Senate

d)

They often help during elections

49.

The “Johnson Treatment” showed presidential power comes from:

a)

Armed forces

b)

Persuasion

c)

Public polling

d)

Budget control

50.

A president uses the “bully pulpit” to:

a)

Pressure Congress

b)

Command troops

c)

Block judicial rulings

d)

Rewrite legislation

51.

Most legal disputes in the U.S. are handled by:

a)

State courts

b)

Federal courts

c)

Supreme Court

d)

Military courts

52.

A state case may be appealed to the federal courts only when:

a)

A federal issue is involved

b)

The state loses money

c)

It concerns local ordinances

d)

The judge requests it

53.

Jurisdiction refers to a court’s:

a)

Authority to hear a case

b)

Ability to collect evidence

c)

Jury selection rights

d)

Law-making powers

54.

Article ____ established the federal judiciary.

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

55.

The Supreme Court does not have original jurisdiction over which of the following?

a)

State-vs-state disputes

b)

Cases involving ambassadors

c)

Maritime crimes

d)

Cases involving the U.S. and a state

56.

The Supreme Court term begins:

a)

First Monday in October

b)

First Monday in January

c)

January 1

d)

June 1

57.

How many federal Courts of Appeals exist?

a)

9

b)

13

c)

5

d)

7

58.

The Supreme Court checks itself primarily through:

a)

Overturning prior decisions

b)

Public voting

c)

Annual reviews by Congress

d)

Judicial elections

59.

Civil rights protect individuals from:

a)

Unfair discrimination

b)

Fines

c)

War

d)

Taxation

60.

Civil liberties are best described as:

a)

Protections against government interference

b)

Guarantees of employment

c)

International travel rights

d)

Economic freedoms

61.

The Bill of Rights contains how many amendments?

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

d)

7

62.

Evidence collected illegally is excluded under the:

a)

Exclusionary rule

b)

Double jeopardy clause

c)

Free exercise clause

d)

Probable cause rule

63.

Double jeopardy prevents someone found not guilty from:

a)

Being retried for the same offense

b)

Serving jury duty

c)

Filing appeals

d)

Suing the court

64.

Budget deficits often occur because:

a)

Public demand for programs increases

b)

Government spending is prohibited

c)

Tax collection is illegal

d)

Corporations refuse to pay taxes

65.

Who defined government as holding a “monopoly on the legitimate use of force”?

a)

Max Weber

b)

Thomas Hobbes

c)

John Locke

d)

Baron de Montesquieu

66.

During the evaluation phase of policy making, leaders:

a)

Measure how well the policy works

b)

Write a policy proposal

c)

Enforce new laws

d)

Campaign for office

67.

The policy model emphasizing cost-benefit analysis is the:

a)

Rational model

b)

Incremental model

c)

Subgovernment model

d)

Advocacy model

68.

A common government tool to expand home ownership is:

a)

Mortgage tax deductions

b)

Limiting federal loans

c)

Raising property taxes

d)

Eliminating credit checks

69.

Foreign policy is shaped by:

a)

Government officials

b)

The media

c)

Public interest groups

d)

All of the above

70.

Bureaucracy participates in foreign policy mainly by:

a)

Implementing decisions

b)

Replacing ambassadors

c)

Negotiating treaties

d)

Declaring war

71.

The Secretary of State largely acts as the president's:

a)

Diplomatic representative

b)

Opponent

c)

Military advisor

d)

Treasurer

72.

Democracy is often viewed as competition among groups influencing policy decisions.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Which statement is NOT true of socialism?

a)

Taxes are higher

b)

More public goods are provided

c)

Often linked with Marxism

d)

Advocates minimal government involvement

74.

Under the Articles of Confederation, the federal government held strong executive power.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

The Virginia Plan included all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Stronger central government

b)

Bicameral legislature

c)

Courts chosen by upper chamber

d)

A weak, single-house legislature

76.

The plan proposed at the Convention that resembled the Articles was the:

a)

New Jersey Plan

b)

Virginia Plan

c)

Connecticut Plan

d)

Rhode Island Plan

77.

Which is NOT part of the Executive Office of the President (EOP)?

a)

Political advisors

b)

Economic advisors

c)

Legislative advisors

d)

State governors

78.

The doctrine that allowed states to maintain racial segregation was:

a)

Separate but Equal

b)

Equal but Separate

c)

Equivalent Separation

d)

Dual Standard Rule

79.

The process of learning political values and beliefs is called:

a)

Political socialization

b)

Civic indoctrination

c)

Political behavior

d)

Cultural recruitment

80.

Political socialization helps preserve:

a)

National political continuity

b)

Judicial independence

c)

Religious doctrine

d)

Military readiness

81.

Unlike other socialization, political learning is often:

a)

Less intentional

b)

Taught directly

c)

Memorized early

d)

Absent in childhood

82.

Political parties act as linkage institutions.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

Political parties are mentioned in the U.S. Constitution.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

The Framers intended Congress to be the _____ branch.

a)

Primary

b)

Weakest

c)

Judicial

d)

Temporary

85.

The House has the sole power of:

a)

Impeachment

b)

Treaty ratification

c)

Judicial confirmation

d)

Declaring war

86.

The politico theory states legislators act as:

a)

Delegates only

b)

Trustees only

c)

A mix of both

d)

Free agents

87.

A president might worry the EOP becomes filled with:

a)

“Yes-men”

b)

Strong critics

c)

State governors

d)

Senators

88.

Which is FALSE about executive agreements?

a)

They do not require Senate approval

b)

They are agreements with other countries

89.

The ruling that overturned segregation in schools was:

a)

Brown v. Board

b)

Plessy v. Ferguson

c)

Gideon v. Wainwright

d)

Marbury v. Madison

90.

Political parties do NOT:

a)

Organize voters

b)

Recruit candidates

c)

Fund candidates for favors

d)

Run campaigns