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Worksheets

Final Exam: ***

Total questions: 93

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be nephrotoxic?

a)

Ancef (Cefazolin)

b)

Keflex (Cephalexin)

c)

Maxipime (Cefepime)

d)

Rocephin (Ceftriaxone)

e)

Mefoxin (Cefoxitin)

2.

Which of the following is used to treat Impetigo that is caused by Staphylococcus aureus? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Erythromycin

b)

Clindamycin

c)

Dicoxacillin

d)

Mupirocin

e)

Cephalexin

3.

Which of the following is a causative agent of Roseola infantum?

a)

Human Herpes Virus-8

b)

Herpes Zoster Virus

c)

Human Papilloma Virus

d)

Variella-Zoster Virus

e)

Human Herpes Virus-6

4.

All of the following will inhibit the conversion of Squalene to Squalene epoxide EXCEPT:

a)

Naftifine (Naftin)

b)

Tinactin (Tolnaftate)

c)

Amorolfine (Loceryl)

d)

Terbinafine (Lamisil)

e)

Butenafine (Lotrimin, Mentax)

5.

The mechanism of action of Prevymis (Letermovir) involves the inhibition of which of the following?

a)

Helicase

b)

Reverse Transcriptase

c)

DNA terminase complex

d)

Protease

e)

APEX nuclease 1

6.

Which of the following produces its antifungal effect by inhibiting beta-(1,3)-D-glucan synthase?

a)

Ketoconazole

b)

Candicidin

c)

Nystatin

d)

Ciclopirox

e)

Anidulafungin

7.

Which of the following is the usual dosage of Pivya (Pivmecillin) when it is employed in the treatment of uncomplicated UTI?

a)

400 mg IV stat, then 200 mg PO Q 8 hours

b)

200 mg PO QID

c)

400 mg PO Q 8 hours

d)

200 mg IV stat, then 400 mg IV TID

e)

800 mg PO stat, then 400 mg IV Q 8 hours

8.

Which of the following should a Pharmacist dispense when filling a prescription for Lenacapavir?

a)

Sunlenca

b)

Rapivab

c)

Rukobia

d)

Genvoya

e)

Symfi

9.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a 4th-generation Cephalosporin?

a)

Ceftaroline

b)

Cefmenoxime

c)

Cefepime

d)

Cefixime

e)

Cefibuten

10.

Which of the following falls within the antibacterial spectrum of Azithromycin? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Mycobacterium

b)

Chlamydia

c)

Mycoplasma

d)

Babesia

e)

Haemophilus

11.

Which of the following is an indication of Trabectedin (Yondelis)?

a)

Glioblastoma

b)

Liposarcoma

c)

Gastric Cancer

d)

Pancreatic Cancer

e)

Ovarian Cancer

12.

Prolongation of the QT interval is LIKELY to result from the concurrent administration of Erythromycin and which of the following?

a)

Norpace (Disopyramide)

b)

Pimozide

c)

Coumadin (Warfarin)

d)

Lanoxin (Digoxin)

e)

Pravachol (Pravastatin)

13.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Daptomycin? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Myopathy

b)

Eosinophilic Pneumonia

c)

Bleeding

d)

Hypophosphatemia

e)

Hyperkalemia

14.

Amzeeq is a topical foam that contains which of the following?

a)

Eravacycline

b)

Doxycycline

c)

Chlortetracycline

d)

Oxytetracycline

e)

Minocycline

15.

A Medical Team wants to use a combination of Sofosbuvir and Velpatasvir ONLY to treat Mr. Lut’s Hepatitis C infection. Which of the following is the MOST APPROPRIATE product for the Pharmacist to suggest?

a)

Viekira

b)

Technivie

c)

Vosevi

d)

Epclusa

e)

Mavyret

16.

Which of the following is an over-the-counter product that is used to manage “cold sores”?

a)

Roferon

b)

Entecavir (Baraclude)

c)

Acyclovir (Zovirax)

d)

Valacyclovir (Valtrex)

e)

Docosanol (Abreva)

17.

The half-life of Ceftaroline (Teflaro) is which of the following?

a)

24 hr

b)

4 hr

c)

20 hr

d)

2.6 hr

e)

26 hr

18.

Which of the following statements about Aztreonam (Azactam) is FALSE?

a)

It binds to PBP-2

b)

It can be administered intramuscularly

c)

It is excreted through the urine

d)

Its half-life is longer in elderly patients

e)

It is excreted through the feces

19.

Which of the following will grow on a MacConkey agar?

a)

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

b)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

c)

Proteus mirabilis

d)

Clostridium difficile

e)

Bacillus anthracis

20.

A Medical Team wants to use a combination of Nystatin and Triamcinolone to treat Ms. Cad’s tinea corporis; Which of the following would be the MOST APPROPRIATE product for the Pharmacist to recommend?

a)

SteriNail

b)

Lotrisone

c)

Tineacid

d)

Fungoid

e)

Mycolog

21.

Which of the following is the appropriate dosage of Cefiderocol (Fetroja)?

a)

200 mg PO Q 8 hours

b)

1gm IV infusion Q 12 hours

c)

2g IV infusion over 30 min Q 6 hours

d)

500 mg IV infusion Q 3 hours

e)

2,000mg IV infusion over 3 hours Q 8 hours

22.

Hyperkalemia is LEAST LIKELY to result from the concurrent ingestion of Penicillin VK and which of the following?

a)

Invokana (Canagliflozin) → SGLT2i

b)

Oretic (Hydrochlorothiazide) → Thiazide Diuretic

c)

Zestril (Lisinopril) → ACEi

d)

Tekturna (Aliskiren) → Direct Renin Inhibitor

e)

Inspra (Eplerenone) → Potassium-Sparing Aldosterone Antagonist

23.

Which of the following inhibits the cross-linking of peptidoglycans after binding to PBP-2a?

a)

Azactam (Aztreonam)

b)

Bacitracin (Baciguent, Bacim, Neosporin, Polysporin)

c)

Ceftaroline (Teflaro) → 5th Gen. Ceph.

d)

Imipenem

e)

Cefixime (Suprax)

24.

None of the following should be used to treat Hepatitis C virus infection in a patient who is severely allergic to Sofosbuvir EXCEPT:

a)

Epclusa

b)

Vosevi

c)

Mavyret

d)

Hepcinat Plus

e)

Harvoni

25.

Claforan (Cefotaxime) is LEAST LIKELY to be effective in the treatment of which of the following infectious diseases?

a)

Pneumonia caused by Haemophilus influenzae

b)

Dysentery caused by Shigella flexeri

c)

Intra-abdominal infection caused by Bacteroides fragilis

d)

Cat-bite fever caused by Pasteurella mallocida

e)

Lyme Disease caused by Borrelia burgdoferi

26.

Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of Rocephin?

a)

Pseudolithiasis

b)

Elevation of conjugated bilirubin plasma levels

c)

Kernicterus

d)

Biliary Stasis

e)

Biliary sludging

27.

Which of the following is a clinical indication of Clindamycin? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Babesiosis

b)

Bacterial Vaginosis

c)

Cellulitis

d)

Toxoplasmosis

e)

Acne

28.

An individual who is severely allergic to Tazobactam only should NOT be given which of the following?

a)

Augmentin

b)

Avycaz

c)

Zosyn

d)

Timentin

e)

Unasyn

29.

The SDF combination regimen is MOST LIKELY to be used to treat which of the following?

a)

Breast cancer

b)

Pancreatic cancer

c)

Head & Neck cancer

d)

Choriocarcinoma

e)

Osteogenic cancer

30.

The mechanism of action of Retapamulin (Altabax; Altargo) involves binding to which of the following?

a)

PBP-2

b)

Ribosomal protein L3

c)

Leucyl tRNA synthetase

d)

PBP-3

e)

PBP-5

31.

Which of the following is employed in the management of phlebitis that is associated with the initiation of therapy with Amphotericin B?

a)

Meperidine

b)

Phenergan

c)

Heparin

d)

Benadryl

e)

Hydrocortisone

32.

The half-life of Rilpivirine (Edurant) is which of the following?

a)

12.5 hours

b)

5 hours

c)

25 hours

d)

50 hours

e)

10 hours

33.

Which of the following is an immediate adverse effect of Amphotericin B? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Anorexia

b)

Anuria

c)

Tachypnea

d)

Myalgia

e)

Rigor

34.

Which of the following is a Cell Cycle Non-Specific anticancer agent? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Cytoxan (Cyclophosphamide)

b)

Methotrexate

c)

Gemcitabine (Gemzar, Infugem)

d)

Mechlorethamine (Mustargen)

e)

Capecitabine (Xeloda)

35.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be an indication of Gentamicin?

a)

Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex infection

b)

Brucellosis

c)

Chronic osteomyelitis

d)

Fusobacterium-induced intra-abdominal infection

e)

Gram-negative bacterial meningitis

36.

A biological specimen from an infectious disease patient revealed the presence of bacteria growing like a bunch of grapes. Which of the following was responsible for the patient’s infection?

a)

Actinomyces israelii

b)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

c)

Yersinia pestis

d)

Burkholderia pseudomallei

e)

Staphylococcus aureus

37.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Select the incorrect statement about Amoxicillin from the options below:

a)

Amoxicillin has 3 chiral centers

b)

It is an acid-resistant penicillin

c)

It is a B-lactamase-sensitive penicillin

d)

It contains a lactam ring

e)

Ampicillin is an amphoteric substance

38.

ONE BEST ANSWER: The oral absorption of Levofloxacin is significantly reduced when it is co-administered with which of the following?

a)

Alcohol

b)

A high-fat meal

c)

Antacids

d)

A low-fat meal

e)

Grapefruit juice

39.

ONE BEST ANSWER: The structure illustrated below is a/an: Lomustine (CeeNU)

a)

Procarbazine analog

b)

Nitrosourea analog

c)

Camptothecin analog

d)

Nucleotide analog

e)

Vinca alkaloid analog

40.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Which of the following statements about DIDANOSINE is correct?

a)

DIDANOSINE is a CCR5 antagonists

b)

DIDANOSINE has low oral bioavailability (25%)

c)

DIDANOSINE is a HIV integrase inhibitor

d)

DIDANOSINE is a protease inhibitor

e)

DIDANOSINE is an oligopeptide consisting of 30 amino acids

41.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Paclitaxel interacts at the B-tubulin binding site in ______

a)

Twisted-boat conformation

b)

Half-chair conformation

c)

Boat conformation

d)

Butterfly conformation

e)

Chair conformation

42.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Exposure to _____ can cause Teniposide to precipitate.

a)

Water

b)

Dextrose

c)

Saline

d)

Heparin

43.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Irinotecan (Camptosar) is a/an:

a)

Purine analogue

b)

Prodrug

c)

Vinca Alkaloid analog

d)

Sulfonamide analog

e)

Camptothecan analog

44.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Which of the following statements about Cisplatin (Platinol-AQ) is correct?

a)

Cisplatin reacts with aluminum and cannot be administered through aluminum-containing needles

b)

Doxorubicinol is a cardiotoxic metabolite of Cisplatin

c)

Cisplatin is isolated from Taxus brevifolia

d)

Cisplatin is a pyrimidine analog

e)

Cisplatin is an anthroquinone glycoside

45.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Pralatrexate (Folotyn) is a/an:

a)

Lignin lactone analog

b)

Purine analog

c)

Pyrimidine analog

d)

Folic acid analog

e)

Taxol analog

46.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Drug-drug interactions have been noted with Docetaxel is coadministered with drugs that inhibit or compete for ____ enzymes.

a)

CYP3A4

b)

CYP2D9

c)

CYP2C9

d)

CYP2C19

e)

CYP1A2

47.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Ketoconazole is a fungal _____ inhibitor.

a)
Beta-lactamase
b)

Nucleic acid biosynthesis

c)

PABA biosynthesis

d)

Cell wall biosynthesis

e)

14a-demethylase

48.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Which of the following statements about Amphotericin B lipid formulations is correct?

a)

Amphotericin B lipid formulation must be diluted with 0.9% potassium chloride

b)

Amphotericin B lipid formulation must be diluted with 5% dextrose

c)

Amphotericin B lipid formulation must be diluted with normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride)

d)

Amphotericin B lipid formulations must be diluted with 0.9% calcium chloride

49.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Which statements about Doxorubicin are correct?

a)

Doxorubicinol is an active metabolite of doxorubicin

b)

Doxorubinol is a prodrug

c)

Doxorubicin is a pyrimidine analog

d)

Doxorubicin is a thymidine analog

e)

Doxorubicinol is a cardiotoxic metabolite of doxorubicin

50.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Vancomycin

a)

Vancomycin is a B-lactam analog

b)

Vancomycin is a glycosylated hexapeptide analog

c)

Vancomycin is a polysaccharide analog

d)

Vancomycin is a tetracycline analog

e)

Vancomycin is isolated from Penicillium chrysogenum

51.

ONE BEST ANSWER: _____ is an acid resistant penicillin

a)

Nafcillin

b)

Benzathine benzyl penicillin

c)

Benzyl penicillin

d)

Methicillin

e)

Amoxicillin

52.

Picoplatin is a/an:

a)

Triterpene alkaloid

b)

Aliphatic Nitrogen Mustard

c)

Aromatic Nitrogen Mustard

d)

Organoplatinum Compound

e)

Peptide analog

53.

Doxorubicin is a/an:

a)

Organoplatinum compound

b)

Peptide analog

c)

Nitrosourea

d)

Purine analog

e)

Antibiotic antineoplastic

54.

Docetaxel (Taxotere) is a/an:

a)

Triterpene Alkaloid

b)

Aliphatic Nitrogen Mustard

c)

Aromatic Nitrogen Mustard

d)

Organoplatinum Compound

e)

Peptide Analog

55.

Which function does Docetaxel (Taxotere) have?

a)

DNA Cross-Linking Agent

b)

Antimetabolite

c)

TopIIa Poison

d)

DNA Alkylating Agent

e)

Interacts with B-tubulin

56.

Which function does this molecule have? (Teniposide Hydrochloride; Vumon)

a)

Antimetabolite

b)

DNA Cross-Linking Agent

c)

TopIIa Poison

d)

Intrastrand Cross-Linking Agent

e)

Interstrand Cross-linking agent

57.

Which of the following statements about Docetaxel is/are CORRECT? SATA

a)

Docetaxel is a diterpene alkaloid

b)

Docetaxel inhibits CYP3A4

c)

Docetaxel has greater water solubility than Paclitaxel

d)

Docetaxel induces CYP3A4

e)

Docetaxel is an amphoteric substance

58.

Which of the following statements about Vincristine is/are CORRECT? SATA

a)

Vincristine is an indole alkaloid

b)

Vincristine is a weak base

c)

Vincristine is an alkaloid isolated from Catharanthus roseus

d)

Vincristine is an amphoteric substance

e)

Vincristine is an alkaloid isolated from Taxus brevifolia

59.

Which of the following statements about Irinotecan is/are CORRECT? SATA

a)

Irinotecan is a prodrug; Irinotecan inhibits CYP3A4

b)

Irinotecan is a Camptothecin analog

c)

SN-38 is an active metabolite of Irinotecan

d)

Irinotecan is a weak base

e)

Irinotecan has 1 chiral center. S isomer is active

60.

Which of the following statements about Etoposide and Teniposide is/are CORRECT? SATA

a)

Etoposide & Tenoposide are ligan lactone analogs

b)

Etoposide is more lipophilic than Etoposide

c)

Teniposide is more lipophilic than Etoposide

d)

Teniposide is more potent than Etoposide

e)

Teniposide is a teratogenic compound

61.

Which of the following statements about Doxorubicin is/are CORRECT? SATA

a)

Doxorubicin is a prodrug

b)

Doxorubicin is an anthraquinone glycoside

c)

Doxorubicin is a weak base

d)

Doxorubicinol is a cardiotoxic metabolite of Doxorubicin

e)

Doxil is a liposomal formulation of Doxorubicin

62.

MULTIPLE ANSWER QUESTION: Each answer choice contains a drug name, and the matched function. Select ones that show CORRECT match.

a)

Sorafenib - VEGFR inhibitor

b)

Ipilimumab - T cell checkpoint blockade

c)

Imatinib - PDGFR inhibitor

d)

Fulvestrant - Steroidal anti estrogen

e)

Trastuzumab - CDK inhibitor

63.

ONE BEST ANSWER: In cancer therapies, compared to bispecific antibodies, the most specific feature that CAR T cells have is:

a)

CAR T therapy involves constructs that bind to an antigen on a cancer cell with one arm and to T cell surface glycoprotein CD3 e-chain (CD3) on T cells

b)

CAR T cells are engineered products

c)

Can result massive release of cytokines leading to a clinical cytokine storm with potentially devastating physiological effects

d)

Can result in the rapid activation of large numbers of T cells interacting with large numbers of cells expressing the target antigens

e)

Need to be produced individually for each patient, but can result in a long-term antitumor immune response

64.

ONE BEST ANSWER: All of the following are the mechanisms of action for monoclonal antibodies used as cancer therapies EXCEPT:

a)

Altering the host response

b)

Intercalating into DNA and interfering DNA replication

c)

Delivering cytotoxic moieties

d)

Targeting cancer cells

e)

Retargeting T cells

65.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Vinca alkaloids are found naturally in

a)

Tacus brevifolia

b)

Datura stramonium

c)

Taxus officinalis

d)

Pilocarpis jaborandi

e)

Catharanthus roseus

66.

MULTIPLE ANSWER QUESTION: Select all the substrates that can be activated by RTKs

a)

Phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase

b)

MAP kinases

c)

PLC-γ

d)

PI3K (Phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase)

e)

Mitogen-activated protein kinases

67.

ONE BEST ANSWER: All of the following are correct statements about Bevacizumab EXCEPT:

a)

It is a PD-L1 inhibitor

b)

It can inhibit angiogenesis

c)

It is a monoclonal antibody

d)

It can interfere with VEGF function

e)

It can inhibit endothelial cell proliferation

68.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Palivizumab is a _____ monoclonal antibody used against _____

a)

Chimeric; Tumor

b)

Humanized; Virus (RSV)

c)

Mouse; Tumor

d)

Mouse; Virus

e)

Humanized; Tumor

69.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Which one of the following descriptions of Colchicine is NOT correct?

a)

Colchicine can cause less inflammation

b)

Colchicine inhibits microtubule polymerization

c)

Colchicine is an anticancer drug

d)

Colchicine has been used to treat gout

e)

Colchicine can promote cell division of inflammatory cells

70.

MULTIPLE ANSWER QUESTION: Select all anticancer drugs that are originated from plants.

a)

Vincristine

b)

Paclitaxel

c)

Ipilimumab

d)

Etoposide

e)

Camptothecins

71.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Which one is an inhibitory receptor expressed on T cells, which mediate the immune checkpoint?

a)

PD-1

b)

CD27

c)

PDL-1

d)

RTK

e)

HER2

72.

MULTIPLE ANSWER QUESTION: By targeting the antigen on the surface of malignant cells, the mAbs used in cancer therapy can:

a)

Induce apoptosis by crosslinking a receptor

b)

Kill target cells by complement mediated cytotoxicity (CMC)

c)

Block the binding of an activating ligand or inhibit the dimerization of a receptor

d)

Induce antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)

e)

None of the above

73.

ONE BEST ANSWER: All of the following are EGFR inhibitors EXCEPT:

a)

Trastuzumab

b)

Cetuximab

c)

Panitumumab

d)

Irinotecan

e)

Afatinib

74.

MULTIPLE ANSWER QUESTION: Select the correct statements about LHRH agonists:

a)

LHRH agonists means “luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone agonists

b)

Some LHRH agonists are used to treat Prostate Cancer

c)

Zoladex is one of the LHRH agonists available in the US

d)

In Men, LHRH agonists cause the testicles to stop making testosterone. In women, they cause the ovaries to stop making Estrogen and Progesterone.

e)

LHRH agonists have a “flare” effect, which means initial dramatic drop in Estrogen, Progesterone, or Testosterone secretion.

75.

ONE BEST ANSWER: In recent years, the phrase “smart bombs” has been used to describe mAbs that ___

a)

Target Cancer Cells

b)

Target Immune Cells

c)

Target both Cancer and Immune Cells

d)

Specifically target Tumor Environment

e)

Deliver Cytotoxic Moieties to Cancer Cells

76.

MULTIPLE ANSWER QUESTION: Select all EGFR Inhibitors:

a)

Trastuzumab

b)

Cetuximab

c)

Panitumumab

d)

Lapatinib

e)

Afatinib

77.

ONE BEST ANSWER: The challenges that limited the clinical utility of radioimmunoconjugates include all EXCEPT:

a)

Radioisotopes cause nonspecific radiation damage to normal tissue when the agent is in the circulation or is taken up nonspecifically by normal tissues

b)

Bone marrow is particularly radiosensitive and is therefore affected by circulating radioimmunoconjugate

c)

Radioisotopes don’t decay and therefore will cause a lot of side effects

d)

The kidney and the liver receive high doses of radiation because of their role in clearing the radioimmunoconjugate and free radioisotopes, and only a small fraction of the injected radiation dose ends up in the tumor

e)

Radioresistance of the tumors

78.

ONE BEST ANSWER: The full name of “CAR T Cells” for cancer therapy is:

a)

Carotid Artery Rupture T Cells

b)

Coxsackievirus and Adenovirus Receptor T Cells

c)

Comprehensive Anticancer Responsive T Cells

d)

Chimeric Antigen Receptor T Cells

e)

Cellular Antigen Responsive T Cells

79.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Which one of the following Camptothecins is a conjugate that has a component of antibody?

a)

Topotecan

b)

Irinotecan

c)

Belotecan

d)

Trastuzumab Deruxtecan

e)

None of the Above

80.

MULTIPLE ANSWER QUESTION: Select all the correct statements about Avelumab:

a)

It is a monoclonal antibody

b)

It is a PD-L1 Inhibitor

c)

It is a CDK 4/6 Inhibitor

d)

Its brand/commercial name is Bavencio

e)

None of the above

81.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Which one of the following categories of anticancer drugs can probably provide the best-tolerated chemotherapeutics?

a)

Plant Extraction such as Vinca Alkaloids

b)

Antibiotics such as Anthracyclines

c)

Blockers of Hormone Receptors overexpressed on certain cancer cells

d)

CDK4/5 Inhibitors

e)

None of the above

82.

ONE BEST ANSWER: All of the following descriptions about RTKs are correct EXCEPT:

a)

RTKs are a family of cell membrane receptors, which act as receptors for growth factors, hormones, cytokines, neurotropic factors, and other extracellular signaling molecules.

b)

RTKs mediate key signaling pathways that are involved in cell proliferation, differentiation, survival, and cell migration

c)

RTKs monomers are organized into extracellular (N-terminal), a transmembrane and a cytoplasmic kinase domain.

d)

They are activated via ligand-induced dimerization that results in receptor auto-phosphorylation and threonine activates RTKs substrates

e)

Mutations of RTKs have been associated with different cancers.

83.

MULTIPLE ANSWER QUESTION: Select the THREE FDA approved bispecific mAbs:

a)

Atezolizumab

b)

Blinatumomab

c)

Catumaxomab

d)

Dunalumab

e)

Emicizumab

84.

ONE BEST ANSWER: All of the following descriptions regarding CTLA4 are correct EXCEPT:

a)

CTLA stands for Cytotoxic T-lymphocytic associated protein 4

b)

CTLA4 is a positive regulator of T-cell activation

c)

Ipilimumab blocks CTLA4, which has had a major impact on the treatment of patients with melanoma.

d)

Physiologically, the effect of CTLA4 on T cell response is important for avoiding autoimmunity.

85.

ONE BEST ANSWER: All of the following are descriptions of Herceptin are correct EXCEPT:

a)

It is a polyclonal antibody

b)

It targets the extracellular domain of the HER2 protein in HER2-positive breast cancer patients

c)

It is an EGFR Inhibitor

d)

The chemical name of Herceptin is Trastuzumab

e)

It is an RTK Inhibitor

86.

ONE BEST ANSWER: All of the following descriptions regarding Actinomycin D are correct EXCEPT:

a)

It is an antibiotic drug

b)

Intercalation to DNA is one of its mechanisms

c)

It can inhibit cellular apoptosis

d)

It can block both DNA and RNA expression

87.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Blocking DNA synthesis is the mechanism of action of most anticancer drugs. In which cell cycle phase does DNA synthesis mainly occur?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

M

e)

None of the above

88.

SATA: Which of the following statements is/are true in regards to Fulvestrant effects on estrogen receptors?

a)

Promotes accelerated ER turnover

b)

Suppresses ER protein level

c)

Inhibits ER Dimerization

d)

Reduces shuttling of ER from cytoplasm to the nucleus

89.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Which phase of the cell cycle does Tamoxifen block?

a)

G0

b)

G1

c)

S

d)

G2

90.

TRUE/FALSE: The main MOA of Vinblastine (Velban) (Vinca Alkaloid) is binding to tubulin, which arrests cell division.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Which of the following is the mechanism of action of Doxorubicin?

a)

Inhibits DNA synthesis by binding to DNA on the path of alkylation which results in crosslinking of double helical DNA.

b)

Acts on nucleic acids of dividing cells by two main mechanisms: (i) Intercalation between the base pairs of DNA strands and inhibition of the synthesis of DNA and RNA in rapidly growing cells by blocking the replication and transcription process; and (ii) generation of iron-mediated free radicals, causing oxidative damage to cellular membranes, proteins, and DNA

c)

Induces Oxygen- and metal ion-dependent cleaving of DNA. Binds DNA and Fe (II) and hydroxyl radicals are released under the influence of molecular oxygen, causing as a consequence DNA damage and Fe (II) oxidation. Some studies suggest it also inhibits incorporation of thymidine into DNA strands.

d)

Type II topoisomerase inhibitor disrupts DNA synthesis and DNA repair in both healthy cells and cancer cells by intercalation between DNA bases.

92.

Cisplatin, Oxaliplatin, & Carboplatin are usually administered by:

a)

oral route

b)

intravenous route

c)

subcutaneous route

d)

intramuscular route

93.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Cisplatin, Oxaliplatin, & Carboplatin (Platinum Coordination Complexes) are usually administered by:

a)

IV Injection

b)

PO

c)

Intrathecally

d)

Inhalation

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