wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Adv Modalities Review

Total questions: 35

Worksheet time: 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

PET/CT combines which types of information into a single hybrid image?

a)

Bone density + vascular flow

b)

Functional metabolism + anatomic detail

c)

Motor function + ligament motion

d)

Perfusion + echogenicity

2.

What metabolic characteristic allows PET to detect cancer earlier than CT?

a)

Tumors excrete large quantities of sodium

b)

Malignant tissue demonstrates increased glucose consumption

c)

Cancer slows glycolysis

d)

Tumors reflect acoustic energy strongly

3.

PET is most appropriate for evaluating which group of conditions?

a)

Epileptic focus detection

b)

Myocardial perfusion

c)

Fetal skeletal development

d)

Tumor staging

4.

The fundamental advantage of PET over CT is its ability to reveal:

a)

High-contrast bony detail

b)

Metabolic function rather than structure

c)

Superior soft-tissue margins

d)

Real-time motion imaging

5.

In what modality is pair production essential for image creation?

a)

MRI

b)

CT

c)

PET

d)

Fluoroscopy

6.

The nucleus most commonly used for MR signal production is:

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Sodium

c)

Fluorine

d)

Carbon

7.

Compared with standard x-ray tubes, CT x-ray tubes differ in that they:

a)

Produce fewer heat units

b)

Rotate intermittently

c)

Tolerate sustained high temperatures

d)

Emit monochromatic beams

8.

Which procedural technique introduces a catheter after guidewire placement?

a)

Modified Selden technique

b)

Seldinger technique

c)

Tortuous catheterization method

d)

Retrograde puncture method

9.

A patient with suspected subarachnoid aneurysm would most likely undergo which exam?

a)

Venography

b)

Cerebral angiography

c)

Myelography

d)

Cystography

10.

Angiocardiography may be ordered to assess which cardiac conditions?

a)

Congenital structural abnormalities

b)

Valvular function

c)

Myocardial infarct effects

d)

Genetic arrhythmias

11.

Which exam is most appropriate for localizing an active gastrointestinal arterial bleed?

a)

PET

b)

Abdominal angiography

c)

Chest radiography

d)

MRCP

12.

Peripheral angiography is performed primarily to assess:

a)

Nerve conduction speed

b)

Limb ischemia

c)

Muscle strains

d)

Tendon rupture

13.

Interventional radiology procedures offer which clinical advantages?

a)

Less invasiveness

b)

Shorter hospitalization

c)

Longer anesthesia needs

d)

Faster recovery

14.

A TIPS procedure is most commonly used to treat complications of which condition?

a)

Cholelithiasis

b)

Portal hypertension

c)

COPD

d)

Acute pancreatitis

15.

Kyphoplasty is performed mainly to:

a)

Excise spinal tumors

b)

Increase vertebral height after compression fracture

c)

Treat scoliosis

d)

Remove herniated discs

16.

Prior to arterial catheterization, the technologist must document:

a)

Allergy screening

b)

Peripheral pulse checks

c)

Verification of NPO status

d)

Ankle-brachial index

17.

Angiography primarily images which type of vessel?

a)

Lymphatic channels

b)

Arterial structures

c)

Capillaries only

d)

Veins exclusively

18.

Which structure is NOT a deep vein of the lower extremity?

a)

Popliteal

b)

Posterior tibial

c)

Basilic vein

d)

Anterior tibial

19.

Which of the following vessels arise directly from the aortic arch?

a)

Brachiocephalic artery

b)

Left common carotid artery

c)

Left subclavian artery

d)

Right common carotid artery

e)

Right subclavian artery

20.

PET is especially useful for evaluating which neurological conditions?

a)

Dementia

b)

Seizure foci

c)

Language mapping

d)

Peripheral neuropathy

21.

PET tracers are produced using what device?

a)

Linear accelerator

b)

Gamma camera

c)

Cyclotron

d)

Ultrasonic generator

22.

PET detectors typically use which material to register photon events?

a)

Photographic film

b)

Ion chambers

c)

Scintillators

d)

Diamond plates

23.

Which tracer is preferred for evaluating tissue perfusion in PET?

a)

18F-fluoride

b)

15O-water

c)

I-125 albumin

d)

99mTc-MDP

24.

Which of the following organs typically do NOT demonstrate naturally high FDG uptake, making them easier to interpret on PET imaging?

a)

Spleen

b)

Adrenal glands

c)

Brain

d)

Bladder

25.

PET is especially valuable in oncology because it:

a)

Analyzes metabolic activity to track tumor growth

b)

Visualizes bone structure

c)

Measures soft-tissue elasticity

d)

Detects metallic implants

26.

All of the following are common positron-emitting elements used in PET EXCEPT:

a)

Carbon

b)

Fluorine

c)

Oxygen

d)

Technetium

27.

Which imaging planes are commonly acquired directly during routine MRI scanning?

a)

Coronal

b)

Sagittal

c)

Axial

d)

Longitudinal

28.

PET systems determine event location by detecting photons that strike detectors:

a)

At staggered time intervals

b)

Simultaneously on opposite sides

c)

Following absorption in bone

d)

After fluorescence emission

29.

Which change helps show more anatomical detail on MRI images?

a)

Thicker slices

b)

Larger field of view

c)

Thinner slices

d)

Lower matrix size

30.

The spin-echo sequence is favored because it provides:

a)

Enhanced bone imaging

b)

High-quality tissue contrast

c)

Shortest scan times

d)

Motion-free images

31.

Physiologic gating in MRI helps minimize artifacts related to:

a)

Overheating

b)

Metallic implants

c)

Cardiac or respiratory motion

d)

Magnet quench

32.

(Select all that apply) MRI absolutely contraindicates which items?

a)

Implanted pacemakers

b)

Ferromagnetic eye fragments

c)

Cochlear implants

d)

Mild contrast allergies

33.

Spatial resolution in CT is affected by:

a)

Detector size

b)

Focal spot dimension

c)

Image matrix

d)

Slice thickness

34.

Which artifact is most commonly associated with metallic implants in CT imaging?

a)

ring artifact

b)

streak artifact

c)

beam hardening artifact

d)

motion artifact

35.

The CT gantry contains which components?

a)

The x-ray tube and detectors

b)

The power injector

c)

The reconstruction workstation

d)

The image archive