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Pharm Tech Test Review 12.7.25

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the indication for donepezil?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Bipolar disorder

c)

Alzheimer's dementia

d)

Cough

2.

Which law provides tax breaks and incentives for manufacturers creating medications to treat rare conditions?

a)

Drug Listing Act of 1972

b)

Anabolic Steroid Control Act of 2004

c)

Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987

d)

Orphan Drug Act of 1983

3.

The requirement for pharmacists to counsel patients on a medication they have not taken before is listed under which law?

a)

Kefauver-Harris Amendment

b)

Durham-Humphrey Amendment

c)

OBRA '90

d)

Prescription Drug Marketing Act

4.

What is the indication for sumatriptan?

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Migraines

c)

Infection

d)

Hypertension

5.

What is the drug class for rivaroxaban?

a)

antibiotic

b)

antiarrhythmic

c)

antiviral

d)

anticoagulant

6.

What is the most common side effect of warfarin?

a)

weight gain

b)

headache

c)

dizziness

d)

bleeding

7.

A patient asks you if he or she can take low dose aspirin while on warfarin therapy. Your response is:

a)

that should be fine.

b)

the pharmacist is busy right now.

c)

let me have the pharmacist speak with you.

d)

no that is a fatal interaction.

8.

Which of the following is a possible ADR of clonidine?

a)

hypoglycemia

b)

hypocalcemia

c)

hypokalemia

d)

hypotension

9.

Which of the following medications is a schedule III medication?

a)

morphine

b)

clonazepam

c)

heroin

d)

anabolic steroids

10.

What is needed to order schedule II narcotics from a wholesale warehouse?

a)

A prescription from a physician

b)

The perpetual inventory shows the schedule II narcotics are fully stocked

c)

Form 222 must be filled out on paper or electronically

d)

Approval from FDA

11.

What food should be avoided when taking lovastatin?

a)

grapefruit

b)

peanuts

c)

fish

d)

dairy

12.

Match the DEA form with the correct purpose. For DEA Form 41, choose the correct purpose from the options.

a)

Registering a pharmacy with the DEA

b)

Destruction of outdated or damaged controlled substances

c)

Ordering/transferring of schedule II narcotics

d)

Theft of a controlled substance

13.

Match the DEA form with the correct purpose. For DEA form 106, choose the correct purpose from the options.

a)

Registering a pharmacy with the DEA

b)

Destruction of outdated or damaged controlled substances

c)

Ordering/transferring of schedule II narcotics

d)

Theft of a controlled substance

14.

Match the DEA form with the correct purpose. For DEA form 222, choose the correct purpose from the options.

a)

Registering a pharmacy with the DEA

b)

Destruction of outdated or damaged controlled substances

c)

Ordering/transferring of schedule II narcotics

d)

Theft of a controlled substance

15.

Match the DEA form with the correct purpose. For DEA form 224, choose the correct purpose from the options.

a)

Registering a pharmacy with the DEA

b)

Destruction of outdated or damaged controlled substances

c)

Ordering/transferring of schedule II narcotics

d)

Theft of a controlled substance

16.

Which of the following disease states may be exacerbated by Inderal (propranolol)? (/1)

a)

Diabetes

b)

Anxiety

c)

Asthma

d)

Hypercholesterolemia

17.

What is a common side effect with diltiazem? (/1)

a)

hypoglycemia

b)

heart failure

c)

hypertension

d)

syncope

18.

What is a potential side effect of spironolactone?

a)

hypertension

b)

hallucinations

c)

dizziness

d)

edema

19.

Which of the following is not a common side effect of furosemide?

a)

dizziness

b)

edema

c)

hypotension

d)

electrolyte disturbance

20.

What is the brand name of digoxin?

a)

Plavix

b)

Lotrel

c)

Norvasc

d)

Lanoxin, Digitek

21.

What is the brand name of furosemide?

a)

Microzide

b)

Flomax

c)

Maxzide

d)

Lasix

22.

What is the brand name of Tamsulosin?

a)

Lasix

b)

Maxzide

c)

Microzide

d)

Flomax

23.

Diuretics can cause a decrease in which of the following?

a)

cholesterol

b)

serotonin

c)

sugar

d)

electrolytes

24.

What is albuterol given for?

a)

hypothyroidism

b)

gout

c)

hypertension

d)

asthma

25.

What is the brand name of fluticasone?

a)

Nexium

b)

Glimperide

c)

Prilosec

d)

Flonase

26.

Which of the following is not a common side effect with systemic corticosteroids?

a)

hyperglycemia

b)

dizziness

c)

infection

d)

weight gain

27.

What is the brand name of methylprednisolone?

a)

Cortef

b)

Veripred

c)

Deltasone

d)

Medrol

28.

What is the brand name of levocetirizine?

a)

Claritin

b)

Dramamine

c)

Zyrtec

d)

Xysal

29.

What drug class is mometasone?

a)

anticholinergic agent

b)

anti tussive

c)

decongestant

d)

nasal corticosteroid

30.

What is the brand name of albuterol; ipratropium?

a)

Flovent

b)

Serevent

c)

Xopenex

d)

Combivent; Duoneb

31.

What is the brand name of prednisone?

a)

Fluticasone

b)

ProAir

c)

Combivent

d)

Deltasone

32.

What is the brand name of montelukast?

a)

ProAir

b)

Combivent

c)

Duoneb

d)

Singulair

33.

What is the brand name for cetirizine?

a)

Singulair

b)

Nasonex

c)

Flonase

d)

Zyrtec

34.

What is the brand name for Hydroxyzine?

a)

Allegra

b)

Vyvanse

c)

Spiriva

d)

Vistaril

35.

What is the drug class for promethazine?

a)

antibiotic

b)

antiviral

c)

analgesic

d)

antiemetic

36.

What is the brand name of promethazine?

a)

Phentermine

b)

Phenobarbital

c)

Phenytoin

d)

Phenergan

37.

What is the drug class for hydroxyzine?

a)

antibiotic

b)

antianginal

c)

antiviral

d)

antiemetic

38.

Which of the following is the most common ADR with diphenhydramine?

a)

increased appetite

b)

hyperglycemia

c)

GERD

d)

drowsiness

39.

What is the brand name for budesonide?

a)

Spiriva

b)

Combivent

c)

Duoneb

d)

Pulmicort

40.

What is the indication for mometasone?

a)

allergies

b)

cystic fibrosis

c)

COPD

d)

asthma

41.

Match the medication ending with the correct drug class: medications ending with -pine correspond to which class?

a)

ACE inhibitor

b)

Antihyperlipidemic

c)

Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker

d)

Calcium Channel Blocker

e)

Beta Blocker

42.

Match the medication ending with the correct drug class: medications ending with -lol correspond to which class?

a)

ACE inhibitor

b)

Antihyperlipidemic

c)

Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker

d)

Calcium Channel Blocker

e)

Beta Blocker

43.

Match the medication ending with the correct drug class: medications ending with -pril correspond to which class?

a)

ACE inhibitor

b)

Antihyperlipidemic

c)

Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker

d)

Calcium Channel Blocker

e)

Beta Blocker

44.

Match the medication ending with the correct drug class: medications ending with -statin correspond to which class?

a)

ACE inhibitor

b)

Antihyperlipidemic

c)

Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker

d)

Calcium Channel Blocker

e)

Beta Blocker

45.

Match the medication ending with the correct drug class: medications ending with -sartan correspond to which class?

a)

ACE inhibitor

b)

Antihyperlipidemic

c)

Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker

d)

Calcium Channel Blocker

e)

Beta Blocker

46.

What is the drug class for triamcinolone?

a)

Topical Antifungal

b)

Ophthalmic Agent

c)

Topical Analgesic

d)

Topical Corticosteroid

47.

What is the brand name for benzonatate?

a)

Triaminic

b)

Delsym

c)

Robitussin

d)

Tessalon

48.

What is the indication for Benzonate?

a)

hypertension

b)

arthritis

c)

hyperglycemia

d)

cough

49.

What is the drug classification of guaifenesin?

a)

Smoking Cessation

b)

Anti-allergy

c)

Anti-inflammatory

d)

Expectorant

50.

Which of the following is not a common side effect with oral contraceptive pills?

a)

nausea

b)

fatigue

c)

vomiting

d)

weight gain

51.

Which of the following is nearly always an ingredient in combined oral contraceptive pills?

a)

ethinyl estradiol

b)

levonorgestrel

c)

norethindrone

d)

norgestimate

52.

Which OTC contraceptive product helps prevent sexually transmitted diseases?

a)

condoms

b)

birth control pills

c)

contraceptive sponges

d)

diaphragms

53.

Which type of diabetes always requires the use of insulin? (1 point)

a)

Gestational

b)

Adult-onset

c)

Type 1

d)

Type 2

54.

Put the following types of insulin order of the onset from quickest to slowest. (4 points) Choose the correct sequence.

a)

Rapid-acting, Short-acting, Intermediate-Acting, Basal

b)

Rapid-acting, Intermediate-Acting, Short-acting, Basal

c)

Short-acting, Rapid-acting, Intermediate-Acting, Basal

d)

Rapid-acting, Short-acting, Basal, Intermediate-Acting

55.

How long can insulin be kept at room temperature?

a)

14 days

b)

28 days

c)

21 days

d)

7 days

56.

What is the brand name for levothyroxine?

a)

Armour Thyroid

b)

Thyroxine

c)

PTU

d)

Synthroid

57.

What is the drug class for levothyroxine?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Antiplatelet

c)

Oral Hypoglycemics

d)

Hormones

58.

What is not a common ADR with testosterone use?

a)

hirsutism

b)

dizziness

c)

gynecomastia

d)

teratogen (birth defect)

59.

Which is not a hormone replacement drug?

a)

propylthiouracil

b)

estrogen

c)

sitagliptin

d)

levothyroxine

60.

What is the translation of "Instill 1 gtt o.u. bid"?

a)

Instill 1 drop in both eyes twice daily

b)

Instill 1 drop in both ears twice daily

c)

Instill 1 drop in the left eye twice daily

d)

Instill 1 drop in the ear twice daily

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