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Medical Terminology EXAM 5 Study Guide

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

One of the leading causes of blindness in the elderly is:

a)

Cataracts

b)

Macular degeneration

c)

Presbyopia

d)

Scleral buckling

2.

A small, hard, cystic mass on the eyelid is a _______.

a)

Cataract

b)

Hordeolum

c)

Chalazion

d)

Ptosis

3.

The medical term that describes inflammation of the eyelid is:

a)

Dacryocystitis

b)

Cataract

c)

Blepharitis

d)

Conjunctivitis

4.

The medical term for double vision is:

a)

Binocular vision

b)

Amblyopia

c)

Diplopia

d)

Astigmatism

5.

The medial term for farsightedness is:

a)

Presbyopia

b)

Hyperopia

c)

Astigmatism

d)

Myopia

6.

Impaired vision due to aging is called:

a)

Glaucoma

b)

Scleral buckling

c)

Hordeolum

d)

Presbyopia

7.

Having nearsightedness is called:

a)

Myopia

b)

Hyperopia

c)

Presbyopia

d)

Diplopia

8.

The condition commonly called “lazy eye” is:

a)

Amblyopia

b)

Astigmatism

c)

Esotropia

9.

The term for a defective curvature of the cornea or lens of the eye is _______.

a)

Astigmatism

b)

Hyperopia

c)

Myopia

d)

Presbyopia

10.

________ is the progressive deterioration of the macula of the retina and the choroid layer of the eye.

a)

Macular degeneration

b)

Esotropia

c)

Ptosis

d)

Xanthelasma

11.

A raised yellowish plaque on the eyelid caused by a lipid disorder is called __________.

a)

Xanthelasma

b)

Chalazion

c)

Hordeolum

d)

Blepharitis

12.

The clouding of the lens causing decreased vision is called:

a)

Glaucoma

b)

Macular degeneration

c)

Entropion

d)

Cataract

13.

Infection of a sebaceous gland producing a small, superficial white nodule along the lid margin is called:

a)

Dacryocystitis

b)

Hordeolum

c)

Ptosis

d)

Pink eye

14.

Esotropia and exotropia are examples of:

a)

Diabetic retinopathy

b)

Strabismus

c)

Nystagmus

d)

Ptosis

15.

Loss of vision in half of the visual field that can occur with a stroke is called:

a)

Hyperopia

b)

Hemianopsia

c)

Hypermetropia

d)

Ptosis

16.

Repetitive rhythmic movements of one or both eyes is called ______.

a)

Strabismus

b)

Nystagmus

17.

Symptoms of this condition include floaters in the visual field and photopsia.

a)

Macular degeneration

b)

Diabetic blindness

c)

Retinal detachment

d)

Cataract

18.

________ is the fluid found in the anterior chamber of the eye.

a)

Sclerous humor

b)

Aqueous humor

c)

Fovea central humor

d)

Vitreous humor

19.

An ________ is a medical doctor who specializes in treating eye disorders.

a)

ophthalmic technician

b)

optician

c)

ophthalmologist

d)

optometrist

20.

The ability to see one image using both eyes is called:

a)

bifocal vision

b)

binocular vision

c)

monocular vision

d)

astigmatism

21.

The sensitive receptor cells of the retina responsible for peripheral vision are the:

a)

Cones

b)

Rods

c)

Lenses

d)

Pupils

22.

The location of the area of sharpest vision in the eye is the:

a)

Optic chiasm

b)

Choroid

c)

Fovea centralis

d)

Lens

23.

The bending of light rays as they pass through the cornea, lens, and other structure of the eye en route to the retina is called:

a)

Refraction

b)

Convergence

c)

Accommodation

d)

Constriction

24.

The colored portion of the eye is the:

a)

Choroid

b)

Iris

c)

Ciliary body

25.

The dark opening in the center of the iris is the:

a)

Macula

b)

Pupil

c)

Sclera

d)

Lens

26.

The transparent, biconvex body behind the pupil that bends and focuses light rays is the:

a)

Optic nerve

b)

Sclera

c)

Ciliary body

d)

Lens

27.

The middle vascular layer of the eye is the:

a)

Anterior chamber

b)

Fundus

c)

Choroid

d)

Cornea

28.

The structure that contains the muscles that control the shape of the lens is the:

a)

Ciliary body

b)

Aqueous humor

c)

Conjunctiva

d)

Sclera

29.

Because there are no light receptor cells in the __________, it is known as the blind spot of the eye.

a)

Fovea centralis

b)

Optic chiasm

c)

Optic disc

d)

Optic nerve

30.

A delicate membrane that lines the undersurface of the eyelids and covers the anterior eyeball is the:

a)

Aqueous humor

b)

Ciliary body

c)

Cornea

d)

Conjunctiva

31.

Channel between the middle ear and nasopharynx:

a)

Ossicle

b)

Auditory canal

c)

Auditory tube

d)

Labyrinth

32.

The ________ ear contains structures that receive the auditory waves and relays them to the brain:

a)

Inner

b)

Outer

c)

Middle

33.

Sound waves enter through the ________, which is the projecting part or flap of the ear.

a)

Tympanic membrane

b)

Pinna

c)

Oval window

d)

Cochlea

34.

The three small bones that conduct sound waves through the middle ear include all of the following except:

a)

Malleus

b)

Stapes

c)

Incus

d)

Vestibule

35.

Passages in the inner ear associated with maintaining balance:

a)

Labyrinth

b)

Cerumen

c)

Semicircular canals

d)

Endolymph

36.

Sensation of noises in the ears without an external source:

a)

Vertigo

b)

Otosclerosis

c)

Tinnitus

d)

Cholesteatoma

37.

Test of ear conduction using a vibration source:

a)

Ear thermometry

b)

Cochlear implant

c)

Audiometry

d)

Tuning fork test

38.

Hyper ____ means an increased level of blood glucose (sugar).

a)

Glucosemia

b)

Uremia

c)

Glycemia

d)

Natremia

39.

Mrs. Pitt developed excessive hair on her face and body, or _____, due to excessive secretion of androgens caused by an adrenal tumor.

a)

Tetany

b)

Hirsutism

c)

Cretinism

d)

Virilism

40.

As a result of hormonal changes, Mrs. Augustina developed ____________ diabetes during the third trimester of her pregnancy. Her blood sugar returned to normal after delivery.

a)

Gestational

b)

Type 2

c)

Psychosomatic

d)

Tripartal

41.

Advanced hypothyroidism in adulthood is called:

a)

Cushing syndrome

b)

Cretinism

c)

Addison disease

d)

Myxedema

42.

________ is a congenital condition associated with extreme hypothyroidism and characterized by dwarfism and mental retardation.

a)

Type 1 diabetes

b)

Osteitis fibrosa cystica

c)

Cretinism

d)

Panhypopituitarism

43.

Most common form of hyperthyroidism due to excessive secretion of the thyroid hormones. One symptom is the protrusion of the eyeballs, or ___________.

a)

Graves' disease, exophthalmos

b)

Cushing syndrome, myopia

c)

Addison disease, retinopathy

d)

Thyrotoxicosis, hyperopia

44.

Hyperfunctioning of the pituitary gland before puberty that leads to abnormal overgrowth of the body is called:

a)

Acromegaly

b)

Gigantism

c)

Myxedema

d)

Thyrotoxicosis

45.

Enlargement of facial, jaw, and extremity bones during adulthood as a result of excess growth hormone is called:

a)

Acromegaly

b)

Gigantism

c)

Myxedema

d)

Virilism

46.

Diabetes insipidus results from:

a)

Insufficient secretion of antidiuretic hormone from the pituitary gland

b)

Excess secretion of antidiuretic hormone from the pituitary gland

47.

Hypoparathyroidism is caused by deficient production of:

a)

Parathyroid hormone

b)

Thyroxine

c)

Insulin

d)

Cortisol

48.

Tetany is defined as:

a)

Constant muscle contraction

b)

Epilepsy

c)

Muscle atrophy

d)

Nerve spasm

49.

Hyperfunctioning of the adrenal cortex. Includes hypoglycemia, hyponatremia, increased blood levels of MSH, subnormal levels of cortisol, and bronze pigmentation:

a)

Addison disease

b)

Cushing syndrome

c)

Diabetes insipidus

50.

Excessive secretion of adrenal androgens is called:

a)

Hirsutism

b)

Adrenal virilism

c)

Virilization

d)

Hyperadrenism

51.

Which of the following medical terms describes low blood level of calcium?

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Hypocalcemia

c)

Hypercalcemia

d)

Prolactinemia

52.

Hormone secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland; stimulates the adrenal cortex:

a)

adrenaline

b)

antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

c)

adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

d)

parathormone (PTH)

53.

Secreted by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland; increases reabsorption of water by the kidneys:

a)

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

b)

Somatotropin

c)

Parathormone (PTH)

d)

Thyroxine (T4)

54.

T3 and T4 are the abbreviations for:

a)

tetany, tachycardia

b)

triiodothyronine, thyroxine

55.

The abbreviation for parathormone:

a)

PTH

b)

ACTH

c)

TSH

d)

GH

56.

TSH is the abbreviation for:

a)

toxic shock hypoglycemia

b)

thyroid-stimulating hormone

c)

tumor-specific hypophysis

d)

thyroid stroma histology

57.

Pro ______ is an anterior pituitary hormone that promotes milk production after birth.

a)

Crinolin

b)

Calcium

c)

Lactin

d)

Kalin

58.

The hormone that stimulates uterine contractions during labor is:

a)

Oxytropin

b)

Oxyontin

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Oxyuria

59.

The "master gland" that secretes a variety of different hormones and regulates activities of other endocrine glands is the:

a)

thyroid gland

b)

pituitary gland

c)

thymus gland

d)

pineal gland

60.

The adrenal glands are located:

a)

On top of the kidneys

b)

Behind the thyroid

c)

On the bottom of the kidneys

d)

Adjacent to the thyroid

61.

Epinephrine and norepinephrine are secreted by the:

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Adrenal cortex

c)

Adrenal medulla

d)

Pituitary gland

62.

______ decreases blood sugar; ______ increases blood sugar:

a)

Progesterone, vasopressin

b)

Estrogen, testosterone

c)

Insulin, glucagon

63.

This hormone increases metabolism in body cells.

a)

Thyroxine (or Thyroid hormone)

b)

Insulin

c)

Adrenaline

d)

Growth hormone

64.

This hormone increases the heart rate and blood pressure during emergencies:

a)

Cortisol

b)

Adrenaline

c)

Thyroxine

d)

Calcitonin

65.

This hormone prepares and maintains the uterus in pregnancy:

a)

follicle-stimulating hormone

b)

progesterone

c)

growth hormone (GH)

d)

epinephrine

66.

The adrenal medulla secretes the sympathomimetic hormone adrenaline, which is also known as ____________________.

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Cortisol

c)

Noradrenaline

d)

Norepinephrine

67.

A region of the brain lying below the thalamus and above the pituitary gland, which secretes releasing and inhibiting factors and hormones that affect the pituitary gland:

a)

Parathyroidism

b)

Sella turcica

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Hypophysis

68.

A group of signs and symptoms produced by excess cortisol from the adrenal cortex:

a)

Addison disease

b)

Hypoparathyroidism

c)

Pheochromocytoma

d)

Cushing syndrome

69.

Lack of insulin secretion or resistance of insulin in promoting sugar, starch and fat metabolism in cells:

a)

diabetes insipidus (DI)

b)

hyperinsulinism

c)

syndrome of inappropriate ADH

d)

diabetes mellitus (DM)

70.

This test measures the percentage of red blood cells (RBCs) with glucose attached and monitors long-term glucose control:

a)

thyroid function tests

b)

urinary microalbumin assay

c)

fasting plasma glucose (FPG)

d)

glycosylated hemoglobin test (A1C)

71.

Match the description with the correct combining form (1)

a)

Gland

1.

Aden/o

b)

Dull, dim

2.

Ambly/o

c)

Adrenal gland

3.

Adrenal/o

d)

Male

4.

Andr/o

e)

Water

5.

Aque/o

72.

Match the description with the correct combining form (2)

a)

Ear

1.

Aur/o, Ot/o

b)

Eyelid

2.

Blephar/o, Palpebr/o

c)

Calcium

3.

Calci/o, Calc/o

d)

Conjuctiva

4.

Conjuctiv/o

e)

Pupil

5.

Cor/o, Pupill/o

73.

Match the description with the correct combining form (3)

a)

Cornea

1.

Corne/o, Kerat/o

b)

Cortex, outer region

2.

Cortic/o

c)

Secrete

3.

Crin/o

d)

Ciliary body or muscle of the eye

4.

Cycl/o

e)

Tears, tear duct

5.

Dacry/o, Lacrimin/o

74.

Match the description with the correct combining form (4)

a)

Double

1.

Dipl/o

b)

Thirst

2.

Dips/o

c)

Female

3.

Estr/o

d)

Gray

4.

Glauc/o

e)

Sugar

5.

Gluc/o, Glyc/o

75.

Match the description with the correct combining form (5)

a)

Sex glands

1.

Gonad/o

b)

Sameness

2.

Home/o

c)

Hormone

3.

Hormon/o

d)

Iris

4.

Ir/o, Irid/o

e)

Potassium

5.

Kal/i

76.

Match the description with the correct combining form (6)

a)

Milk

1.

Lact/o

b)

Smaller, less

2.

Mi/o

c)

Widen, enlarge

3.

Mydr/o

d)

Eardrum

4.

Myring/o, Tympan/o

e)

Mucus

5.

Myx/o

77.

Match the description with the correct combining form (7)

a)

Sodium

1.

Natr/o

b)

Night

2.

Nyct/o

c)

Eye

3.

Ocul/o, Ophthalm/o

d)

Eye, vision

4.

Opt/o, Opti/o

e)

Optic disc; nipple-like

5.

Papill/o

78.

Match the description with the correct combining form (8)

a)

Pancreas

1.

Pancreat/o

b)

Parathyroid gland

2.

Parathyroid/o

c)

Pituitary gland; hypophysis

3.

Pituitar/o

d)

Lens of the eye

4.

Phac/o, Phak/o

e)

Light

5.

Phot/o

79.

Match the description with the correct combining form (9)

a)

Growing

1.

Phys/o

b)

Old age

2.

Presby/o

c)

Pupil

3.

Pupill/o

d)

Retina

4.

Retin/o

e)

Sclera, hard

5.

Scler/o

80.

Match the description with the correct combining form (10)

a)

Darkness

1.

Scot/o

b)

Body

2.

Somat/o

c)

Solid structure

3.

Ster/o

d)

Thyroid gland

4.

Thyr/o, Thyroid/o

e)

Childbirth

5.

Toc/o

81.

Match the description with the correct combining form (11)

a)

Poison

1.

Tox/o, Toxic/o

b)

Urine

2.

Ur/o

c)

Uvea

3.

Uve/o

d)

Glossy

4.

Vitre/o

e)

Dry

5.

Xer/o

82.

Match the description with the correct suffix (1)

a)

Hearing

1.

-acusis, -acusia, -cusis

b)

Assemble, gather together

2.

-agon

c)

Blood condition

3.

-emia

d)

Substance

4.

-in, -ine

83.

Match the description with the correct suffix (2)

a)

Vision

1.

-opia, -opsia

b)

To turn

2.

-tropia

c)

Stimulating the function of

3.

-tropin

d)

Urine condition

4.

-uria

84.

Match the description with the correct prefix (1)

a)

Good, normal

1.

Eu-

b)

Excessive, above

2.

Hyper-

c)

Deficient, below, under, less than normal

3.

Hypo-

d)

Rapid, sharp, acid

4.

Oxy-

85.

Match the description with the correct prefix (2)

a)

All

1.

Pan-

b)

Many or increased

2.

Poly-

c)

Four

3.

Tetra-

d)

Three

4.

Tri-